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• Android - Adding external library to project

  - by mmontalbo

  Hi, I am having a lot of trouble adding the WEKA library to a project I am working on. I have followed several tutorials that explain how to do this including the Android Developers guide: http://developer.android.com/guide/appendix/faq/commontasks.html#addexternallibrary and several of the postings on SO. I have created a folder in my project with the weka.jar file, created a new library (adding the weka.jar file to the library) and included this library in my build path. I have also added the library under the "Order and Export" tab in the project properties. I have also tried importing the jar file so that the actual contents of the jar are extracted into a directory in my project. The end result of all of this is that my project is able to build correctly and without error, but when it comes time to run my code on the emulator I get the following exception: 04-10 22:52:21.051: ERROR/dalvikvm(582): Could not find class 'weka.classifiers.trees.J48', referenced from method edu.usc.student.composure.classifier.GaitClassifierImpl. with J48 being the class I reference in my code. Does anyone have any additional suggestions that I may have overlooked? Thanks!

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• structDelete doesn't effect the shallow copy?

  - by Travis

  I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset variables.XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset variables.startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset variables.stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

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• Item in multiple lists

  - by Evan Teran

  So I have some legacy code which I would love to use more modern techniques. But I fear that given the way that things are designed, it is a non-option. The core issue is that often a node is in more than one list at a time. Something like this: struct T { T *next_1; T *prev_1; T *next_2; T *prev_2; int value; }; this allows the core have a single object of type T be allocated and inserted into 2 doubly linked lists, nice and efficient. Obviously I could just have 2 std::list<T*>'s and just insert the object into both...but there is one thing which would be way less efficient...removal. Often the code needs to "destroy" an object of type T and this includes removing the element from all lists. This is nice because given a T* the code can remove that object from all lists it exists in. With something like a std::list I would need to search for the object to get an iterator, then remove that (I can't just pass around an iterator because it is in several lists). Is there a nice c++-ish solution to this, or is the manually rolled way the best way? I have a feeling the manually rolled way is the answer, but I figured I'd ask.

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• Will this web service accept both raw xml and an object?

  - by ChadNC

  We have a web service that provides auto insurance quotes and a company that provides an insurance agency management system would like to use the web service for thier client but they want to pass the web service raw xml instead of using the wsdl to create a port, the object the service expects and calling the web method. The web service has performed flawlessly by creating an object like so com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote service = new com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote(); com.insurance.quotesvc.QuotePortType port = service.getQuotePortType(); com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.request.ACORD parameter = null; Then create initialize the request object with the other objects that make up the response. parameter = factory.createACORD(); parameter.setSignonRq(signOn); parameter.setInsurancesSvcRq(svcRq); And send the request to the web service. com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.response.ACORD result = null; result = port.requestQuote(parameter); By doing that I am able to easily marshall the request and the result into an xml file and do with them as I wish. So if a client was to send the web service via an http post as raw xml inside of a soap envelope. Would the web service be able to handle the xml without any changes being made to the web service or would there need to be changes made to the web service in order for it to handle a request of that type? The web service is a JAX_WS and we currently have both Java and C# clients consuming the web service using the method described above but now there is another client who wants to send raw xml inside of a soap envelope instead of creating the objects. I feel pretty sure that they will be making the call to the web service using vb. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious but it is eluding me at the moment and any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Sanitize input before executing at server in php

  - by Interfaith

  I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

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• Symbols (pdb) for native dll are not loaded due to post build step

  - by sean e

  I have a native release dll that is built with symbols. There is a post build step that modifies the dll. The post build step does some compression and probably appends some data. The pdb file is still valid however neither WinDbg nor Visual Studio 2008 will load the symbols for the dll after the post build step. What bits in either the pdb file or the dll do we need to modify to get either WinDbg or Visual Studio to load the symbols when it loads a dump in which our release dll is referenced? Is it filesize that matters? A checksum or hash? A timestamp? Modify the dump? or modify the pdb? modify the dll before it is shipped? (We know the pdb is valid because we are able to use it to manually get symbol names for addresses in dump callstacks that reference the released dll. It's just a total pain in the *ss do it by hand for every address in a callstack in all the threads.)

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• Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

  - by user354303

  Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

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• How can I bind multiple Jquery UI Slider with "year" Select?

