Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 717/854 | < Previous Page | 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724  | Next Page >

  • Designing a chain of states

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to model a kind of FSM(Finite State Machine). I have a sequence of states (let's say, from StateA to StateZ). This sequence is called a Chain and is implemented internally as a List. I will add states by the order I want them to run. My purpose is to be able to make a sequence of actions in my computer (for example, mouse clicks). (I know this has been done a zillion times). So a state is defined as a: boolean Precondition() <- Checks to see if for this state, some condition is true. For example, if I want to click in the Record button of a program, in this method I would check if the program's process is running or not. If it is, go to the next state in the chain list, otherwise, go to what was defined as the fail state (generally is the first state of them all). IState GetNextState() <- Returns the next state to evaluate. If Precondition() was sucessful, it should yield the next state in the chain otherwise it should yield the fail state. Run() Simply checks the Precondition() and sets the internal data so GetNextState() works as expected. So, a naive approach to this would be something like this: Chain chain = new Chain(); //chain.AddState(new State(Precondition, FailState, NextState) <- Method structure chain.AddState(new State(new WinampIsOpenCondition(), null, new <problem here, I want to referr to a state that still wasn't defined!>); The big problem is that I want to make a reference to a State that at this point still wasn't defined. I could circumvent the problem by using strings when refrering to states and using an internal hashtable, but isn't there a clearer alternative? I could just pass only the pre-condition and failure states in the constructor, having the chain just before execution put in each state the correct next state in a public property but that seems kind of awkward.

    Read the article

  • How to call implemented method of generic enum in Java?

    - by Justin Wiseman
    I am trying pass an enum into a method, iterate over that enums values, and call the method that that enum implements on all of those values. I am getting compiler errors on the part "value.getAlias()". It says "The method getAlias() is undefined for the type E" I have attempted to indicate that E implements the HasAlias interface, but it does not seem to work. Is this possible, and if so, how do I fix the code below to do what I want? The code below is only meant to show my process, it is not my intention to just print the names of the values in an enum, but to demonstate my problem. public interface HasAlias{ String getAlias(); }; public enum Letters implements HasAlias { A("The letter A"), B("The letter B"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public enum Numbers implements HasAlias { ONE("The number one"), TWO("The number two"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public class Identifier { public <E extends Enum<? extends HasAlias>> void identify(Class<E> enumClass) { for(E value : enumClass.getEnumConstants()) { System.out.println(value.getAlias()); } } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

    Read the article

  • ListView - Index and Position Behavior upon restart()

    - by tunneling
    I am using a ListView with an ArrayAdapter that holds objects. When I select an item, I am capturing the position and index of the selected item. If I scroll down prior to selection, the position and index represent the location of the item in the list. Selecting that items takes me to another activity. When I use the back button to return to the list, it seems that the ListView get's a new position and index for the visible items. As a result, I can't figure out how to reference the selected item during the restart() of the ListView Activity. I have tried to caputure position and index, but as I've said, they change upon returning to the Activity. Is my understanding of the ListView "redraw" correct? Does it renumber my items based on what's visible? -When in the life cycle is getView() called? Is there a way to force an update to the ListView so that my caputured index still points to the same object? Thanks, Jason

    Read the article

  • c# finding matching words in table column using Linq2Sql

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to use Linq2Sql to return all rows that contain values from a list of strings. The linq2sql class object has a string property that contains words separated by spaces. public class MyObject { public string MyProperty { get; set; } } Example MyProperty values are: MyObject1.MyProperty = "text1 text2 text3 text4" MyObject2.MyProperty = "text2" For example, using a string collection, I pass the below list var list = new List<>() { "text2", "text4" } This would return both items in my example above as they both contain "text2" value. I attempted the following using the below code however, because of my extension method the Linq2Sql cannot be evaluated. public static IQueryable<MyObject> WithProperty(this IQueryable<MyProperty> qry, IList<string> p) { return from t in qry where t.MyProperty.Contains(p, ' ') select t; } I also wrote an extension method public static bool Contains(this string str, IList<string> list, char seperator) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(str) || list == null) return false; var splitStr = str.Split(new char[] { seperator }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); foreach (string s in splitStr) foreach (string l in list) if (String.Compare(s, l, true) == 0) return true; return false; } Any help or ideas on how I could achieve this?

