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• How to return output from .Net Dll to the calling Application

  - by sachin

  I have to create one VB.Net Dll for VB.Net Application.In DLL there will be function to calculate the fee based on some parameter which I pass when call the function from appllication, output of calculated fee would be this type **Validations are not selected. Rate information: IN:11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT:11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:3; Description:$3 Fixed IN:11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT:11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:1; Description:$1 Fixed Sub Total: IN: 11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT: 11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:4; Description: Rate Group1 Rate information: IN:11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT:11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:3; Description:$3 Fixed Sub Total: IN: 11/14/20113:12:38 PM; OUT: 11/15/20113:12:38 PM; Fee:3; Description: Rate Group1** Can anybody tell me how can I return output of this type to the application ,so that I can use it in that application.

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• Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code?

  - by finrod

  Is there a way to easily create Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code? Motivation: I need my own implementation of the Process class. The native code spawns me a new process with subprocess' IO streams redirected to unnamed pipes. Problem: The file descriptors for correct ends of those pipes make their way to Java. At this point I get stuck as I cannot create a new FileDescriptor which I could pass to FileInput/FileOutput stream. I have used reflection to get around the problem and got communication with a simple bouncer sub-process running. However I have a notion that it is not the cleanest way to go. Have you used this approach? Do you see any problems with this approach? (the platform will never change) Searching around the internets revealed similar solution using native code. Any thoughts before I dive into heavy testing of this approach are very welcome. I would like to give a shot to existing code before writing my own IO stream implementations... Thank you.

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• How to Implement Backbone Java Logic Code into Android

  - by lord_sneed

  I wrote a program to work from the console in Eclipse and the terminal window in Linux. I am now transforming it into an Android app and I have the basic functionality of the Android UI done up until the point where it needs to use the logic from the Java file of the program I wrote. All of my inputs from the Java file are currently from the keyboard (from Scanners). My question is: how do I transform this to get it work with the user interaction of the app? The only input would be from the built in NumberPicker. Should I copy and paste the code from the Java program to the activity file in the onCreate method and change all of the input methods (Scanners) to work with the Android input? Or do I create variables in the activity file and pass them to the Java program (in the separate class)? (If so, how would I do that? the Java file starts from the main method: public static void main(String[] args) {) Also, will the print statements I have, System.out.println(...);, translate directly into the Android UI and print on the screen or do I have to modify those?

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• Passing time from server to client

  - by gskoli

  Dear all, i am creating a digital clock using images & javascript but i want to pass a server time that time ... How to do that ... I am getting time from server and passing it to Date Following i have given snippet . var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); function dotime(){ theTime=setTimeout('dotime();',1000); //d = new Date(Date.parse(time_str)); d= new Date(time_str); hr= d.getHours()+100; mn= d.getMinutes()+100; se= d.getSeconds()+100; var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); alert(' TIME ---> '+hr+' :: '+mn+' :: '+ se); if(hr==100){ hr=112;am_pm='am'; } else if(hr<112){ am_pm='am'; } else if(hr==112){ am_pm='pm'; } else if(hr>112){ am_pm='pm';hr=(hr-12); } tot=''+hr+mn+se; document.hr1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(1,2)+'.gif'; document.hr2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(2,3)+'.gif'; document.mn1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(4,5)+'.gif'; document.mn2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(5,6)+'.gif'; document.se1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(7,8)+'.gif'; document.se2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(8,9)+'.gif'; document.ampm.src= '/flash_files/digits/dg'+am_pm+'.gif'; } dotime(); But it is not working Help me out Thanks in advance.

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• "no inclosing instance error " while getting top term frequencies for document from Lucene index

  - by Julia

  Hello ! I am trying to get the most occurring term frequencies for every particular document in Lucene index. I am trying to set the treshold of top occuring terms that I care about, maybe 20 However, I am getting the "no inclosing instance of type DisplayTermVectors is accessible" when calling Comparator... So to this function I pass vector of every document and max top terms i would like to know protected static Collection getTopTerms(TermFreqVector tfv, int maxTerms){ String[] terms = tfv.getTerms(); int[] tFreqs = tfv.getTermFrequencies(); List result = new ArrayList(terms.length); for (int i = 0; i < tFreqs.length; i++) { TermFrq tf = new TermFrq(terms[i], tFreqs[i]); result.add(tf); } Collections.sort(result, new FreqComparator()); if(maxTerms < result.size()){ result = result.subList(0, maxTerms); } return result; } /Class for objects to hold the term/freq pairs/ static class TermFrq{ private String term; private int freq; public TermFrq(String term,int freq){ this.term = term; this.freq = freq; } public String getTerm(){ return this.term; } public int getFreq(){ return this.freq; } } /*Comparator to compare the objects by the frequency*/ class FreqComparator implements Comparator{ public int compare(Object pair1, Object pair2){ int f1 = ((TermFrq)pair1).getFreq(); int f2 = ((TermFrq)pair2).getFreq(); if(f1 > f2) return 1; else if(f1 < f2) return -1; else return 0; } } Explanations and corrections i will very much appreciate, and also if someone else had experience with term frequency extraction and did it better way, I am opened to all suggestions! Please help!!!! Thanx!