  - by arthur_br

  Hi, I'm trying to render sliders instead of select components. Each page has several select components marked with class='jqselect' and all of them will have decreasing year values (some years may be missing). Eg. a select may have values [2010, 2009, 2006, 2005, 2004]. I have tried binding it both following the examples in the jQuery UI doc (but ignoring the missing years) and using selectToUISlider by filamentgroup (http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/update_jquery_ui_slider_from_a_select_element_now_with_aria_support//). None of them work. Here is what I've done so far: Binding selects with following slider container divs: $('#content div.jqslider').slider({ animate: true, min: $(this).prev().children().last().val(), max: $(this).prev().children().first().val(), slide: function(event, ui) { var select = $(this).prev(); select.val($(this).slider('option', 'value')); console.log($(this).slider('option', 'value')); //debug } }); This renders the slider, but console logs values from 0 to 100 and selects obviously does not change with the event. Using selectToUISlider: $('#content select.jqselect').selectToUISlider(); This does not even render the slider, throwing an error 'b is undefined' in jquery-min.js (line 30, v1.4.2). If I pass the identifier of only one of the sliders, it is rendered but very buggy. Please, I'm stucked in the by two days and any help is much appreciated. Regards, Arthur

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• Is it legal to take sealed .NET framework class source and extend it?

  - by Giedrius

  To be short, I'm giving very specific example, but I'm interested in general situation. There is a FtpWebRequest class in .NET framework and it is missing some of new FTP operations, like MFCT. It is ok in a sense that this operation is still in draft mode, but it is not ok in a sense, that FtpWebRequest is sealed and there's no other way (at least I don't see it) to extend it with this new operation. Easiest way to do it would be take FtpWebRequest class source from .NET reference sources and extend it, in such way will be kept all the consistence in naming, implementation, etc. Question is how much legal it is? I won't sell this class as a product, I can publish my changes on web - nothing to hide here. If it is not legal, can I take this class source from mono and include in native .net project? Did you had similar case and how you solved it? Update: as long as extension method is offered, I'm pasting source from .NET framework which should show that extension methods are not the solution. So there's a property Method, where you can pass FTP command: public override string Method { get { return m_MethodInfo.Method; } set { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) { throw new ArgumentException(SR.GetString(SR.net_ftp_invalid_method_name), "value"); } if (InUse) { throw new InvalidOperationException(SR.GetString(SR.net_reqsubmitted)); } try { m_MethodInfo = FtpMethodInfo.GetMethodInfo(value); } catch (ArgumentException) { throw new ArgumentException(SR.GetString(SR.net_ftp_unsupported_method), "value"); } } } As you can see there FtpMethodInfo.GetMethodInfo(value) call in setter, which basically validates value against internal enum static array. Update 2: Checked mono implementation and it is not exact replica of native code + it does not implement some of the things.

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• Questions on Juval Lowy's IDesign C# Coding Standard

  - by Jan

  We are trying to use the IDesign C# Coding standard. Unfortunately, I found no comprehensive document to explain all the rules that it gives, and also his book does not always help. Here are the open questions that remain for me (from chapter 2, Coding Practices): No. 26: Avoid providing explicit values for enums unless they are integer powers of 2 No. 34: Always explicitly initialize an array of reference types using a for loop No. 50: Avoid events as interface members No. 52: Expose interfaces on class hierarchies No. 73: Do not define method-specific constraints in interfaces No. 74: Do not define constraints in delegates Here's what I think about those: I thought that providing explicit values would be especially useful when adding new enum members at a later point in time. If these members are added between other already existing members, I would provide explicit values to make sure the integer representation of existing members does not change. No idea why I would want to do this. I'd say this totally depends on the logic of my program. I see that there is alternative option of providing "Sink interfaces" (simply providing already all "OnXxxHappened" methods), but what is the reason to prefer one over the other? Unsure what he means here: Could this mean "When implementing an interface explicitly in a non-sealed class, consider providing the implementation in a protected virtual method that can be overridden"? (see Programming .NET Components 2nd Edition, end of chapter “Interfaces and Class Hierarchies”). I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on an interface? I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on a delegate?

