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  • rails validation of presence not failing on nil

    - by holden
    I want to make sure an attibute exists, but it seems to still slip thru and I'm not sure how better to check for it. This should work, but doesn't. It's a attr_accessor and not a real attribute if that makes a difference. validates_presence_of :confirmed, :rooms {"commit"=>"Make Booking", "place_id"=>"the-kosmonaut", "authenticity_token"=>"Tkd9bfGqYFfYUv0n/Kqp6psXHjLU7CmX+D4UnCWMiMk=", "utf8"=>"✓", "booking"=>{"place_id"=>"6933", "bookdate"=>"2010-11-22", "rooms"=>[{}], "no_days"=>"2"}} Not sure why my form_for returns a blank hash in an array... <% form_for :booking, :url => place_bookings_path(@place) do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :bookdate, { :value => user_cart.getDate } %> <%= f.hidden_field :no_days, { :value => user_cart.getDays } %> <% for room in pricing_table(@place.rooms,@valid_dates) %> <%= select_tag("booking[rooms][][#{room.id}]", available_beds(room)) %> <% end %> <% end %>

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  • BPEL, initialize variable and repeating onAlarm eventHandler

    - by Michael
    I have a little problem I can't solve so far. In BPEL I want to create an onAlarm eventHandler which fires immediatly (i.e. the "for" element is set to 'PT0S') and repeats every 2 seconds. This eventHandler shall contain a counter which increments every time the alarm fires. The question is: How to initialize the counter? If the variable will be initialized within the onAlarm scope the value would not increment anymore. In the "normal" control flow the value also cannot be initialized, because it is not defined if the process or the onAlarm scope runs first. So I would get every now and then an uninitializedVariable exception. My solution would be to not initialize the variable neither in the process scope nor in the onAlarm scope, but create a faultHandler wherein the variable will be initialized and afterwards the onAlarm flow will be executed. Problem is every uninitializedVariable execution will be caught now by this faultHandler and there may be another too. So is there another possibility to deal with this problem or can I somehow find out which variable wasn't initialized properly so the faultHandler can get two control flows? The solution should work on every BPEL engine. Thanks, Michael

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  • Flex NetConnection error: Property onDirtyList not found on flash.net.NetConnection

    - by David Wolever
    I'm having some trouble with NetConnection. The following code makes a connection without issue… var n:NetConnection = new NetConnection(); n.objectEncoding = ObjectEncoding.AMF0; n.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, function(...args):void { trace("HERE"); }); n.connect("rtmp://...host...", ...args); But as soon as the NET_STATUS event handler finishes (ie, hitting "step into" with the debugger), I get this error: ReferenceError: Error #1069: Property onDirtyList not found on flash.net.NetConnection and there is no default value. Error #2044: Unhandled AsyncErrorEvent:. text=Error #2095: flash.net.NetConnection was unable to invoke callback onDirtyList. error=ReferenceError: Error #1069: Property onDirtyList not found on flash.net.NetConnection and there is no default value. at Test/___Test_Application1_creationComplete()[/Users/wolever/Workspace/Test/src/Test.mxml:13] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at mx.core::UIComponent/dispatchEvent()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\UIComponent.as:9440] at mx.core::UIComponent/set initialized()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\UIComponent.as:1168] at mx.managers::LayoutManager/doPhasedInstantiation()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\LayoutManager.as:718] at Function/http://adobe.com/AS3/2006/builtin::apply() at mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher2()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\UIComponent.as:8744] at mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\UIComponent.as:8684] Which is kind of scary because onDirtyList only yields two hits on Google. So... Any suggestions?