    Read the article

  • How can I use a compound condition in a join in Linq?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have a Customer table which has a PrimaryContactId field and a SecondaryContactId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the Contact table. For any given customer, either one or two contacts may be stored. In other words, PrimaryContactId can never be NULL, but SecondaryContactId can be NULL. If I drop my Customer and Contact tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder will spot the two FK relationships from the Customer table to the Contact table, and so the generated Customer class will have a Contact field and a Contact1 field (which I can rename to PrimaryContact and SecondaryContact to avoid confusion). Now suppose that I want to get details of all the contacts for a given set of customers. If there was always exactly one contact then I could write something like: from customer in customers join contact in contacts on customer.PrimaryContactId equals contact.id select ... ...which would be translated into something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id But, because I want to join on both the contact fields, I want the SQL to look something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id OR Customer.SecondSalesPersonId = Contact.id How can I write a Linq expression to do that?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

    Read the article

  • How to return output from .Net Dll to the calling Application

    - by sachin
    I have to create one VB.Net Dll for VB.Net Application.In DLL there will be function to calculate the fee based on some parameter which I pass when call the function from appllication, output of calculated fee would be this type **Validations are not selected. Rate information: IN:11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT:11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:3; Description:$3 Fixed IN:11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT:11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:1; Description:$1 Fixed Sub Total: IN: 11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT: 11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:4; Description: Rate Group1 Rate information: IN:11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT:11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:3; Description:$3 Fixed Sub Total: IN: 11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT: 11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:3; Description: Rate Group1** Can anybody tell me how can I return output of this type to the application ,so that I can use it in that application.

    Read the article

  • converting code from non-(C)ontinuation (P)assing (S)tyle to CPS

    - by Delirium tremens
    before: function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; var validateduri; var downloaduris; var compareuris; var tryinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(); validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri); downloaduris = new Array(); downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri); compareuris = new Array(); compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(validateduri); tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri() { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; return visitinguri; } after (I'm trying): function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(sc_startSiteComparec1); } function sc_startSiteComparec1 (visitinguri) { var validateduri; validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri, sc_startSiteComparec2); } function sc_startSiteComparec2 (visitinguri, c) { var downloaduris; downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec3); } function sc_startSiteComparec3 (validateduri, c) { var compareuris; compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(downloaduris, validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec4); } function sc_startSiteComparec4 (downloaduris, compareuris, validateduri, c) { var tryinguri; tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri(c) { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; c(visitinguri); } I'm having to pass lots of arguments to functions now. global in procedural code look like this / self in modular code. Any difference? Will I really have to use OO now? As a last resort, does CPS have an alternative?

    Read the article

  • how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

    Read the article

  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

    Read the article

  • Setting up isolated COM for multiple projects.

    - by Praneeth
    My solution consists of multiple projects all of which out type class library except one whose output type is windows application. The application references all the other projects. I also have a COM component which is referenced by some of the projects and the application also. I can setup the regfree COM by changing the Isolated property of the referenced COM component in visual studio to TRUE. The solution builds successfully and I can see the manifest file generated for that particular assembly or application. Now, my question is that do I need to do this for all the projects which reference the COM component? If yes, then I know that i cannot set the Isolated property to TRUE on more than one project(gives a build error) so how do I workaround this? I am relatively new to .net and don't know much regfree COM(i assume what i am doing IS regfree COM?). Any help I can get on this issue is greatly appreciated. Thanks. I am currently using VS 2008.

    Read the article

  • PHP Function parameters - problem with var not being set

    - by Marty
    So I am obviously not a very good programmer. I have written this small function: function dispAdjuggler($atts) { extract(shortcode_atts(array( 'slot' => '' ), $atts)); $adspot = ''; $adtype = ''; // Get blog # we're on global $blog_id; switch ($blog_id) { case 1: // root blog HOME page if (is_home()) { switch ($slot) { case 'top_leaderboard': $adspot = '855525'; $adtype = '608934'; break; case 'right_halfpage': $adspot = '855216'; $adtype = '855220'; break; case 'right_med-rectangle': $adspot = '858222'; $adtype = '613526'; break; default: throw new Exception("Ad slot is not defined"); break; } When I reference the function on a page like so: <?php dispAdjuggler("top_leaderboard"); ?> The switch is throwing the default exception. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Do I need to Salt and Hash a randomly generated token?