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• How to create a generic method in C# that's all applicable to many types - ints, strings, doubles et

  - by satyajit

  Let's I have a method to remove duplicates in an integer Array public int[] RemoveDuplicates(int[] elems) { HashSet<int> uniques = new HashSet<int>(); foreach (int item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new int[uniques.Count]; int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } How can I make this generic such that now it accepts a string array and remove duplicates in it? How about a double array? I know I am probably mixing things here in between primitive and value types. For your reference the following code won't compile public List<T> RemoveDuplicates(List<T> elems) { HashSet<T> uniques = new HashSet<T>(); foreach (var item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new List<T>(); int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } The reason is that all generic types should be closed at run time. Thanks for you comments

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• N3WB Question: passing objects in java?

  - by Adam Outler

  Hello, I am new at java. I am doing the following: Read from file, then put data into a variable. checkToken = lineToken.nextToken(); processlinetoken() } But then when I try to process it... public static void readFile(String fromFile) throws IOException { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fromFile)); String line = null; while ((line=reader.readLine()) != null ) { if (line.length() >= 2) { StringTokenizer lineToken = new StringTokenizer (line); checkToken = lineToken.nextToken(); ...... But here's where I come into a problem. public static void processlinetoken() checkToken=lineToken.nextToken(); } it fails out. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problem: The method nextToken() is undefined for the type String at testread.getEngineLoad(testread.java:243) at testread.readFile(testread.java:149) at testread.main(testread.java:119) so how do I get this to work? It seems to pass the variable, but nothing after the . works.

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• C#: Non-constructed generics as properties (eg. List<T>)

  - by Dav

  The Problem It's something I came across a while back and was able to work around it somehow. But now it came back, feeding on my curiosity - and I'd love to have a definite answer. Basically, I have a generic dgv BaseGridView<T> : DataGridView where T : class. Constructed types based on the BaseGridView (such as InvoiceGridView : BaseGridView<Invoice>) are later used in the application to display different business objects using the shared functionality provided by BaseGridView (like virtual mode, buttons, etc.). It now became necessary to create a user control that references those constructed types to control some of the shared functionality (eg. filtering) from BaseGridView. I was therefore hoping to create a public property on the user control that would enable me to attach it to any BaseGridView in Designer/code: public BaseGridView<T> MyGridView { get; set; }. The trouble is, it doesn't work :-) When compiled, I get the following message: The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Solutions? I realise I could extract the shared functionality to an interface, mark BaseGridView as implementing that interface, and then refer to the created interface in my uesr control. But I'm curious if there exists some arcane C# command/syntax that would help me achieve what I want - without polluting my solution with an interface I don't really need :-)

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• Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

  - by Dougc

  I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

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• Click behaviour - Difference in IE and FF ?!

  - by OlliD

  Hey folks, i just came to the conclusion that a project i am currently working on might have a "logical" error in functionality. Currently I'am using server technology with PHP/MySQL and JQuery. Within the page there's a normal link reference with tag <a href="contentpage?page=xxx">next step</a> The pain point now seems to be the given jquery click event on the same element. The intension was to save the (current) content of the page (- form elements) via another php script using the php session command. For any reason, IE can handle the click event of Jquery right before executing the standard html command, that reloads the current page again with the new page parameter. By using FF the behaviour is different. I assume, that FF first execute the html command and afterwards execute the javascript code which handles the click event. Therefore the resultset here is wrong respectivly empty. My question now is whether you made the same experience and how you handled / wordarrounded this problem. I'd be thankful fur any of your tips or further feedback. Maybe you also have a solution on how to rethink about the current architecture. Regards, Oliver

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• C# Convert string to nullable type (int, double, etc...)

  - by Nathan Koop

  I am attempting to do some data conversion. Unfortunately, much of the data is in strings, where it should be int's or double, etc... So what I've got is something like: double? amount = Convert.ToDouble(strAmount); The problem with this approach is if strAmount is empty, if it's empty I want it to amount to be null, so when I add it into the database the column will be null. So I ended up writing this: double? amount = null; if(strAmount.Trim().Length>0) { amount = Convert.ToDouble(strAmount); } Now this works fine, but I now have five lines of code instead of one. This makes things a little more difficult to read, especially when I have a large amount of columns to convert. I thought I'd use an extension to the string class and generic's to pass in the type, this is because it could be a double, or an int, or a long. So I tried this: public static class GenericExtension { public static Nullable<T> ConvertToNullable<T>(this string s, T type) where T: struct { if (s.Trim().Length > 0) { return (Nullable<T>)s; } return null; } } But I get the error: Cannot convert type 'string' to 'T?' Is there a way around this? I am not very familiar with creating methods using generics.

