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  • InvalidCastException in DataGridView

    - by Max Yaffe
    (Using VS 2010 Beta 2 - .Net 4.0 B2 Rel) I have a class, MyTable, derived from BindingList where S is a struct. S is made up of several other structs, for example: public class MyTable<S>:BindingList<S> where S: struct { ... } public struct MyStruct { public MyReal r1; public MyReal r2; public MyReal R1 {get{...} set{...}} public MyReal R2 {get{...} set{...}} ... } public struct MyReal { private Double d; private void InitFromString(string) {this.d = ...;} public MyReal(Double d) { this.d = d;} public MyReal(string val) { this.d = default(Double); InitFromString(val);} public override string ToString() { return this.real.ToString();} public static explicit operator MyReal(string s) { return new MyReal(s);} public static implicit operator String(MyReal r) { return r.ToString();} ... } OK, I use the MyTable as a binding source for a DataGridView. I can load the data grid easily using InitFromString on individual fields in MyStruct. The problem comes when I try to edit a value in a cell of the DataGridView. Going to the first row, first column, I change the value of the existing number. It gives an exception blizzard, the first line of which says: System.FormatException: Invalid cast from 'System.String' to 'MyReal' I've looked at the casting discussions and reference books but don't see any obvious problems. Any ideas?

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  • Basic jUnit Questions

    - by Epitaph
    I was testing a String multiplier class with a multiply() method that takes 2 numbers as inputs (as String) and returns the result number (as String) `public String multiply(String num1, String num2); I have done the implementation and created a test class with the following test cases involving the input String parameter as 1) valid numbers 2) characters 3) special symbol 4) empty string 5) Null value 6) 0 7) Negative number 8) float 9) Boundary values 10) Numbers that are valid but their product is out of range 11) numbers will + sign (+23) 1) I'd like to know if "each and every" assertEquals() should be in it's own test method? Or, can I group similar test cases like testInvalidArguments() to contains all asserts involving invalid characters since ALL of them throw the same NumberFormatException ? 2) If testing an input value like character ("a"), do I need to include test cases for ALL scenarios? "a" as the first argument "a" as the second argument "a" and "b" as the 2 arguments 3) As per my understanding, the benefit of these unit tests is to find out the cases where the input from a user might fail and result in an exception. And, then we can give the user with a meaningful message (asking them to provide valid input) instead of an exception. Is that the correct? And, is it the only benefit? 4) Are the 11 test cases mentioned above sufficient? Did I miss something? Did I overdo? When is enough? 5) Following from the above point, have I successfully tested the multiply() method?

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  • WPF Databinding problem

    - by costin
    Hi, I'm new to WPF and I have some difficulties when I'm trying to populate a ListView with a list of custom objects. internal class ApplicationCode { public int Code { get; set; } public IEnumerable<string> InstrumentCodes { get; set; } } I have a list of ApplicationCode which I set to ItemsSource to a ListView. I need to display the ApplicationCode.Code as a string and for the rest of the columns a check box which can be checked/unchecked depending if the column name is contained in the InstrumentCodes collection. In order to set the check box I use a converter on databinding: <DataTemplate x:Key="InstrumentCodeTemplate"> <CheckBox IsEnabled="False" IsChecked="{Binding Mode=OneTime, Converter={StaticResource InstrumentSelectionConverter}}" /> </DataTemplate> The problem I have is because I can't know which is the current column at the time of cell data binding and I can't set the ConverterParameter. public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { ApplicationCode appCode = value as ApplicationCode; return appCode != null && appCode.InstrumentCodes.Contains(parameter.ToString()); } There is a way to find out the column index or name? Or there is another way to solve this problem?

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  • jquery - radio button not checked on page load, but checked on same function call later

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    Hi, I'm having a strange problem with jquery. When my page loads, I dynamically create some simple radio buttons in a special i've created. However, the default radio button is not checked. It is checked however when the change() event is triggered later, but is never checked the first time. Can someone help? I am certain that the change() event is triggered on the page load, because the rest of the HTML is added dynamically and I can see it. The basic idea is when the page loads, I bind an event handler, and then immediately call it to make sure that the default options are loaded. $(document).ready(function() { $(".options select[name=App]").change(onAppChange); //trigger the change function in the dropdown to populate default options $(".options select[name=App]").change() } Here is the simple onAppChange() function: function onAppChange() { var val = $(this).val(); var app_options = $(this).closest(".options").find(".app_options"); //clear the app_options app_options.empty(); var newOptions = ''; switch(val) { case 'testapp': newOptions='\ <fieldset>\ <legend>TestApp</legend>\ Option 1:\ <label>\ <input type="radio" name="option1" value="value1" checked>\ Value1\ </label>\ \ <label>\ <input type="radio" name="option1" value="value2">\ value2\ </label>\ \ </fieldset>'; break; case 'todo': //for testing newOptions='FOO'; break; } app_options.append(newOptions); } Yes, I am aware that I could use javascript to automatically select a radio button again, but I asked this question because I wanted to understand why this is happening. When using and , there doesn't seem to be any problem. Only with radio buttons. Why does the behavior differ when the same change() event is triggered? What is going on behind the scenes?

