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  • iPhone: How to use CGContextConcatCTM for saving a transformed image properly?

    - by Irene
    I am making an iPhone application that loads an image from the camera, and then the user can select a second image from the library, move/scale/rotate that second image, and then save the result. I use two UIImageViews in IB as placeholders, and then apply transformations while touching/pinching. The problem comes when I have to save both images together. I use a rect of the size of the first image and pass it to UIGraphicsBeginImageContext. Then I tried to use CGContextConcatCTM but I can't understand how it works: CGRect rect = CGRectMake(0, 0, img1.size.width, img1.size.height); // img1 from camera UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); // Start drawing CGContextRef ctx = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextClearRect(ctx, rect); // Clear whole thing [img1 drawAtPoint:CGPointZero]; // Draw background image at 0,0 CGContextConcatCTM(ctx, img2.transform); // Apply the transformations of the 2nd image But what do I need to do next? What information is being held in the img2.transform matrix? The documentation for CGContextConcatCTM doesn't help me that much unfortunately.. Right now I'm trying to solve it by calculating the points and the angle using trigonometry (with the help of this answer), but since the transformation is there, there has to be an easier and more elgant way to do this, right?

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  • Questions on Juval Lowy's IDesign C# Coding Standard

    - by Jan
    We are trying to use the IDesign C# Coding standard. Unfortunately, I found no comprehensive document to explain all the rules that it gives, and also his book does not always help. Here are the open questions that remain for me (from chapter 2, Coding Practices): No. 26: Avoid providing explicit values for enums unless they are integer powers of 2 No. 34: Always explicitly initialize an array of reference types using a for loop No. 50: Avoid events as interface members No. 52: Expose interfaces on class hierarchies No. 73: Do not define method-specific constraints in interfaces No. 74: Do not define constraints in delegates Here's what I think about those: I thought that providing explicit values would be especially useful when adding new enum members at a later point in time. If these members are added between other already existing members, I would provide explicit values to make sure the integer representation of existing members does not change. No idea why I would want to do this. I'd say this totally depends on the logic of my program. I see that there is alternative option of providing "Sink interfaces" (simply providing already all "OnXxxHappened" methods), but what is the reason to prefer one over the other? Unsure what he means here: Could this mean "When implementing an interface explicitly in a non-sealed class, consider providing the implementation in a protected virtual method that can be overridden"? (see Programming .NET Components 2nd Edition, end of chapter “Interfaces and Class Hierarchies”). I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on an interface? I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on a delegate?

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  • What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

    - by Eric Leroy
    I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

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  • new Date() In javascript :: need Help

    - by gskoli
    Dear all, i am creating a digital clock using images & javascript but i want to pass a server time that time ... How to do that ... I am getting time from server and passing it to Date Following i have given snippet . var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); function dotime(){ theTime=setTimeout('dotime();',1000); //d = new Date(Date.parse(time_str)); d= new Date(time_str); hr= d.getHours()+100; mn= d.getMinutes()+100; se= d.getSeconds()+100; var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); alert(' TIME ---> '+hr+' :: '+mn+' :: '+ se); if(hr==100){ hr=112;am_pm='am'; } else if(hr<112){ am_pm='am'; } else if(hr==112){ am_pm='pm'; } else if(hr>112){ am_pm='pm';hr=(hr-12); } tot=''+hr+mn+se; document.hr1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(1,2)+'.gif'; document.hr2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(2,3)+'.gif'; document.mn1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(4,5)+'.gif'; document.mn2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(5,6)+'.gif'; document.se1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(7,8)+'.gif'; document.se2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(8,9)+'.gif'; document.ampm.src= '/flash_files/digits/dg'+am_pm+'.gif'; } dotime(); But it is not working Help me out Thanks in advance.