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • XSL Reuse? YES! But: Element must not contain an xsl:import element! :-(

    - by Fedor Steeman
    I am using a heavy stylesheet with a lot of recurring transformations, so I thought it would be smart to reuse the same chunks of code, so I would not need to make the same changes at a bunch of different places. So I discovered , but -alas- it won't allow me to do it. When trying to run it in Sonic Workbench I get the following error: An xsl:for-each element must not contain an xsl:import element This is my stylesheet code: <xsl:template match="/"> <InboundFargoMessage> <EdiSender> <xsl:value-of select="TransportInformationMessage/SenderId"/> </EdiSender> <EdiReceiver> <xsl:value-of select="TransportInformationMessage/RecipientId"/> </EdiReceiver> <EdiSource>PORLOGIS</EdiSource> <EdiDestination>FARGO</EdiDestination> <Transportations> <xsl:for-each select="TransportInformationMessage/TransportUnits/TransportUnit"> <xsl:import href="TransportCDMtoFDM_V0.6.xsl"/> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:for-each select="TransportInformationMessage/Waybill/TransportUnits/TransportUnit"> <xsl:import href="TransportCDMtoFDM_V0.6.xsl"/> </xsl:for-each> </Transportations> </InboundFargoMessage> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I will leave out the child xsl-sheets for now, as the problem appears to be happening at the base. If I cannot use xsl:import, is there any option of reuse?

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  • How to pass date parameters to Crystal Reports 2008 from an ASP.NET App?

    - by Unlimited071
    Hello all, I'm passing some parameters to a CR report programatically and it was working fine, but now that I have added a new date parameter to the report, for some reason, it is prompting me to enter that parameter on screen (the user isn't allowed to set that parameter is the system who must set it.), I haven't changed a thing other than adding the new date parameter, and all the other parameters behave normal, just the date parameter is prompted even thought I've already set a value for the parameter. This is the code I've got: private void ConfigureCrystalReports() { crystalReportViewer.ReportSource = GetReportPath(); crystalReportViewer.DataBind(); ConnectionInfo connectionInfo = GetConnectionInfo(); TableLogOnInfos tableLogOnInfos = crystalReportViewer.LogOnInfo; foreach (TableLogOnInfo tableLogOnInfo in tableLogOnInfos) { tableLogOnInfo.ConnectionInfo = connectionInfo; } ArrayList totOriValues = new ArrayList(); totOriValues.Add(date.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); ParameterFields parameterFields = crystalReportViewer.ParameterFieldInfo; SetCurrentValuesForParameterField(parameterFields, totOriValues, "DateParameter"); } private static void SetCurrentValuesForParameterField(ParameterFields parameterFields, ArrayList arrayList, string parameterName) { ParameterValues currentParameterValues = new ParameterValues(); foreach (object submittedValue in arrayList) { ParameterDiscreteValue parameterDiscreteValue = new ParameterDiscreteValue(); parameterDiscreteValue.Value = submittedValue.ToString(); currentParameterValues.Add(parameterDiscreteValue); } ParameterField parameterField = parameterFields[parameterName]; parameterField.CurrentValues = currentParameterValues; } Just for the sake of things: I have checked that the parameter is indeed a date and that it is well formed. CR prompts me to enter it in the format (mm/dd/yyyy hh:mm:ss) so I pass date in that exact format (In fact I've even tried hard coding a well-formed date and it still prompts me to enter the date). Am I doing something wrong?

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  • spyr validation text with jquery serialize()

    - by oz1453
    Code like this : <form> <ol> <li> <fieldset> <legend>test</legend> <ol> <li> <label for="qwerty">qwerty</label> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <input name="qwerty" type="text" id="qwerty" /> <span class="textfieldRequiredMsg">error no qwerty input</span></span> </li> </ol> </fieldset> </li> </ol> <p style="text-align:right;"> <input type="reset" value="reset" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </p> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $('form').submit(function() { alert($(this).serialize()); return false; }); <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1", "none", {validateOn:["blur"]}); //--> </script> I want to do. when i click the submit button serialize the form but when no error with spyr. if the spyr validation text error appears don t serialize or alert. i think.i must make a if condition before alert.