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• Working with PHP and MySQL - need a good and secure design with OO design

  - by Andrew

  I am new to PHP- first time developer. I am working on my web application and it is nearly done; nevertheless, most of my sql was done directly via code using direct mysql requests. This is the way I approached it: In classes_db.php I declared the db settings and created methods that I use to open and close DB connections. I declare those objects on my regular pages: class classes_db { public $dbserver = 'server; public $dbusername = 'user'; public $dbpassword = 'pass'; public $dbname = 'db'; function openDb() { $dbhandle = mysql_connect($this->dbserver, $this->dbusername, $this->dbpassword); if (!$dbhandle) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } $selected = mysql_select_db($this->dbname, $dbhandle) or die("Could not select the database"); return $dbhandle; } function closeDb($con) { mysql_close($con); } } On my regular page, I do this: <?php require 'classes_db.php'; session_start(); //create instance of the DB class $db = new classes_db(); //get dbhandle $dbhandle = $db->openDb(); //process query $result = mysql_query("update user set username = '" . $usernameFromForm . "' where iduser= " . $_SESSION['user']->iduser); //close the connection if (isset($dbhandle)) { $db->closeDb($dbhandle); } ?> My questions is: how to do it right and make it OO and secure? I know that I need incorporate prepared queries- how to do it the best way? Please provide some code

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• Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

  - by Michal Czardybon

  Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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• Cocoa NSTextField Drag & Drop Requires Subclass... Really?

  - by ipmcc

  Until today, I've never had occasion to use anything other than an NSWindow itself as an NSDraggingDestination. When using a window as a one-size-fits-all drag destination, the NSWindow will pass those messages on to its delegate, allowing you to handle drops without subclassing NSWindow. The docs say: Although NSDraggingDestination is declared as an informal protocol, the NSWindow and NSView subclasses you create to adopt the protocol need only implement those methods that are pertinent. (The NSWindow and NSView classes provide private implementations for all of the methods.) Either a window object or its delegate may implement these methods; however, the delegate’s implementation takes precedence if there are implementations in both places. Today, I had a window with two NSTextFields on it, and I wanted them to have different drop behaviors, and I did not want to allow drops anywhere else in the window. The way I interpret the docs, it seems that I either have to subclass NSTextField, or make some giant spaghetti-conditional drop handlers on the window's delegate that hit-checks the draggingLocation against each view in order to select the different drop-area behaviors for each field. The centralized NSWindow-delegate-based drop handler approach seems like it would be onerous in any case where you had more than a small handful of drop destination views. Likewise, the subclassing approach seems onerous regardless of the case, because now the drop handling code lives in a view class, so once you accept the drop you've got to come up with some way to marshal the dropped data back to the model. The bindings docs warn you off of trying to drive bindings by setting the UI value programmatically. So now you're stuck working your way back around that too. So my question is: "Really!? Are those the only readily available options? Or am I missing something straightforward here?" Thanks.

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• wordpress php > div issue

  - by Philip Bateman

  Thanks in advance for you help Ive been doing this as a lovejob for friends and now im getting quotes of several hundred dollars for minor homepage variation and I'm not sure if its valid. I'm not a programmer myself, just trying hard :) Via the CafePress press75 theme, I'm trying to go from 1 / 2 / 3 column home layout, to 1-2 merged and 3, push the 2nd column data to the right and have the 1st column span as a 16:9 gallery (nextgengallery plugin installed). Is this really a complex thing from a coding perspective? The current guy talking to me is saying its going to cost $700 or 800 AUD to alter, which is rough when the template cost $85.. From this http://shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/shocolatecurrent.jpg to this 'url+Shocolatelooklikethis.jpg' I was able to get the sidebar removed by taking out ‘‘ near the bottom of home.css.. Just can’t get the middle data to flow over it? This would be ideal as a result, as the system puts the latest selected blog post on the homepage, so if we can get rid of the sidebar div and have the text appear where it was, that would be ideal. Removing the sidebar from the bottom of home.php and setting the thumbnail width to say 450 gives me the result im after EXCEPT the text doesn’t fill where the sidebar is, it wraps underneath. Reference 'shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com' for current site Thank you!!! Phil (Melbourne)