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  • How to call Ajax function recursively.

    - by MAS1
    Hi guys, I want to know how to call Ajax function Recursively. My ajax code is like this, <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var step='1'; $.ajax ( { url: 'test1.php', data: {step: step}, success: function(output) { step=eval(output); alert(step); } } ); </script> </head> </html> And php code is like this <?php function writeName() { echo "step=2"; } function ReadName() { echo "In Read Name Function"; } if(isset($_REQUEST['step']) && !empty($_REQUEST['step'])) { $step = $_REQUEST['step']; switch($step) { case '1' : writeName(); break; case '2' : ReadName(); break; default : echo "Empty String"; } } ?> first time this function is get called with value of step variable equal to 1 and Function Write name modified it as 2. Now i want to call this Ajax function with Step variable value equal to 2. So that 2nd php function gets called.

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  • Custom Java ListCellRenderer - Can't click JCheckBox

    - by Spencer
    Made a custom ListCellRenderer: import java.awt.Component; import javax.swing.JCheckBox; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.JList; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.ListCellRenderer; /** * * @author Spencer */ public class TaskRenderer implements ListCellRenderer { private Task task; private JPanel panel = new JPanel(); private JCheckBox checkbox = new JCheckBox(); private JLabel label = new JLabel(); public TaskRenderer() { panel.add(checkbox); panel.add(label); } public Component getListCellRendererComponent( JList list, Object value, int index, boolean isSelected, boolean cellHasFocus) { task = (Task) value; label.setText(task.getName()); return panel; } } Have a JList with each cell in it rendered using the above class, but the checkboxes in the panels for each cell cannot be clicked. Thought it had to do with it not getting focus. Any ideas? Thanks, Spencer

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  • funny behavior of jquery code

    - by user253530
    Funny thing is that if i delete the comment for alert(data[i].id) the code works. As it is in the example, the string is not concatenated thus i have no options in the select box. Hints? Help? var bookmarkingSites = ''; $.getJSON("php/socialbookmark-get-bookmarking-sites.php",function(data){ for(var i = 0; i < data.length; i++){ //alert( data[i].id); bookmarkingSites += '<option value = \"' + data[i].id + '\">' + data[i].title + '</option>'; } }); <some more code> -------> toAppend += '<td><select name="sb2" id="sb2">'+ '<option value="'+ data.results[i].bookmark +'">' + data.results[i].bookmark +'</option>' + bookmarkingSites + '</select></td>'; <some more code>

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  • Custom Validation Attribute with Custom Model Binder in MVC 2

    - by griegs
    I apologise for the amount of code I have included. I've tried to keep it to a minimum. I'm trying to have a Custom Validator Attribute on my model as well as a Custom Model binder. The Attribute and the Binder work great seperately but if I have both, then the Validation Attribute no longer works. Here is my code snipped for readability. If I leave out the code in global.asax the custom validation fires but not if I have the custom binder enabled. Validation Attribute; public class IsPhoneNumberAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { //do some checking on 'value' here return true; } } Useage of the attribute in my model; [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please provide a contact number")] [IsPhoneNumberAttribute(ErrorMessage = "Not a valid phone number")] public string Phone { get; set; } Custom Model Binder; public class CustomContactUsBinder : DefaultModelBinder { protected override void OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { ContactFormViewModel contactFormViewModel = bindingContext.Model as ContactFormViewModel; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(contactFormViewModel.Phone)) if (contactFormViewModel.Phone.Length > 10) bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Phone", "Phone is too long."); } } Global asax; System.Web.Mvc.ModelBinders.Binders[typeof(ContactFormViewModel)] = new CustomContactUsBinder();

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  • What is the correct way to configure a spring TextEncryptor for use on Heroku