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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  • Good web hosting for ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app

    - by magellings
    I'm looking for hosting for an ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app. I've narrowed down with research to either asphostportal, asphostcentral, godaddy, or 1&1. I've ruled out crystaltech and softsyshosting due to price with better plans. Will be running a small e-commerce site written with ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and want to be sure it will work, as well as looking for cheapest price with best value in regards to disk space/bandwidth. And bandwidth is basically how much data can be sent from your site per month right? Any opinions appreciated as I'm finding this tough to narrow down. I know you can bin deploy MVC but heard full trust mode is required as well as some routing rules in IIS. 1&1 says they can't enable full trust. This is what I was looking at: name data(disk space/bandwidth) price MVCenabled crystal tech 500MB/50GB 7.95 + 7.95 setup 2000MB/200GB 16.95 softsyshosting 500MB/5GB 3.50 + 12/year domain 1000MB/10GB 5.84 3000MB/30GB 13.33 asphostportal 5GB/50GB 5.75 + 8.99/year yes 10GB/100GB 10.25 asphostcentral 2GB/15GB 4.99 yes 3GB/30GB 7.99/month domain free 5GB/40GB 11.99 godaddy 10GB/300GB 10.69 + 4.74/month 150GB/1500GB 6.99/month 1&1 10GB/unlimited 3.99 + free domain 150GB/unlimited 6.99 1&1 seems to be best value if MVC app will work. I'm a bit confused on bandwidth being unlimited. May seem like a good thing, but what if one website on the server is a resource hog because of this?

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  • Configuring an offscreen framebuffer fails the completeness test

    - by randallmeadows
    I'm trying to create an offscreen framebuffer into which I can do some OpenGL drawing, and then pull the bits out manually. I'm following the instructions here, but in step 4, status is 0 instead of GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES. If I insert a call go glGetError() after every gl call, it returns 0 (GL_NO_ERROR) every time. But, the values of variables do not change during the call. E.g., GLuint framebuffer; glGenFramebuffersOES(1, &framebuffer); glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, framebuffer); the value of framebuffer does not get altered at all (even when I change it to some arbitrary value and re-execute). It's almost like the gl calls are not actually being made. I'm linking against OpenGLES framework, and get no compile, link, or run-time errors (or warnings). I'm at a loss as to what to do to fix this. I've tried continuing on with my drawing, but do not see the results I expect, but at this point I can't tell whether it's because of the above error, or the conversion to a UIImage.

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  • Calculating rotation in > 360 deg. situations

    - by danglebrush
    I'm trying to work out a problem I'm having with degrees. I have data that is a list of of angles, in standard degree notation -- e.g. 26 deg. Usually when dealing with angles, if an angle exceeds 360 deg then the angle continues around and effectively "resets" -- i.e. the angle "starts again", e.g. 357 deg, 358 deg, 359 deg, 0 deg, 1 deg, etc. What I want to happen is the degree to continue increasing -- i.e. 357 deg, 358 deg, 359 deg, 360 deg, 361 deg, etc. I want to modify my data so that I have this converted data in it. When numbers approach the 0 deg limit, I want them to become negative -- i.e. 3 deg, 2 deg, 1 deg, 0 deg, -1 deg, -2 deg, etc. With multiples of 360 deg (both positive and negative), I want the degrees to continue, e.g. 720 deg, etc. Any suggestions on what approach to take? There is, no doubt, a frustratingly simple way of doing this, but my current solution is kludgey to say the least .... ! My best attempt to date is to look at the percentage difference between angle n and angle n - 1. If this is a large difference -- e.g. 60% -- then this needs to be modified, by adding or subtracting 360 deg to the current value, depending on the previous angle value. That is, if the previous angle is negative, substract 360, and add 360 if the previous angle is positive. Any suggestions on improving this? Any improvements?

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  • Rendering of graphics different depending on DisplayObject position