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• Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

  - by franko75

  I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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• Login to website and use cookie to get source for another page

  - by Stu

  I am trying to login to the TV Rage website and get the source code of the My Shows page. I am successfully logging in (I have checked the response from my post request) but then when I try to perform a get request on the My Shows page, I am re-directed to the login page. This is the code I am using to login: private string LoginToTvRage() { string loginUrl = "http://www.tvrage.com/login.php"; string formParams = string.Format("login_name={0}&login_pass={1}", "xxx", "xxxx"); string cookieHeader; WebRequest req = WebRequest.Create(loginUrl); req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; req.Method = "POST"; byte[] bytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(formParams); req.ContentLength = bytes.Length; using (Stream os = req.GetRequestStream()) { os.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); } WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); cookieHeader = resp.Headers["Set-cookie"]; String responseStream; using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(resp.GetResponseStream())) { responseStream = sr.ReadToEnd(); } return cookieHeader; } I then pass the cookieHeader into this method which should be getting the source of the My Shows page: private string GetSourceForMyShowsPage(string cookieHeader) { string pageSource; string getUrl = "http://www.tvrage.com/mytvrage.php?page=myshows"; WebRequest getRequest = WebRequest.Create(getUrl); getRequest.Headers.Add("Cookie", cookieHeader); WebResponse getResponse = getRequest.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(getResponse.GetResponseStream())) { pageSource = sr.ReadToEnd(); } return pageSource; } I have been using this previous question as a guide but I'm at a loss as to why my code isn't working.

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• Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

  - by Joe

  I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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• Mouse management in JavaScript games

  - by Jakob

  Im using JavaScript, the HTML5 canvas-element and WebGL to make a simple 3D-game in first person view for fun. Ideally, I would like to control my movement by using the keyboard to move and the mouse to look around, like you usually do in FPS-games. As you probably understand, there are some limits to this in the browser, since the mouse cant be captured: When using the onmousemove event, no further movement will be detected when the mouse pointer reaches the border of my screen (which means that I wont be able to run in a circle for example) Seeing the mouse move across the screen is not the end of the world, but it is a little annoying From what I know, it's impossible to hide the mouse as well as setting it's position in JavaScript. Hence, my question is this: If we cant to those things, what can we do in order to get close to the desktop gaming experience when it comes to the mouse in the browser? And I mean right now, using current APIs. Not "what could be changed in some standard to make life easier". Also, I realize that I could use the keyboard to look around, but then we're back in 1995 when Quake were actually played like that. And of course I know that it would be easier to write a desktop application or use Flash at least, but Im trying to push JavaScript's limits here. Apart from those things, what are your suggestions? Any kind of reference, existing game, crazy idea, hack or even browser specific solution would be appreciated.

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• Can I make an identity field span multiple tables in SQL Server?

  - by johnnycakes

  Can I have an "identity" (unique, non-repeating) column span multiple tables? For example, let's say I have two tables: Books and Authors. Authors AuthorID AuthorName Books BookID BookTitle The BookID column and the AuthorID column are identity columns. I want the identity part to span both columns. So, if there is an AuthorID with a value of 123, then there cannot be a BookID with a value of 123. And vice versa. I hope that makes sense. Is this possible? Thanks. Why do I want to do this? I am writing an APS.NET MVC app. I am creating a comment section. Authors can have comments. Books can have comments. I want to be able to pass an entity ID (a book ID or an author ID) to an action and have the action pull up all the corresponding comments. The action won't care if it's a book or an author or whatever. Sound reasonable?

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• NHibernate many-to-many mapping

