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  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

    - by ajsie
    im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

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  • KeyNotFound Exception in Dictionary(of T)

    - by C Patton
    I'm about ready to bang my head against the wall I have a class called Map which has a dictionary called tiles. class Map { public Dictionary<Location, Tile> tiles = new Dictionary<Location, Tile>(); public Size mapSize; public Map(Size size) { this.mapSize = size; } //etc... I fill this dictionary temporarily to test some things.. public void FillTemp(Dictionary<int, Item> itemInfo) { Random r = new Random(); for(int i =0; i < mapSize.Width; i++) { for(int j=0; j<mapSize.Height; j++) { Location temp = new Location(i, j, 0); int rint = r.Next(0, (itemInfo.Count - 1)); Tile t = new Tile(new Item(rint, rint)); tiles[temp] = t; } } } and in my main program code Map m = new Map(10, 10); m.FillTemp(iInfo); Tile t = m.GetTile(new Location(2, 2, 0)); //The problem line now, if I add a breakpoint in my code, I can clearly see that my instance (m) of the map class is filled with pairs via the function above, but when I try to access a value with the GetTile function: public Tile GetTile(Location location) { if(this.tiles.ContainsKey(location)) { return this.tiles[location]; } else { return null; } } it ALWAYS returns null. Again, if I view inside the Map object and find the Location key where x=2,y=2,z=0 , I clearly see the value being a Tile that FillTemp generated.. Why is it doing this? I've had no problems with a Dictionary such as this so far. I have no idea why it's returning null. and again, when debugging, I can CLEARLY see that the Map instance contains the Location key it says it does not... very frustrating. Any clues? Need any more info? Help would be greatly appreciated :)

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  • random quote generator with php, ajax and mysql

    - by fusion
    i've tried using this code and this to make a random quote generator, but it doesn't display anything. my questions are: what is wrong with my code? in the above tut, the quote is generated on a button click, i'd like a random quote to be displayed every 30 mins automatically. how do i do this? //////////////////////// quote.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <script src="ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <body> <!–create the div for the quotes land–> <div id="quote"><strong>this</strong></div> <div><a style="cursor:pointer" onclick="run_query();">Next quote …</a></div> </body> </html> ///////////////////// quote.php: <?php include 'config.php'; // 'text' is the name of your table that contains // the information you want to pull from $rowcount = mysql_query("select count(*) as rows from quotes"); // Gets the total number of items pulled from database. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($rowcount)) { $max = $row["rows"]; } // Selects an item's index at random $rand = rand(1,$max)-1; $result = mysql_query("select * from quotes limit $rand, 1"); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $randomOutput = $row['storedText']; echo '<p>' . $randomOutput . '</p>'; //////////// ajax.js: var xmlHttp function run_query() { xmlHttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlHttp==null) { alert ("This browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } // end if var url="quote.php"; xmlHttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.send(null); } //end function function stateChanged(){ if (xmlHttp.readyState==4 || xmlHttp.readyState=="complete"){ document.getElementById("quote").innerHTML=xmlHttp.responseText; } //end if } //end function function GetXmlHttpObject() { var xmlHttp=null; try { // For these browsers: Firefox, Opera 8.0+, Safari xmlHttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); }catch (e){ //For Internet Explorer try{ xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } } return xmlHttp; } //end function

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  • jQuery - Sorting an array?

    - by Probocop
    Hi, I'm using Ajax to get some XML, and then filling in some fields on a form with the results. There is a numerical field on the form and I would like to sort the results by this number (highest first). How would I go about doing this in jQuery? My js function code is currently: function linkCounts() { ws_url = "http://archreport.epiphanydev2.co.uk/worker.php?query=linkcounts&domain="+$('#hidden_the_domain').val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: ws_url, dataType: "xml", success: function(xmlIn){ results = xmlIn.getElementsByTagName("URL"); for ( var i = 0; i < results.length; i++ ) { $("#tb_domain_linkcount_url_"+(i+1)).val($(results[i].getElementsByTagName("Page")).text()); $("#tb_domain_linkcount_num_"+(i+1)).val($(results[i].getElementsByTagName("Links")).text()); } $('#img_linkcount_worked').attr("src","/images/worked.jpg"); }, error: function(){$('#img_linkcount_worked').attr("src","/images/failed.jpg");} }); } The Links tag is the one I'm wanting to sort it on. Thanks For reference the XML that's getting returned is like the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes"?> <Response> <ResponseCode>1</ResponseCode> <ResponseStatus>OK</ResponseStatus> <ReportId>2</ReportId> <UrlChecked /> <MaxLinks>75</MaxLinks> <PagesFound>121</PagesFound> <URLs> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/author/daniel-peden/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/author/daniel-peden/page/2/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> </URLS> </Response>