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  • How to check a bool setting in my iphone app

    - by dusk
    I have a setting in Root.plist with Key = 'latestNews' of type PSToggleSwitchSpecifier and DefaultValue as a boolean that is checked. If I understand that correctly, it should = YES when I pull it in to my code. I'm trying to check that value and set an int var to pass it to my php script. What is happening is that my boolean is either nil or NO and then my int var = 0. What am I doing wrong? int latestFlag; NSUserDefaults *prefs = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL latestNews = [prefs boolForKey:@"latestNews"]; if (latestNews) latestFlag = 1; else latestFlag = 0; NSString *urlstr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://www.mysite.com/folder/iphone-test.php?latest=%d", latestFlag]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlstr]; //these are auto-released NSString *ans = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSArray *listItems = [ans componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; self.listData = listItems; [urlstr release]; [url release];

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  • Click behaviour - Difference in IE and FF ?!

    - by OlliD
    Hey folks, i just came to the conclusion that a project i am currently working on might have a "logical" error in functionality. Currently I'am using server technology with PHP/MySQL and JQuery. Within the page there's a normal link reference with tag <a href="contentpage?page=xxx">next step</a> The pain point now seems to be the given jquery click event on the same element. The intension was to save the (current) content of the page (- form elements) via another php script using the php session command. For any reason, IE can handle the click event of Jquery right before executing the standard html command, that reloads the current page again with the new page parameter. By using FF the behaviour is different. I assume, that FF first execute the html command and afterwards execute the javascript code which handles the click event. Therefore the resultset here is wrong respectivly empty. My question now is whether you made the same experience and how you handled / wordarrounded this problem. I'd be thankful fur any of your tips or further feedback. Maybe you also have a solution on how to rethink about the current architecture. Regards, Oliver

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  • IIS 6.0 Rewrite rules for Wordpress (Forward slash not working and other things)

    - by DigitalBlade
    Hi, I am using Wordpress 3.0.4 on IIS 6.0 and Windows Server 2003, hosted by a company. I was having lots of issues using permalinks. I have fixed most, but now I have an issue with a forward-slash not being added to the address. This would be fine on most websites, but not on IIS for some reason. Specifically, if I go to "mysite.com/wp-admin" I can log-in and get to the dashboard, but as soon as I click anything there i am redirected to a broken link. For example: "mysite.com/post-new.php". If I add the slash at the end it's fine. So I tried to have a rewrite rule to automatically add the slash to such address: RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] But it still doesn't work. For your reference, here's the complete file: [ISAPI_Rewrite] RewriteBase / RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # For special WordPress folders (e.g. theme, admin, etc.) RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] RewriteRule /wp-(.*) /wp-$1 [L] RewriteRule /(.*\.(?:jpg|jpeg|gif|css|txt|xml|html|png|js)) /$1 [I,L] # Rules to ensure that normal content gets through RewriteRule /images/(.*) /images/$1 [L] RewriteRule /favicon.ico /favicon.ico [L] RewriteRule /robots.txt /robots.txt [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin/(.*) /phpmyadmin/$1 [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin /phpmyadmin/ [L] # For all WordPress pages RewriteRule ^/$ /index.php [L] RewriteRule /(.*) /index.php/$1 [L] Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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  • Issue displaying a local image from XAML

    - by Flack
    Hello, I have the below simple xaml: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Image Source="happyface.jpg"/> </Grid> </Window> happyface.jpg is included in the project and its Build Action is set to "Content" and Copy To Ouptput Directory is set to "Copy Always". When looking at the app through the VS designer, everything is ok and I see the image. However, when I run the app, no image is displayed. I see the image is copied to the out out directory. If I put in the entire path as the source (C:\SANDBOX\WpfApplication1\WpfApplication1\bin\Debug") it works. Any ideas as to why the image is not displayed when I run the app? I read about pack URIs but thought that to just simply reference a loose image in the current directory, I can just use the image name. Thank you.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How to Object Array to List

    - by Peter Black
    (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

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  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

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  • Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

    - by soow.fr
    I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

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  • Dimension Reduction in Categorical Data with missing values