  - by Scozzard

  Hi, I am having an issue with many-to-many mapping using NHibernate. Basically I have 2 classes in my object model (Scenario and Skill) mapping to three tables in my database (Scenario, Skill and ScenarioSkill). The ScenarioSkills table just holds the IDs of the SKill and Scenario table (SkillID, ScenarioID). In the object model a Scenario has a couple of general properties and a list of associated skills (IList) that is obtained from the ScenarioSkills table. There is no associated IList of Scenarios for the Skill object. The mapping from Scenario and Skill to ScenarioSkill is a many-to-many relationship: Scenario * --- * ScenarioSkill * --- * Skill I have mapped out the lists as bags as I believe this is the best option to use from what I have read. The mappings are as follows: Within the Scenario class <bag name="Skills" table="ScenarioSkills"> <key column="ScenarioID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_ScenarioID"/> <many-to-many class="Domain.Skill, Domain" column="SkillID" /> </bag> And within the Skill class <bag name="Scenarios" table="ScenarioSkills" inverse="true" access="noop" cascade="all"> <key column="SkillID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_SkillID" /> <many-to-many class="Domain.Scenario, Domain" column="ScenarioID" /> </bag> Everything works fine, except when I try to delete a skill, it cannot do so as there is a reference constraint on the SkillID column of the ScenarioSkill table. Can anyone help me? I am using NHibernate 2 on an C# asp.net 3.5 web application solution.

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• object construct a class of objects in java

  - by Mgccl

  There is a super class, A, and there are many subclasses, B,C,D... people can write more subclasses. Each of the class have the method dostuff(), each is different in some way. I want an object that constructs any object that belong to A or any of it's subclass. For example I can pass the name of the subclass, or a object of that class, and it will construct another object of the class. Of course I can write A construct(A var){ stuff = var.dostuff(); domorestuff(stuff) return new A(stuff); } B construct(B var){ stuff = var.dostuff(); domorestuff(stuff) return new B(stuff); } C construct(C var){ stuff = var.dostuff(); domorestuff(stuff) return new C(stuff); } but this is not efficient. I have to write a few new lines every time I make a new subclass. It seems I can't use generics either. Because I can't use dostuff() on objects not in any of the subclass of A. What should I do in this situation?

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• iframe created dynamically with javascript not reloading parent URL

  - by Lauren

  I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe even though the domain for my iframe and the parent page appear to be the same. The IFRAME was created dynamically, rather than in the HTML page source, so could that be the problem? The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in. You may use user:[email protected] pass: test03 Once logged in, hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe.

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• Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

  - by nickname

  I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

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• Core Data object into an NSDictionary with possible nil objects

  - by Chuck

  I have a core data object that has a bunch of optional values. I'm pushing a table view controller and passing it a reference to the object so I can display its contents in a table view. Because I want the table view displayed a specific way, I am storing the values from the core data object into an array of dictionaries then using the array to populate the table view. This works great, and I got editing and saving working properly. (i'm not using a fetched results controller because I don't have anything to sort on) The issue with my current code is that if one of the items in the object is missing, then I end up trying to put nil into the dictionary, which won't work. I'm looking for a clean way to handle this, I could do the following, but I can't help but feeling like there's a better way. *passedEntry is the core data object handed to the view controller when it is pushed, lets say it contains firstName, lastName, and age, all optional. if ([passedEntry firstName] != nil) { [dictionary setObject:[passedEntry firstName] forKey:@"firstName"] } else { [dictionary setObject:@"" forKey:@"firstName"] } And so on. This works, but it feels kludgy, especially if I end up adding more items to the core data object down the road.

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• MVC2 Json request not actually hitting the controller

  - by SlackerCoder

  I have a JSON request, but it seems that it is not hitting the controller. Here's the jQuery code: $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").change(function() { globalLogSelection = $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").val(); alert(globalLogSelection); $.getJSON("/Administrative/AdminLogsChangeLogSelection", { NewSelection: globalLogSelection }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { globalCurrentPage = 1; } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do Something } }); }); The alert is there to show me if it actually fired the change event, which it does. Heres the method in the controller: public ActionResult AdminLogsChangeLogSelection(String NewSelection) { String sMessage = String.Empty; StringBuilder sbDataReturn = new StringBuilder(); try { if (NewSelection.Equals("Application Log")) { int i = 0; } else if (NewSelection.Equals("Email Log")) { int l = 0; } } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something sMessage = "Error"; } return Json(new { Message = sMessage, DataReturn = sbDataReturn.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } I have a bunch of Json requests in my application, and it seems to only happen in this area. This is a separate area (I have 6 "areas" in the app, 5 of which work fine with JSON requests). This controller is named "AdministrativeController", if that matters. Does anything jump out anyone as being incorrect or why the request would not pass to the server side?

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• Problem with mouse event on a user control (wpf).

  - by csciguy

  All, I have a user control, defined as follows. <UserControl x:Class="IDOView.AnimatedCharacter" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:IDOView" mc:Ignorable="d" Background="Transparent" > <Image Name="displayImage" Height="Auto" Width="Auto" Stretch="Fill" IsHitTestVisible="True"/> The control is added to a main page twice, as follows. <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="circle.png" Canvas.Left="-279" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA1"> <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="square.png" Canvas.Left="-209" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA2"> Essentially, about half of the circle is behind the square. I need the square image in this case to pass through events to the circle behind it. The square has an element cut out of it (transparent). What is happening now is that the circle event only registers if I click on the region that is not covered by the square. Surely there has to be a way to bubble this event, or click-through?