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • Setting background-image with javascript

    - by Mattoe3k
    In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • DLL configuration file in asp.net site

    - by Tominator
    Hi, I've made a .net 2.0 librabry project, that results in a dll. I've made an app.config file in my project, with settings used in the dll, with the intention that they can be changed later. I'm attempting to use the dll in an asp.net web application now, so I made the reference to my other project's output, and I see that the dll is copied over to the site's bin folder, and everything works. However, the configuration file is not copied. When I manually copy the app.config and rename it to myDll.config, it has no influence. The contents of the config file is approximately this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="applicationSettings" type="System.Configuration.ApplicationSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" > <section name="myDLL.My.MySettings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <applicationSettings> <myDLL.My.MySettings> <setting name="myDLL_webservice_Service" serializeAs="String"> <value>https://myhost/Service.asmx</value> </setting> <setting name="ID" serializeAs="String"> <value>6</value> </setting> </myDLL.My.MySettings> </applicationSettings> </configuration> And I use its settings in the dll with this (vb.net code): Private _id As Long = My.Settings.ID How can I put my config information somewhere so it can be used? In the web.config of the site application? That has only the appSettings section, and it uses the syntax. It doesn't appear to work though. In a custom file format that I create and use? Not that pretty..

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  • Problem in storing the dynamic data in NSMutableArray?

    - by Rajendra Bhole
    I want to develop an application in which firstly i was develop an structure code for storing X and y axis. struct TCo_ordinates { float x; float y; }; . Then in drawRect method i generating an object of structure like. struct TCo_ordinates *tCoordianates; Now I drawing the graph of Y-Axis its code is. fltX1 = 30; fltY1 = 5; fltX2 = fltX1; fltY2 = 270; CGContextMoveToPoint(ctx, fltX1, fltY1); CGContextAddLineToPoint(ctx, fltX2, fltY2); NSArray *hoursInDays = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"1",@"2",@"3",@"4",@"5",@"6",@"7",@"8",@"9",@"10",@"11",@"12", nil]; for(int intIndex = 0 ; intIndex < [hoursInDays count] ; fltY2-=20, intIndex++) { CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(ctx, 2, 2, 2, 1); //CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(ctx, 1.0f/255.0f, 1.0f/255.0f, 1.0f/255.0f, 1.0f); CGContextMoveToPoint(ctx, fltX1-3 , fltY2-40); CGContextAddLineToPoint(ctx, fltX1+3, fltY2-40); CGContextSelectFont(ctx, "Helvetica", 14.0, kCGEncodingMacRoman); CGContextSetTextDrawingMode(ctx, kCGTextFill); CGContextSetRGBFillColor(ctx, 0, 255, 255, 1); CGAffineTransform xform = CGAffineTransformMake( 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, 0.0); CGContextSetTextMatrix(ctx, xform); const char *arrayDataForYAxis = [[hoursInDays objectAtIndex:intIndex] UTF8String]; float x1 = fltX1-23; float y1 = fltY2-37; CGContextShowTextAtPoint(ctx, x1, y1, arrayDataForYAxis, strlen(arrayDataForYAxis)); CGContextStrokePath(ctx); Now i want to store generated the values of x1 and y1 in NSMutableArray dynamically, for that i was written the code. NSMutableArray *yAxisCoordinates = [[NSMutableArray alloc] autorelease]; for(int yObject = 0; yObject < intIndex; yObject++) { [yAxisCoordinates insertObject:(tCoordianates->x = x1,tCoordianates->y = y1) atIndex:yObject]; } But it didn't working. How i store the x1 and y1 values in yAxisCoordinates object. The above code is correct?????????????

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  • How to refresh a fragment in a viewpager?