    - by Ollie Edwards
    I have a spring TextEncryptor defined like this <bean id="textEncryptor" class="org.springframework.security.crypto.encrypt.Encryptors" factory-method="text"> <constructor-arg value="${security.encryptPassword}" /> <constructor-arg value="${security.encryptSalt}" /> </bean> Which is fed these properties security.encryptPassword=47582920264f212c566d5e5a6d security.encryptSalt=39783e315e6a207e733d6f4141 Which works fine on my local environment. When I deploy to Heroku I get java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to initialize due to invalid secret key at org.springframework.security.crypto.encrypt.CipherUtils.initCipher(CipherUtils.java:110) at org.springframework.security.crypto.encrypt.AesBytesEncryptor.encrypt(AesBytesEncryptor.java:65) at org.springframework.security.crypto.encrypt.HexEncodingTextEncryptor.encrypt(HexEncodingTextEncryptor.java:36) ... Caused by: java.security.InvalidKeyException: Illegal key size at javax.crypto.Cipher.checkCryptoPerm(Cipher.java:972) at javax.crypto.Cipher.implInit(Cipher.java:738) at javax.crypto.Cipher.chooseProvider(Cipher.java:797) at javax.crypto.Cipher.init(Cipher.java:1276) at javax.crypto.Cipher.init(Cipher.java:1215) at org.springframework.security.crypto.encrypt.CipherUtils.initCipher(CipherUtils.java:105) ... 53 more So I tried some smaller keys but I always get the same problem. What is the correct key size to use on Heroku?

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  • update variable based upon results from .NET backgroundworker

    - by Bruce
    I've got a C# program that talks to an instrument (spectrum analyzer) over a network. I need to be able to change a large number of parameters in the instrument and read them back into my program. I want to use backgroundworker to do the actual talking to the instrument so that UI performance doesn't suffer. The way this works is - 1) send command to the instrument with new parameter value, 2) read parameter back from the instrument so I can see what actually happened (for example, I try to set the center frequency above the max that the instrument will handle and it tells me what it will actually handle), and 3) update a program variable with the actual value received from the instrument. Because there are quite a few parameters to be updated I'd like to use a generic routine. The part I can't seem to get my brain around is updating the variable in my code with what comes back from the instrument via backgroundworker. If I used a separate RunWorkerCompleted event for each parameter I could hardwire the update directly to the variable. I'd like to come up with a way of using a single routine that's capable of updating any of the variables. All I can come up with is passing a reference number (different for each parameter) and using a switch statement in the RunWorkerCompleted handler to direct the result. There has to be a better way.

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  • Dynamically manipulate php cookies with javascript/jquery

    - by pundit
    Hi guys, I'm currently building a dynamic menu bar(vertical and horizontal). in the default position its vertical. the user have the option to show the horizontal position and hide and vertical. I am currently doing that with javascript/ jquery. in order to keep the menu bar in the horizontal position i am keeping a count with a cookie. the problem is that when i use the click function in javascript i want to change the value of the cookie. i have no knowledge of how to do this. Can anyone assist me with this. all help would be appreciated. <?php setcookie('menu', 1, time()+(86400)); ?> $(document).ready(function() { $('#temp').hide(); if(<?php echo $_COOKIE['menu'];?> == 1){ $('#topmenu').hide(); $('#sidemenu').floating().dropShadow().floating(); $('#sidemenu_bottom').hide(); }else{ $('#topmenu').show(); $('#topmenu').dropShadow(); $('#sidemenu').hide(); $('#sidemenu').removeShadow(); } $('#move').click(function(){ $('#sidemenu').hide("drop",{},2000); $('#sidemenu').removeShadow(); $('#topmenu').show(); $('#topmenu').dropShadow(); $('#sidemenu_bottom').show(); $('#sidemenu_bottom').floating().dropShadow().floating(); }); }); This is what i have so far and the default cookie is working as well as the javascript. its just to change the cookie value now. thanks.

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  • PHP set timeout for script with system call, set_time_limit not working

    - by tehalive
    I have a command-line PHP script that runs a wget request using each member of an array with foreach. This wget request can sometimes take a long time so I want to be able to set a timeout for killing the script if it goes past 15 seconds for example. I have PHP safemode disabled and tried set_time_limit(15) early in the script, however it continues indefinitely. Update: Thanks to Dor for pointing out this is because set_time_limit() does not respect system() calls. So I was trying to find other ways to kill the script after 15 seconds of execution. However, I'm not sure if it's possible to check the time a script has been running while it's in the middle of a wget request at the same time (a do while loop did not work). Maybe fork a process with a timer and set it to kill the parent after a set amount of time? Thanks for any tips! Update: Below is my relevant code. $url is passed from the command-line and is an array of multiple URLs (sorry for not posting this initially): foreach( $url as $key => $value){ $wget = "wget -r -H -nd -l 999 $value"; system($wget); }

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  • How do I access variable values from one view controller in another?