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• Creating object/array to method in request based on __gettypes in PHP

  - by LochNess

  I'm having trouble with the array or object that should be passed based on the response from __gettypes. The __gettypes response: [0] => struct CDataWrapper { schema;any; } [1] => struct NewMember { MemberDetail MemberDetails;ArrayOfHobby Hobbies; } [2] => struct MemberDetail { string Name; string Age; string Sex; } [3] => struct ArrayOfHobby { Hobby Hobby; } [4] => struct Hobby { string Name; string HoursUsedOnHobbyWeekly;boolean Favourite; } ... etc. The methods are: [0] => ReceiveMemberResponse ReceiveMember(ReceiveMember $parameters) [1] => ReturnMemberResponse ReturnMember(ReturnMember $parameters) So far I have this PHP: $client = new SoapClient('http://domain.com?wsdl'); class MemberDetail { public $Name = ''; public $Age = ''; public $Sex = ''; } $mc = new MemberDetail(); $mc->Name= 'Bob'; $mc->Age= '14'; $mc->Sex= 'Male'; $myParam = array('ReceiveMember'=>$mc); $wcf = $client->ReceiveMember($myParam); $wcfResult = $wcf->ReturnMember; print_r($wcfResult) when i call the page it returns: Error 324 (net::ERR_EMPTY_RESPONSE): Unknown error. I'm not really sure how to create the array or object to pass on as $myParam since im no expert with PHP either.

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• Splitting a C++ class into files now won't compile.

  - by vgm64

  Hi. I am teaching myself to write classes in C++ but can't seem to get the compilation to go through. If you can help me figure out not just how, but why, it would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance! Here are my three files: make_pmt.C #include <iostream> #include "pmt.h" using namespace std; int main() { CPMT *pmt = new CPMT; pmt->SetVoltage(900); pmt->SetGain(2e6); double voltage = pmt->GetVoltage(); double gain= pmt->GetGain(); cout << "The voltage is " << voltage << " and the gain is " << gain << "." <<endl; return 0; } pmt.C #include "pmt.h" using namespace std; class CPMT { double gain, voltage; public: double GetGain() {return gain;} double GetVoltage() {return voltage;} void SetGain(double g) {gain=g;} void SetVoltage(double v) {voltage=v;} }; pmt.h #ifndef PMT_H #define PMT_H 1 using namespace std; class CPMT { double gain, voltage; public: double GetGain(); double GetVoltage(); void SetGain(double g); void SetVoltage(double v); }; #endif And for reference, I get a linker error (right?): Undefined symbols: "CPMT::GetVoltage()", referenced from: _main in ccoYuMbH.o "CPMT::GetGain()", referenced from: _main in ccoYuMbH.o "CPMT::SetVoltage(double)", referenced from: _main in ccoYuMbH.o "CPMT::SetGain(double)", referenced from: _main in ccoYuMbH.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status

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• Sanitize input before executing at server in php

  - by Interfaith

  I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

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• Cant insert a object into a silverlight databound combo box

  - by Steve

  Hi Until recently I had a combo box that was bound to a Linq queried IEnumerable of a DataService.Obj type in the bind method, and all worked fine private IEnumerable<DataService.Obj> _GeneralList; private IEnumerable<DataService.Obj> _QueriedList; private void Bind() { _GeneralList = SharedLists.GeneralList; _QueriedList = _GeneralList.Where(q =>q.ID >1000); cmbobox.ItemsSource = _QueriedList; } Then I had to change the method to insert a new obj and set that object as the default obj and now I get a "System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object" exception. I know this has to do with inserting into a linq queried ienumerable but I cant fix it. Any help will be gratefully received. private IEnumerable<DataService.Obj> _GeneralList; private IEnumerable<DataService.Obj> _QueriedList; private void Bind() { _GeneralList = SharedLists.GeneralList; _QueriedList = _GeneralList.Where(q =>q.ID >1000); cmbobox.ItemsSource = _QueriedList; DataService.Obj info = new DataService.Obj(); info.ID = "0"; (cmbobox.ItemsSource as ObservableCollection<DataService.Obj>).Insert(0,info); cmbobox.SelectedIndex = 0; } Thanks in advance

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