    - by aut_silvia
    I know there are already some questions to this problem. But I am really new in Android and ecspecially to Fragments and Viewpager. Pls have passion with me. I didn't found a answer which fits to my code. I dont know how to refresh a fragment or reload it when it's "active" again. TabsPagerAdapter.java: public class TabsPagerAdapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter{ public TabsPagerAdapter(FragmentManager fm){ super(fm); } @Override public Fragment getItem(int index) { switch (index) { case 0: return new KFZFragment(); case 1: return new LogFragment(); case 2: return new TrackFragment(); } return null; } @Override public int getCount() { // get item count - equal to number of tabs return 3; } } I have this 3 Fragments (KFZFragment,LogFragment,TrackFragment) and on the TrackFragment I calculate some data and this data should be display in a ListView in LogFragment. But when I change to LogFragment it's not the latest data. So it doesnt refresh. Now how should I modify my code to refresh the fragments when it's "active"? MainActivityFragment.java: public class MainActivityFragment extends FragmentActivity implements ActionBar.TabListener{ private ViewPager viewPager; private TabsPagerAdapter mAdapter; private ActionBar actionBar; List<Fragment> fragments; private String[] tabs = { "KFZ", "Fahrten Log", "Kosten Track" }; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main_fragment); // Initilization viewPager = (ViewPager) findViewById(R.id.pager); actionBar = getActionBar(); mAdapter = new TabsPagerAdapter(getSupportFragmentManager()); fragments = new Vector<Fragment>(); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, KFZFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, LogFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); viewPager.setAdapter(mAdapter); actionBar.setHomeButtonEnabled(false); actionBar.setNavigationMode(ActionBar.NAVIGATION_MODE_TABS); // Adding Tabs for (String tab_name : tabs) { actionBar.addTab(actionBar.newTab().setText(tab_name) .setTabListener(this)); } viewPager.setOnPageChangeListener(new ViewPager.OnPageChangeListener() { @Override public void onPageSelected(int position) { // on changing the page // make respected tab selected actionBar.setSelectedNavigationItem(position); } @Override public void onPageScrolled(int arg0, float arg1, int arg2) { } @Override public void onPageScrollStateChanged(int arg0) { } }); } @Override public void onTabReselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onTabSelected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { viewPager.setCurrentItem(tab.getPosition()); } @Override public void onTabUnselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) { } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } } Pls help me out.

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  • How to replace an object in an NSMutableArray at a given index with a new object

    - by shakeelw
    Hi guys. I have an NSMutableArray object(retained, synthesized as all) that is initiated just fine and I can easily add objects to it using the 'addObject:' method. But if I want to replace an object at a certain index with a new one in that NSMutableArray, it doesn't work. For example: ClassA.h @interface ClassA : NSObject { NSMutableArray *list; } @property (nonatomic, copy, readwrite) NSMutableArray *list; end ClassA.m import "ClassA.h" @implementation ClassA @synthesize list; (id)init { [super init]; NSMutableArray *localList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.list = localList; [localList release]; //Add initial data [list addObject:@"Hello "]; [list addObject:@"World"]; } // Custom set accessor to ensure the new list is mutable (void)setList:(NSMutableArray *)newList { if (list != newList) { [list release]; list = [newList mutableCopy]; } } -(void)updateTitle:(NSString *)newTitle:(NSString *)theIndex { int i = [theIndex intValue]-1; [self.list replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:newTitle]; NSLog((NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:i]); // gives the correct output } However, the change remains true only inside the method. from any other method, the NSLog((NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:i]); gives the same old value. How can I actually get the old object replaced with the new one at a specific index so that the change can be noticed from within any other method as well. I even modified the method like this, but the result is the same: -(void)updateTitle:(NSString *)newTitle:(NSString *)theIndex { int i = [theIndex intValue]-1; NSMutableArray *localList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; localList = [localList mutableCopy]; for(int j = 0; j < [list count]; j++) { if(j == i) { [localList addObject:newTitle]; NSLog(@"j == 1"); NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", j]); } else { [localList addObject:(NSString *)[self.list objectAtIndex:j]]; } } [self.list release]; //self.list = [localList mutableCopy]; [self setList:localList]; [localList release]; } Please help out guys :)

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  • Flex Drag & Drop: Detecting when all data has been moved from source to destination