    - by Thomas
    Hello all, I have an integer variable (time) in one view controller whose value I need in another view controller. Here's the code: MediaMeterViewController // TRP - On Touch Down event, start the timer -(IBAction) startTimer { time = 0; // TRP - Start a timer timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [timer retain]; // TRP - Retain timer so it is not accidentally deallocated } // TRP - Method to update the timer display -(void)updateTimer { time++; // NSLog(@"Seconds: %i ", time); if (NUM_SECONDS == time) [timer invalidate]; } // TRP - On Touch Up Inside event, stop the timer, decide stress level, display results -(IBAction) btn_MediaMeterResults { [timer invalidate]; NSLog(@"Seconds: %i ", time); ResultsViewController *resultsView = [[ResultsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ResultsViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:resultsView.view]; } And in ResultsViewController, I want to process time based on its value ResultsViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { if(time < 3) {// Do something} else if ((time > 3) && (time < 6)) {// Do something else} //etc... [super viewDidLoad]; } I'm kind of unclear on when @property and @synthesize is necessary. Is that the case in this situation? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Thomas

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  • drew's autoSuggest plugin help with AJAX results not showing

    - by s2xi
    hey guys, i use drew's autoSuggest plugin for some time but up until now I have hard coded my data into my JS, I'm trying to see if I can use AJAX to return the JSON data and query data like that. I seem to have it working but no matter what I try I can't get the results to be shown in the drop down UL it creates via jquery. The JSON comes back as it should. This is my PHP code: $input = $_GET["q"]; $data = array(); // query your DataBase here looking for a match to $input $query = mysql_query("SELECT `state`, `idStates` FROM `states_list` WHERE (`state` LIKE '%{$input}%' OR `abbr` LIKE '%{$input}%')"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $json = array(); $json['value'] = $row['idStates']; $json['name'] = $row['state']; $data[] = $json; } header("Content-type: application/json"); echo json_encode($data); and my JS: $('#state').autoSuggest('resources/ajax/suggest.php', {matchCase: true, minChars: 2, startText: '', emptyText: '', retrieveComplete: function(data){ console.log(data.value) }}); I have been trying to debug so I added the retrieveComplete parameter in there for that. the PHP returns the AJAX with the JSON content...now just to figure out how to get the JS to pick it up append it to the UL LI UPDATE: I appened the data to a test div and its returning results:[object Object],[object Object],[object Object]

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  • DataContext, DataBinding and Element Binding in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I'm having one hell of a time trying to get my databinding to work correctly. I have reason to believe that what I'm trying to accomplish can't be done, but we'll see what answers I get. I've got a UserControl. This UserControl contains nothing more than a button. Now within the code behind, I've got a property name IsBookmarked. When IsBookmarked is set, code is run that animates the look of the button. The idea is that you click the button and it visually changes. We'll call this UserControl a Bookmark control. Now I have another control, which we'll call the FormControl. My FormControl contains a child Bookmark control. I've tried to do databinding on my Bookmark control, but it's not working. Here's some code to help you out. <UserControl ......> <q:Bookmark x:Name="BookMarkControl1" IsBookmarked="{Binding IsSiteBookmarked}" /> </UserControl> public void Control_Loaded(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataContext = new Employee { IsSiteBookmarked = True }; } public partial class Bookmark : UserControl { bool _IsSiteBookmarked= false; public bool IsSiteBookmarked { get {return _IsSiteBookmarked;} set { _IsSiteBookmarked= value; SwitchMode(value); } } }

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  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

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  • WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

    - by mafutrct
    I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

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  • jqModal dialog - only displaying once

    - by James Inman
    I've got a jqModal dialog with the following code: $(document).ready( function() { $('td.item.active').click( function(e) { $(this).append( '<div class="new">&nbsp;</div>' ); $("#jqModal").jqm({ modal:true, onHide: function(e) { e.w.hide(); // Hide window e.o.remove(); // Remove overlay } }); $('#jqModal').jqmShow(); $('input#add_session').click( function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#jqModal').hide(); $('.jqmOverlay').remove(); }); }); }); The HTML used is as follows: <div id="jqModal" class="jqmWindow"> <form action="" method="post"> <ul> <li> <input id="add_session" name="commit" type="submit" value="Add Session" /> <input type="button" name="close" value="Close" id="close" class="jqmClose" /> </li> </ul> </form> </div> When I first click a <td>, the dialog launches without a problem. On the second click (or subsequent), the new class is added to the <div>, but the dialog doesn't launch.