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• Handling row selection from a simple grid using jquery and asp.net mvc

  - by Jonn

  Using a simple table and jquery, how would you manually handle selection using jquery? So far, I've managed to add a gridrowselected class on the tr when the click event is called so that I'll know which row is currently selected. But I don't know how to pass the selected data back to the controller (or at least an index I placed on the row). I tried something like this $(function() { $('#ProjectList .gridrow').click(function() { // Get row's index var projectId = $(this).find('input[name$=ProjectId]').val(); // Remove the input if it already exists var parentForm = $(this).parents('form'); parentForm.remove('input[name="selectedRows"][value="' + projectId + '"]'); // If it is selected, create the form. If it's not selected then the input just gets removed (the user must have clicked on it and deselected the row) if ($(this).hasClass('gridrow-selected') === true) { parentForm.append($('<input>', { type: "hidden", name: "selectedRows", value: projectId })); } }); }); which I'm expecting to create a hidden input so that when I post, selectedRows gets passed onto the controller. But all it does is create the input, but the data still doesn't get passed to the controller.

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• Magento layout related basic Questions ?

  - by user197992

  Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

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• Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

  - by ropstah

  Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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• algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

  - by msalvadores

  I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

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• jQuery get the value of ahref and put it to button

  - by user1506189

  i have this problem that i need to get the value of href and pass it to a button. is this correct format of jQuery? $(function() { var getValue = $('#theLink').getAttributeNode('onclick').value; $('.yt_holder').live('click', '.videoThumb4', function(){ $(".videoThumb4").ytplaylist({ holderId: 'ytvideo4', html5: true, playerWidth: '520', autoPlay: false, sliding: false, listsliding: true, social: true, autoHide: false, playfirst: 0, playOnLoad: false, modestbranding: true, showInfo: false }); }); }); the button was working but it only play the first video on his list. the link of the website is here http://cocopop12.site11.com/search/index.php now the button is this. <input class="videoThumb4" onClick="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=' . $yValue['videoid'] . '" type="button" name="previewSel" value="Preview" id="previewbut" /> is that correct? that i need to do a onclick http://www.... blabla? the <a href> that i like to make a button is this. <?php echo ' <a class="videoThumb4" href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=' . $yValue['videoid'] . '" id="link"> ' . $yValue['description'] . ' </a> '; ?> how can i use .each for the button {Preview}? how can i put the value in the button just like --when i click this href it automatically play the video? but the button it just play the first video but not the second video. this i want to make it like a button. thank you for your time.

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• Why does my simple event handling example not work?

  - by njreed

  I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

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• How can I automatically highlight a specific character in link text using JQuery + CSS?

  - by Chris McCall

  I'm adding hotkeys to a web application in order to enable keyboard shortcuts for our CSRs to use, to reduce injury and increase calls-per-hour. I'm using an ASP.net UserControl to inject javascript into the page and it's working great. I want the control to "just work", so that when hotkeys are assigned, using a declarative syntax, if the hotkeyed letter exists in the link text, it will be highlighted automatically, so the developer doesn't have to do anything, and also to maintain consistency in visual cues. Here's the code to assign hotkeys, if it matters: <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="true"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnInvoiceEverBill" KeyCode="ctrl+v" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnRefund" KeyCode="ctrl+u" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+p" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> I want something like: <a href="whatever" name="thirdControl">Make a <span class=hotkey">P</span>ayment</a> ...but I'm not married to the idea of injecting a <span/> in there if there's a better way. How can I do this in CSS or JQuery? Is there a way to pass in a letter to a CSS style and have it change the color of the text displayed? Should I generate javascript to highlight the text when the page loads? What would/did you do in this situation?

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• Issue displaying a local image from XAML

  - by Flack

  Hello, I have the below simple xaml: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Image Source="happyface.jpg"/> </Grid> </Window> happyface.jpg is included in the project and its Build Action is set to "Content" and Copy To Ouptput Directory is set to "Copy Always". When looking at the app through the VS designer, everything is ok and I see the image. However, when I run the app, no image is displayed. I see the image is copied to the out out directory. If I put in the entire path as the source (C:\SANDBOX\WpfApplication1\WpfApplication1\bin\Debug") it works. Any ideas as to why the image is not displayed when I run the app? I read about pack URIs but thought that to just simply reference a loose image in the current directory, I can just use the image name. Thank you.

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• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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