    - by jedierikb
    When drawing vertical lines with a non-integer x-value (e.g., 1.75) to a sprite, the lines are drawn differently based on the non-integer x-value of the sprite. In the picture below are two pairs of very close together vertical lines. As you can see, they look very different. This is frustrating, especially when animating the sprite. Any ideas how ensure that sprites-with-non-integer-positions' graphics will visually display the same way regardless of the sprite position? package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.StageAlign; import flash.display.StageScaleMode; import flash.events.Event; public class tmp extends Sprite { private var _sp1:Sprite; private var _sp2:Sprite; public function tmp( ):void { stage.align = StageAlign.TOP_LEFT; stage.scaleMode = StageScaleMode.NO_SCALE; _sp1 = new Sprite( ); drawButt( _sp1 ); _sp1.x = 100; _sp1.y = 100; _sp2 = new Sprite( ); drawButt( _sp2 ); _sp2.x = 100; _sp2.y = 200; addChild( _sp1 ); addChild( _sp2 ); addEventListener( Event.ENTER_FRAME, efCb, false, 0, true ); } private function efCb( evt:Event ):void { var nx:Number = _sp2.x + .1; if (nx > 400) { nx = 100; } _sp2.x = nx; } private function drawButt( sp:Sprite ):void { sp.graphics.clear( ); sp.graphics.lineStyle( 1, 0, 1, true ); sp.graphics.moveTo( 1, 1 ); sp.graphics.lineTo( 1, 100 ); sp.graphics.lineStyle( 1, 0, 1, true ); sp.graphics.moveTo( 1.75, 1 ); sp.graphics.lineTo( 1.75, 100 ); } } }

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  • Stack Overflow like Watermarks in Forms

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hey people, I remember seeing a tutorial somewhere that talks of how to style your input forms in a more "usable" way. Essentially, you have a placeholder value and when you enter the input, it hides the hint so to speak. Now, just to be clear: I don't want the hint (placeholder value text) to disappear onFocus, but rather to go lighter when I first start typing something. Good e.gs: Check out the forms on Aardvark http://vark.com/. This is exactly how I wish to have my input forms. Our very own stackoverflow. When you try to ask a question, on clicking inside any input form, it doesn't hide the text right away. You see your cursor as well as the hint. but when you start to type, it hides the hint(I would prefer having it go to a much lighter shade rather than hiding all together, like above example). I remember very clearly reading a tutorial somewhere on the interwebz with this exact requirement, but darn forgot to bookmark it. Any suggestions/links?

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  • Strange Behaviour in Swift: constant defined with LET but behaving like a variable defined with VAR

    - by Sam
    Stuck on the below for a day! Any insight would be greatly appreciated. The constant in the first block match0 behaves as expected. The constant defined in the second block does not behave as nicely in the face of a change to its "source": var str = "+y+z*1.0*sum(A1:A3)" if let range0 = str.rangeOfString("^\\+|^\\-|^\\*|^\\/", options: NSStringCompareOptions.RegularExpressionSearch){ let match0 = str[range0] println(match0) //yields "+" - as expexted str.removeRange(range0) println(match0) //yields "+" - as expected str.removeRange(range0) println(match0) //yields "+" - as expected } if let range1 = str.rangeOfString("^\\+|^\\-|^\\*|^\\/", options: NSStringCompareOptions.RegularExpressionSearch){ let match1 = str[range1] println(match1) //yields "+" as expected str.removeRange(range1) println(match1) //!@#$ OMG!!!!!!!!!!! a constant variable has changed! This prints "z" } The following are the options I can see: match1 has somehow obtained a reference to its source instead of being copied by value [Problem: Strings are value types in Swift] match1 has somehow obtained a closure to its source instead of just being a normal constant/variable? [Problem: sounds like science fiction & then why does match0 behave so well?] Could there be a bug in the Swift compiler? [Problem: Experience has taught me that this is very very very rarely the solution to your problem...but it is still in beta]

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  • WPF - data binding trigger before content changed

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    How do i create trigger, which fires BEFORE binding changes value? How to do this for datatemplate? <ContentControl Content="{Binding Path=ActiveView}" Margin="0,95,0,0"> <ContentControl.Triggers> <--some triger to fire, when ActiveView is changing or has changed ?!?!? --> </ContentControl.Triggers> public Object ActiveView { get { return m_ActiveView; } set { if (PropertyChanging != null) PropertyChanging(this, new PropertyChangingEventArgs("ActiveView")); m_ActiveView = value; if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ActiveView")); } } How to do this for DataTemplate? <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type us:LOLClass1}"> <ContentControl> <ContentControl.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="shrinker" CenterX="0.0" CenterY="0.0" ScaleX="1.0" ScaleY="1.0"/> </ContentControl.RenderTransform> <us:UserControl1/> </ContentControl> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <-- SOME TRIGER BEFORE CONTENT CHANGES--> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="shrinker" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" From="1.0" To="0.8" Duration="0:0:0.3"/> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="shrinker" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleY" From="1.0" To="0.8" Duration="0:0:0.3"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </-- SOME TRIGER BEFORE CONTENT CHANGES--> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> How to get notification BEFORE binding is changed? (i want to capture changing Visual component to bitmap and create sliding view animation)