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  • WCF identity when moving from dev to prod. environment

    - by Anders Abel
    I have a web service developed with WCF. In the development environment the endpoint has the following identity section under the endpoint configuration. <identity> <dns value="myservice.devdomain.local" /> </identity> myservice.devdomain.local is the dns name used to reach the development version of the service. The binding used is: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name ="myBinding"> <security mode ="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> I am about to put this into production. The binding will be the same, but the address will be a new production address myservice.proddomain.local. I have planned to change the dns value in the configuration to myservice.proddomain.local in the production environment. However this MSDN article on WCF Identity makes me worried about the impact on the clients when I change the identity. There are two clients - one .NET and one Java using this service. Both of those have been developed against the dev instance of the service. The idea is to just reconfigure the endpoint used by the clients, without reloading the WSDL. But if the identity is somehow part of the WSDL and the identity changes when deploying to prod that might not work. Will the new identity in the prod version cause issues for the clients that were developed using the dev wsdl? Do the Java and the .NET clients handle this differently?

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  • Conflict When Two Storyboards Sets the Opacity Property?

    - by kennethkryger
    Hi, Background: I have a WPF UserControl (MainControl - not shown in code below) that contains another one (called MyControl in the code below). MainControl has it's DataContext set to an object, that has a Project-property. When MainControl loads, the Project-property is always null. The problem: When MainControl loads, I want to fade in the MyControl using a special storyboard (only used this one time (this "specialFadeInStoryboard" changes Opacity-property of MyControl from 0 to 1). When the Project-property is set to a value other than null, I want the MyControl to fade out using the "fadeOutStoryboard" (changes Opacity-property of MyControl to 0) and if it's set to null afterwards I want to fade it in again this time using the "fadeInStoryboard" (changes Opacity-property of MyControl to 1). However, after adding the code for the "specialFadeInStoryboard", the MyControl is never faded out... What am I doing wrong? <local:MyControl Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=Opacity, Converter={StaticResource opacityToVisibilityConverter}, Mode=OneWay}"> <local:MyControl.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="FrameworkElement.Loaded"> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource specialFadeInStoryboard}"/> </EventTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Project, Converter={StaticResource nullToBooleanConverter}, Mode=OneWay}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource fadeOutStoryboard}"/> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> <DataTrigger.ExitActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource fadeInStoryboard}"/> </DataTrigger.ExitActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </local:MyControl.Style> </local:MyControl>

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  • Django - Override admin site's login form

    - by TrojanCentaur
    I'm currently trying to override the default form used in Django 1.4 when logging in to the admin site (my site uses an additional 'token' field required for users who opt in to Two Factor Authentication, and is mandatory for site staff). Django's default form does not support what I need. Currently, I've got a file in my templates/ directory called templates/admin/login.html, which seems to be correctly overriding the template used with the one I use throughout the rest of my site. The contents of the file are simply as below: # admin/login.html: {% extends "login.html" %} The actual login form is as below: # login.html: {% load url from future %}<!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Please log in</title> </head> <body> <div id="loginform"> <form method="post" action="{% url 'id.views.auth' %}"> {% csrf_token %} <input type="hidden" name="next" value="{{ next }}" /> {{ form.username.label_tag }}<br/> {{ form.username }}<br/> {{ form.password.label_tag }}<br/> {{ form.password }}<br/> {{ form.token.label_tag }}<br/> {{ form.token }}<br/> <input type="submit" value="Log In" /> </form> </div> </body> </html> My issue is that the form provided works perfectly fine when accessed using my normal login URLs because I supply my own AuthenticationForm as the form to display, but through the Django Admin login route, Django likes to supply it's own form to this template and thus only the username and password fields render. Is there any way I can make this work, or is this something I am just better off 'hard coding' the HTML fields into the form for?