    - by wag2639
    I'm using Adam Griffiths's Authentication Library for CodeIgniter and I'm tweaking the usermodel. I came across a generate function that he uses to generate tokens. His preferred approach is to reference a value from random.org but I considered that superfluous. I'm using his fall back approach of randomly generating a 20 character long string: $length = 20; $characters = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ'; $token = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $length; $i++) { $token .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } He then hashes this token using a salt (I'm combing code from different functions) sha1($this->CI->config->item('encryption_key').$str); I was wondering if theres any reason to to run the token through the salted hash? I've read that simply randomly generating strings was a naive way of making random passwords but is the sh1 hash and salt necessary? Note: I got my encryption_key from https://www.grc.com/passwords.htm (63 random alpha-numeric)

    Read the article

  • parse.json of authenticated play request

    - by niklassaers
    I've set up authentication in my application like this, always allow when a username is supplied and the API-key is 123: object Auth { def IsAuthenticated(block: => String => Request[AnyContent] => Result) = { Security.Authenticated(RetrieveUser, HandleUnauthorized) { user => Action { request => block(user)(request) } } } def RetrieveUser(request: RequestHeader) = { val auth = new String(base64Decode(request.headers.get("AUTHORIZATION").get.replaceFirst("Basic", ""))) val split = auth.split(":") val user = split(0) val pass = split(1) Option(user) } def HandleUnauthorized(request: RequestHeader) = { Results.Forbidden } def APIKey(apiKey: String)(f: => String => Request[AnyContent] => Result) = IsAuthenticated { user => request => if(apiKey == "123") f(user)(request) else Results.Forbidden } } I want then to define a method in my controller (testOut in this case) that uses the request as application/json only. Now, before I added authentication, I'd say "def testOut = Action(parse.json) {...}", but now that I'm using authentication, how can I add parse.json in to the mix and make this work? def testOut = Auth.APIKey("123") { username => implicit request => var props:Map[String, JsValue] = Map[String, JsValue]() request.body match { case JsObject(fields) => { props = fields.toMap } case _ => {} // Ok("received something else: " + request.body + '\n') } if(!props.contains("UUID")) props.+("UUID" -> UniqueIdGenerator.uuid) if (!props.contains("entity")) props.+("entity" -> "unset") props.+("username" -> username) Ok(props.toString) } As a bonus question, why is only UUID added to the props map, not entity and username? Sorry about the noob factor, I'm trying to learn Scala and Play at the same time. :-) Cheers Nik

    Read the article

  • How to create a generic method in C# that's all applicable to many types - ints, strings, doubles et

    - by satyajit
    Let's I have a method to remove duplicates in an integer Array public int[] RemoveDuplicates(int[] elems) { HashSet<int> uniques = new HashSet<int>(); foreach (int item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new int[uniques.Count]; int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } How can I make this generic such that now it accepts a string array and remove duplicates in it? How about a double array? I know I am probably mixing things here in between primitive and value types. For your reference the following code won't compile public List<T> RemoveDuplicates(List<T> elems) { HashSet<T> uniques = new HashSet<T>(); foreach (var item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new List<T>(); int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } The reason is that all generic types should be closed at run time. Thanks for you comments

    Read the article

  • Drupal Ubercart: error in passing values back to the Content Type after checkout

    - by user512826
    I am trying to set up event registration in a drupal site using Ubercart + the UC Node Checkout Module. I have followed the instructions provided in http://drupaleasy.com/blogs/ultimike/2009/03/event-registration-ubercart. However I seem to be unable to pass the Order ID and Payment Status back to the node. I have created a conditional action that on node checkout executes the following PHP code: I am using the following code to update the node on checkout - but nothing happens: if (isset($order)) { foreach ($order->products as $product) { if (isset($product->data['node_checkout_nid'])) { $node = node_load($product->data['node_checkout_nid']); $node->field_status['0']['value'] = 1; $node->field_orderid['0']['value'] = $order->order_id; node_save($node); } } } I know the conditional action is working because it prints dsm('hello world') messages on node checkout - however when I include a dsm($node) or dsm($product) in the PHP code, they return blank. Also when I go back to my product and click the 'Devel' tab, the 'data' string contains the following characters: a:1:{s:13:"form_build_id";s:37:"form-3ccc03345f4832c69666a89c560de940";} In this link http://www.ubercart.org/forum/support/10951/node_checkout_issue I found someone else with the same issue, but I have been unable to replicate his solution. Can anybody please help? Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