    - by user227290
    I have a regression model in which the dependent variable is continuous but ninety percent of the independent variables are categorical(both ordered and unordered) and around thirty percent of the records have missing values(to make matters worse they are missing randomly without any pattern, that is, more that forty five percent of the data hava at least one missing value). There is no a priori theory to choose the specification of the model so one of the key tasks is dimension reduction before running the regression. While I am aware of several methods for dimension reduction for continuous variables I am not aware of a similar statical literature for categorical data (except, perhaps, as a part of correspondence analysis which is basically a variation of principal component analysis on frequency table). Let me also add that the dataset is of moderate size 500000 observations with 200 variables. I have two questions. Is there a good statistical reference out there for dimension reduction for categorical data along with robust imputation (I think the first issue is imputation and then dimension reduction)? This is linked to implementation of above problem. I have used R extensively earlier and tend to use transcan and impute function heavily for continuous variables and use a variation of tree method to impute categorical values. I have a working knowledge of Python so if something is nice out there for this purpose then I will use it. Any implementation pointers in python or R will be of great help. Thank you.

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  • How can I manage building library projects that produce both a static lib and a dll?

    - by Scott Langham
    I've got a large visual studio solution with ~50 projects. There are configurations for StaticDebug, StaticRelease, Debug and Release. Some libraries are needed in both dll and static lib form. To get them, we rebuild the solution with a different configuration. The Configuration Manager window is used to setup which projects need to build in which flavours, static lib, dynamic dll or both. This can by quite tricky to manage and it's a bit annoying to have to build the solution multiple times and select the configurations in the right order. Static versions need building before non-static versions. I'm wondering, instead of this current scheme, might it be simpler to manage if, for the projects I needed to produce both a static lib and dynamc dll, I created two projects. Eg: CoreLib CoreDll I could either make both of these projects reference all the same files and build them twice, or I'm wondering, would it be possible to build CoreLib and then get CoreDll to link it to generate the dll? I guess my question is, do you have any advice on how to structure your projects in this kind of situation? Thanks.

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  • jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

    - by rpj
    I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Password security; Is this safe?

    - by Camran
    I asked a question yesterday about password safety... I am new at security... I am using a mysql db, and need to store users passwords there. I have been told in answers that hashing and THEN saving the HASHED value of the password is the correct way of doing this. So basically I want to verify with you guys this is correct now. It is a classifieds website, and for each classified the user puts, he has to enter a password so that he/she can remove the classified using that password later on (when product is sold for example). In a file called "put_ad.php" I use the $_POST method to fetch the pass from a form. Then I hash it and put it into a mysql table. Then whenever the users wants to delete the ad, I check the entered password by hashing it and comparing the hashed value of the entered passw against the hashed value in the mysql db, right? BUT, what if I as an admin want to delete a classified, is there a method to "Unhash" the password easily? sha1 is used currently btw. some code is very much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Element not found blocks execution in Selenium

    - by Mariano
    In my test, I try to verify if certain text exists (after an action) using find_element_by_xpath. If I use the right expression and my test pass, the routine ends correctly in no time. However if I try a wrong text (meaning that the test will fail) it hangs forever and I have to kill the script otherwise it does not end. Here is my test (the expression Thx user, client or password you entered is incorrect does not exist in the system, no matter what the user does): # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- import gettext import unittest from selenium import webdriver class TestWrongLogin(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.driver = webdriver.Firefox() self.driver.get("http://10.23.1.104:8888/") # let's check the language try: self.lang = self.driver.execute_script("return navigator.language;") self.lang = self.lang("-")[0] except: self.lang = "en" language = gettext.translation('app', '/app/locale', [self.lang], fallback=True) language.install() self._ = gettext.gettext def tearDown(self): self.driver.quit() def test_wrong_client(self): # test wrong client inputElement = self.driver.find_element_by_name("login") inputElement.send_keys("root") inputElement = self.driver.find_element_by_name("client") inputElement.send_keys("Unleash") inputElement = self.driver.find_element_by_name("password") inputElement.send_keys("qwerty") self.driver.find_element_by_name("form.submitted").click() # wait for the db answer self.driver.implicitly_wait(10) ret = self.driver.find_element_by_xpath( "//*[contains(.,'{0}')]".\ format(self._(u"Thx user, client or password you entered is incorrect"))) self.assertTrue(isinstance(ret, webdriver.remote.webelement.WebElement)) if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() Why does it do that and how can I prevent it?