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  • JQuery Validation Plugin: Prevent validation issue on nested form

    - by Majid
    I have a form on which I use validation. This form has a section for photo upload. Initially this section contains six elements with the following code: <img class="photo_upload" src="image/app/photo_upload.jpg"> I have bound a function to the click event for the class of photo_upload. This function replaces the image with a minimal form with this code: Copy code <form onsubmit="startUploadImage();" target="control_target" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="index.php"> <input type="hidden" value="add_image" name="service"> <input type="hidden" value="1000000" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE"> <input type="file" size="10" name="photo" id="photo_file_upload"><br> <button onclick="javascript:cancel_photo_upload();return false;">Cancel</button> </form> So, essentially, after the image is clicked, I'd have a new form nested in my original, validated form. Now, when I use this new form and upload an image, I receive an error (repeated three times) saying: validator is undefined http://host.com/path/index.php Line 286 What is going on here? My guess is this Submit event bubbles up to the outer form As we have validation on that form, validation is triggered, Validation tries to find the form triggering it, Since we have not bound validation to the inner form it returns 'undefined' Now, is my assessment correct? Whether it is or not, how can I solve this issue?

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  • jquery ui autocomplete with database

    - by user301766
    I fairly new to JQuery and perhaps trying to achieve something that might be abit harder for a beginner. However I am trying to create an autocomplete that sends the current value to a PHP script and then returns the necessary values. Here is my Javascript code $("#login_name").autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { $.ajax({ url: "http://www.myhost.com/myscript.php", dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) { alert(data); response($.map(data, function(item) { return { label: item.user_login_name, value: item.user_id } })) } }) }, minLength: 2 }); And here is the the last half of "myscript.php" while($row = $Database->fetch(MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { foreach($row as $column=>$val) { $results[$i][$column] = $val; } $i++; } print json_encode($results); Which produces the following output [{"user_id":"2","user_login_name":"Name1"},{"user_id":"3","user_login_name":"Name2"},{"user_id":"4","user_login_name":"Name3"},{"user_id":"5","user_login_name":"Name4"},{"user_id":"6","user_login_name":"Name5"},{"user_id":"7","user_login_name":"Name6"}] Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong please? Starting to get quite frustrated. The input box just turns "white" and no options are shown. The code does work if I specify an array of values.

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  • How to add legend to imshow() in matplotlib

    - by rankthefirst
    I am using matplotlib In plot() or bar(), we can easily put legend, if we add labels to them. but what if it is a contourf() or imshow() I know there is a colorbar() which can present the color range, but it is not satisfied. I want such a legend which have names(labels). For what I can think of is that, add labels to each element in the matrix, then ,try legend(), to see if it works, but how to add label to the element, like a value?? in my case, the raw data is like: 1,2,3,3,4 2,3,4,4,5 1,1,1,2,2 for example, 1 represents 'grass', 2 represents 'sand', 3 represents 'hill'... and so on. imshow() works perfectly with my case, but without the legend. my question is: Is there a function that can automatically add legend, for example, in my case, I just have to do like this: someFunction('grass','sand',...) If there isn't, how do I add labels to each value in the matrix. For example, label all the 1 in the matrix 'grass', labell all the 2 in the matrix 'sand'...and so on. Thank you!

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  • How can I store HTML in a Doctrine YML fixture

    - by argibson
    I am working with a CMS-type site in Symfony 1.4 (Doctrine 1.2) and one of the things that is frustrating me is not being able to store HTML pages in YML fixtures. Instead I have to create SQL backups of the data if I want to drop and rebuild which is a bit of a pest when Symfony/Doctrine has a fantastic mechanism for doing exactly this. I could write a mechanism that reads in a set of HTML files for each page and fills the data in that way (or even write it as a task). But before I go down that road I am wondering if there is any way for HTML to be stored in a YML fixture so that Doctrine can simply import it into the database. Update: I have tried using symfony doctrine:data-dump and symfony doctrine:data-load however despite the dump correctly creating the fixture with the HTML, the load task appears to 'skip' the value of the column with the HTML and enters everything else into the row. In the database the field doesn't show up as 'NULL' but rather empty so I believe Doctrine is adding the value of the column as ''. Below is a sample of the YML fixture that symfony doctrine:data-dump created. I have tried running symfony doctrine:data-load against various forms of this including removing all the escaped characters (new lines and quotes leaving only angle brackets) but it still doesn't work. Product_69: name: 'My Product' Developer: Developer_30 tagline: 'Text that briefly describes the product' version: '2008' first_published: '' price_code: A79 summary: '' box_image: '' description: "<div id=\"featureSlider\">\n <ul class=\"slider\">\n <li class=\"sliderItem\" title=\"Summary\">\n <div class=\"feature\">\n Some text goes in here</div>\n </li>\n </ul>\n </div>\n" is_visible: true

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