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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  • NHibernate Criteria question

    - by Jeneatte Jolie
    I have a person object, which can have unlimited number of first names. So the first names are another object. ie person --- name             --- name             --- name What I want to do is write an nhiberate query using which will get me a person who has certain names. so one query might be find someone whose names are alison and jane and philippa, then next query may be one to find someone whose names are alison and jane. I only want to return people who have all the names I'm search on. So far I've got ICriteria criteria = session.CreateCriteria(typeof (Person)); criteria.CreateAlias("Names", "name"); ICriterion expression = null; foreach (string name in namesToFind) { if (expression == null) { expression = Expression.Like("name.Value", "%" + name + "%"); } else { expression = Expression.Or( expression, Expression.Like("name.Value", "%" + name + "%")); } } if (expression != null) criteria.Add(expression); But this is returning every person with ANY of the names I'm searching on, not ALL the names. Can anyone help me out with this? Thanks!

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  • C# how to calculate hashcode from an object reference.

    - by Wayne
    Folks, here's a thorny problem for you! A part of the TickZoom system must collect instances of every type of object into a Dictionary< type. It is imperative that their equality and hash code be based on the instance of the object which means reference equality instead of value equality. The challenge is that some of the objects in the system have overridden Equals() and GetHashCode() for use as value equality and their internal values will change over time. That means that their Equals and GetHashCode are useless. How to solve this generically rather than intrusively? So far, We created a struct to wrap each object called ObjectHandle for hashing into the Dictionary. As you see below we implemented Equals() but the problem of how to calculate a hash code remains. public struct ObjectHandle : IEquatable<ObjectHandle>{ public object Object; public bool Equals(ObjectHandle other) { return object.ReferenceEquals(this.Object,other.Object); } } See? There is the method object.ReferenceEquals() which will compare reference equality without regard for any overridden Equals() implementation in the object. Now, how to calculate a matching GetHashCode() by only considering the reference without concern for any overridden GetHashCode() method? Ahh, I hope this give you an interesting puzzle. We're stuck over here. Sincerely, Wayne

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  • C# WebBrowser Invoke issue

    - by James Jeffrey
    I am logging into facebook using a web browser. Everything works, but the problem is when I invoke the button click I need to check if the password is correct but, the check seems to happen before the button is invoked which makes no sense at all because the checking code is after the invoke. private void Facebook_Login(String username, String password) { webBrowser1.Url = new Uri("http://m.facebook.com"); while (webBrowser1.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); HtmlElementCollection inputs = webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("input"); foreach(HtmlElement input in inputs) { if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "email") { input.SetAttribute("value", "[email protected]"); } if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "pass") { input.SetAttribute("value", "kelaroostj"); // dont worry that pass wont work lol. } if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "login") { input.InvokeMember("click"); } } while (webBrowser1.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); HtmlElementCollection bs = webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("b"); foreach(HtmlElement b in bs) { MessageBox.Show(b.InnerHtml); } Log_Message("Logged into Facebook with: [email protected]"); }

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  • Load an html table from a mysql database when an onChange event is triggered from a select tag

    - by Crew Peace
    So, here's the deal. I have an html table that I want to populate. Specificaly the first row is the one that is filled with elements from a mysql database. To be exact, the table is a questionnaire about mobile phones. The first row is the header where the cellphone names are loaded from the database. There is also a select tag that has company names as options in it. I need to trigger an onChange event on the select tag to reload the page and refill the first row with the new names of mobiles from the company that is currently selected in the dropdown list. This is what my select almost looks like: <select name="select" class="companies" onChange="reloadPageWithNewElements()"> <?php $sql = "SELECT cname FROM companies;"; $rs = mysql_query($sql); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($rs)) { echo "<option value=\"".$row['cname']."\">".$row['cname']."</option>\n "; } ?> </select> So... is there a way to refresh this page with onChange and pass the selected value to the same page again and assign it in a new php variable so i can do the query i need to fill my table? <?php //$mobileCompanies = $_GET["selectedValue"]; $sql = "SELECT mname FROM ".$mobileCompanies.";"; $rs = mysql_query($sql); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($rs)) { echo "<td><div class=\"q1\">".$row['mname']."</div></td>"; } ?> something like this. (The reloadPageWithNewElements() and selectedValue are just an idea for now)