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  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

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  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

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  • jQuery / Loading content into div and changing url's (working but buggy)

    - by Bruno
    This is working, but I'm not being able to set an index.html file on my server root where i can specify the first page to go. It also get very buggy in some situations. Basically it's a common site (menu content) but the idea is to load the content without refreshing the page, defining the div to load the content, and make each page accessible by the url. One of the biggest problems here it's dealing with all url situations that may occur. The ideal would be to have a rel="divToLoadOn" and then pass it on my loadContent() function... so I would like or ideas/solutions for this please. Thanks in advance! //if page comes from URL if(window.location.hash != ''){ var url = window.location.hash; url = '..'+url.substr(1, url.length); loadContent(url); } //if page comes from an internal link $("a:not([target])").click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var url = $(this).attr("href"); if(url != '#'){ loadContent($(this).attr("href")); } }); //LOAD CONTENT function loadContent(url){ var contentContainer = $("#content"); //set load animation $(contentContainer).ajaxStart(function() { $(this).html('loading...'); }); $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: "html", success: function(data){ //store data globally so it can be used on complete window.data = data; }, complete: function(){ var content = $(data).find("#content").html(); var contentTitle = $(data).find("title").text(); //change url var parsedUrl = url.substr(2,url.length) window.location.hash = parsedUrl; //change title var titleRegex = /(.*)<\/title/.exec(data); contentTitle = titleRegex[1]; document.title = contentTitle; //renew content $(contentContainer).fadeOut(function(){ $(this).html(content).fadeIn(); }); }); }

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  • Getting all the classes in project and their packages from CodeRush extension

    - by drasto
    I've spent some time trying to find a way CodeRush could add using when it finds undeclared element that is in the fact class name with no using added. The solution suggested in this answer to my question (Refactor_resolve) does not work (bugged?). In a process I found out that writing plug-ins for CodeRush is easy, so I decided to code this functionality myself (and share it). I'd only implement a CodeProvider (like in this tutorial). The only thinks I need to do the job are answers to this questions: At the start up of my plugin I need to get a list (set, map, whatever) of all classes and their packages. This means all the classes(interfaces...) and their packages in project, and within all referenced libraries. And I also need to receive updated on this (when user adds reference, creates new class). Can I get this from some CodeRush classes or maybe VS interface available from CodeProvider class? How do I add created CodeProvider to the pop-up that is shown when user hovers over an Issue?

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  • algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

    - by msalvadores
    I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

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  • Best practice for managing changes to 3rd party open source libraries?

    - by Jeff Knecht
    On a recent project, I had to modify an open source library to address a functional deficiency. I followed the SVN best practice of creating a "vendor source" repository and made my changes there. I also submitted the patch to the mailing list of that project. Unfortunately, the project only has a couple of maintainers and they are very slow to commit updates. At some point, I expect the library to be updated, and I expect that my project will want to use the upgraded library. But now I have a potential problem... I don't know whether my patch will have been applied to this future release of the 3rd party library. I also don't know whether my patch will even still be compatible with the internal implementation of the upgraded components. And in all likelihood, someone else will be maintaining my project by that point. Should I name the library in a special way so it is clear that we made special modifications (eg. commons-lang-2.x-for-my-project.jar)? Should I just document the patch and reference the SVN location and a link to the mailing list item in a README? No option that I can think of seems to be fool-proof in an upgrade scenario. What is the best practice for this?

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