    Read the article

  • GridView to excel after create send mail c#

    - by Diego Bran
    I want to send a .xlsx , first I created (It has html code in it) then I used a SMTP server to send it , it does attach the file but when I tried to open it " It says that the file is corrupted etc" any help? Here is my code try { System.IO.StringWriter sw = new System.IO.StringWriter(); System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter htw = new System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter(sw); // Render grid view control. gvStock.RenderControl(htw); // Write the rendered content to a file. string renderedGridView = sw.ToString(); File.WriteAllText(@"C:\test\ExportedFile.xls", renderedGridView); // File.WriteAllText(@"C:\test\ExportedFile.xls", p1); } catch (Exception e) { Response.Write(e.Message); } try { MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); SmtpClient SmtpServer = new SmtpClient("server"); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "Test Mail - 1"; mail.Body = "mail with attachment"; Attachment data = new Attachment("C:/test/ExportedFile.xls"); mail.Attachments.Add(data); SmtpServer.Port = 25; SmtpServer.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("user", "pass"); // SmtpServer.EnableSsl = true; SmtpServer.UseDefaultCredentials = false; SmtpServer.Send(mail); } catch( Exception e) { Response.Write(e.Message); }

    Read the article

  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

    Read the article

  • Handling Apache Thrift list/map Return Types in C++

    - by initzero
    First off, I'll say I'm not the most competent C++ programmer, but I'm learning, and enjoying the power of Thrift. I've implemented a Thrift Service with some basic functions that return void, i32, and list. I'm using a Python client controlled by a Django web app to make RPC calls and it works pretty well. The generated code is pretty straight forward, except for list returns: namespace cpp Remote enum N_PROTO { N_TCP, N_UDP, N_ANY } service Rcon { i32 ping() i32 KillFlows() i32 RestartDispatch() i32 PrintActiveFlows() i32 PrintActiveListeners(1:i32 proto) list<string> ListAllFlows() } The generated signatures from Rcon.h: int32_t ping(); int32_t KillFlows(); int32_t RestartDispatch(); int32_t PrintActiveFlows(); int32_t PrintActiveListeners(const int32_t proto); int64_t ListenerBytesReceived(const int32_t id); void ListAllFlows(std::vector<std::string> & _return); As you see, the ListAllFlows() function generated takes a reference to a vector of strings. I guess I expect it to return a vector of strings as laid out in the .thrift description. I'm wondering if I am meant to provide the function a vector of strings to modify and then Thrift will handle returning it to my client despite the function returning void. I can find absolutely no resources or example usages of Thrift list< types in C++. Any guidance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Android: How to periodically send location to a server

    - by Mark
    Hi, I am running a Web service that allows users to record their trips (kind of like Google's MyTracks) as part of a larger app. The thing is that it is easy to pass data, including coords and other items, to the server when a user starts a trip or ends it. Being a newbie, I am not sure how to set up a background service that sends the location updates once every (pre-determined) period (min 3 minutes, max 1 hr) until the user flags the end of the trip, or until a preset amount of time elapses. Once the trip is started from the phone, the server responds with a polling period for the phone to use as the interval between updates. This part works, in that I can display the response on the phone, and my server registers the user's action. Similarly, the trip is closed server-side upon the close trip request. However, when I tried starting a periodic tracking method from inside the StartTrack Activity, using requestLocationUpdates(String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener) where minTime is the poll period from the server, it just did not work, and I'm not getting any errors. So it means I'm clueless at this point, never having used Android before. I have seen many posts here on using background services with handlers, pending intents, and other things to do similar stuff, but I really don't understand how to do it. I would like the user to do other stuff on the phone while the updates are going on, so if you guys could point me to a tutorial that shows how to actually write background services (maybe these run as separate classes?) or other ways of doing this, that would be great. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724  | Next Page >