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  • Low-Hanging Fruit: Obfuscating non-critical values in JavaScript

    - by Piskvor
    I'm making an in-browser game of the type "guess what place/monument/etc. is in this satellite/aerial view", using Google Maps JS API v3. However, I need to protect against cheaters - you have to pass a google.maps.LatLng and a zoom level to the map constructor, which means a cheating user only needs to view source to get to this data. I am already unsetting every value I possibly can without breaking the map (such as center and the manipulation functions like setZoom()), and initializing the map in an anonymous function (so the object is not visible in global namespace). Now, this is of course in-browser, client-side, untrusted JavaScript; I've read much of the obfuscation tag and I'm not trying to make the script bullet-proof (it's just a game, after all). I only need to make the obfuscation reasonably hard against the 1337 Java5kryp7 haxz0rz - "kid sister encryption", as Bruce Schneier puts it. Anything harder than base64 encoding would deter most cheaters by eliminating the lowest-hanging fruit - if the cheater is smart and determined enough to use a JS debugger, he can bypass anything I can do (as I need to pass the value to Google Maps API in plaintext), but that's unlikely to happen on a mass scale (there will also be other, not-code-related ways to prevent cheating). I've tried various minimizers and obfuscators, but those will mostly deal with code - the values are still shown verbatim. TL;DR: I need to obfuscate three values in JavaScript. I'm not looking for bullet-proof armor, just a sneeze-guard. What should I use?

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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  • How to handle checkboxes in ASP.NET MVC forms?

    - by Will
    This seems a bit bizarre to me, but as far as I can tell, this is how you do it. I have a collection of objects, and I want users to select one or more of them. This says to me "form with checkboxes." My objects don't have any concept of "selected" (they're rudimentary POCO's formed by deserializing a wcf call). So, I do the following: public class SampleObject{ public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} } In the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%foreach (var o in ViewData.Model) {%> <%=Html.CheckBox(o.Id)%>&nbsp;<%= o.Name %> <%}%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%}%> And, in the controller, this is the only way I can see to figure out what objects the user checked: public ActionResult ThisLooksWeird(FormCollection result) { var winnars = from x in result.AllKeys where result[x] != "false" select x; // yadda } Its freaky in the first place, and secondly, for those items the user checked, the FormCollection lists its value as "true false" rather than just true. Obviously, I'm missing something. I think this is built with the idea in mind that the objects in the collection that are acted upon within the html form are updated using UpdateModel() or through a ModelBinder. But my objects aren't set up for this; does that mean that this is the only way? Is there another way to do it?

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  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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  • Returning objects from another thread?

    - by Mark
    Trying to follow the hints laid out here, but she doesn't mention how to handle it when your collection needs to return a value, like so: private delegate TValue DequeueHandler(); public virtual TValue Dequeue() { if (dispatcher.CheckAccess()) { --count; var pair = dict.First(); var queue = pair.Value; var val = queue.Dequeue(); if (queue.Count == 0) dict.Remove(pair.Key); OnCollectionChanged(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Remove, val)); return val; } else { dispatcher.BeginInvoke(new DequeueHandler(Dequeue)); } } This obviously won't work, because dispatcher.BeginInvoke doesn't return anything. What am I supposed to do? Or maybe I could replace dequeue with two functions, Peek and Pop, where Peek doesn't really need to be on the UI thread because it doesn't modify anything, right? As a side question, these methods don't need to be "locked" either, do they? If they're all forced to run in the UI thread, then there shouldn't be any concurrency issues, right?

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