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have two mx:TileList controls that I'm using to allow editing of objects in batch. The first contains a collection of all available data, and the 2nd contains the current batch. Both are bound to ArrayCollections, and using the native drag-n-drop functionality of the TileList control the data is moved from one ArrayCollection to the other when an object is dragged between them. I need to change the currentState to show & reset the batch manipulation controls when the batch count goes from 0 to n or n to 0 items. Based on the documentation, I would have thought that I should listen to the dragComplete event, but my testing shows that instead of firing after the data has been removed from the source ArrayCollection and added to the destination ArrayCollection, it fires (consistently) between these two actions. Both lists are similar to this: <mx:TileList id="srcList" dragEnabled="true" dropEnabled="true" dragMoveEnabled="true" dataProvider="{images}" dragComplete="handleDragComplete(event)" allowMultipleSelection="true" /> And here's the source of the handleDragComplete function: private function handleDragComplete(e:DragEvent):void{ trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: batch.length=' + batch.length.toString()); trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: images.length=' + images.length.toString()); if (batch.length > 0){ currentState = 'show'; }else{ currentState = ''; } } And lastly, here's some example output from running the code. These are all run one after the other. Case 1: The application loads with 10 objects in the first list and the batch is empty. I dragged 1 object from the source list to the batch list. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=1 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 1,9) Clearly, the object has been added to the batch ArrayCollection but not removed from the source. Case 2: Now, I'll drag a 2nd object into the batch. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=9 (Expected: 2,8) Firstly, we can see that images.length has changed, showing that the object that I dragged from the source list to the batch list was removed AFTER the dragComplete event fired. The same thing happens this time: The new object is added to the batch ArrayCollection (batch.length=2), the dragComplete event fires (running these traces), and then the object is removed from the source ArrayCollection. Case 3: Now, I'll drag both images from the batch list back to their original location in the source list. batchList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 batchList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 0,10) We can see that batch.length hasn't gone down, but the source images array is back at its original length of 10. QUESTION: Am I doing something wrong? Is there another event I could listen for? (Note: I tried both DragExit and DragDrop, just to be sure, and those behave as expected, but are not what I need.) Or is there another way to get the data that I want? Or... have I found a bug in the SDK?

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

    - by splate
    I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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  • turn array into object active record can use

    - by stormdrain
    I'm running a query and then decrypting it in the controller. After it is decrypted I was putting the results into an array and sending that to the view. The problem is with this solution I need to rewrite all of my views to parse the arrays sent instead of the active record objects sent before. Is there a way to turn the decrypted array back into an object that will work with existing active record code in the view? Before Controller: $name = $this->Clients_model->getNameData('*','client_id='.$clid,''); $data['name'] = $name; $this->load->view('names/name_view',$data); View: if($name->num_rows()) > 0){ foreach($name->result() as $row){ echo $row->data; [...] Now Controller: $name = $this->Clients_model->getNameData('*','client_id='.$clid,''); $nameArray= array(); foreach ($name->result() as $row){ $x = $row; $keys = array('id','client_id'); $unenc = array(); foreach ($x as $key=>$value){ if(! in_array($key, $keys)){ $unenc[$key]=$this->encrypt->decode($value,$this->e_key); }else{ $unenc[$key]=$value; } } array_push($nameArray,$unenc); } //Creates an object with the data, but doesn't work with CI active record //foreach ($nameArray as $akey => $aval) { // $namea -> {$akey} = $aval; //} //return $data; $data['name'] = $nameArray; $this->load->view('names/name_view',$data); View: if(count($name) > 0){ foreach($name as $key=>$row){ echo $row['data']; [...] In the second (now) controller there is some commented out code that will make an object, but it doesn't behave as expected with active record. Is there a way to take the $nameArray() array and change it into an object that will work with existing view code (such as the code in the 'before:view' above)? Thanks!

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  • post row where radio button is checked

    - by ognjenb
    View: <form id="numbers-form" method="post" action="/Numbers/Numbers"> <table id="numbers"> <tr> <th> prvi_br </th> <th> drugi_br </th> <th> treci_br </th> </tr> <% int rb = 1; %> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %>'/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb)%>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %>'/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb)%>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %>'/> </td> </tr> <% rb++; %> <% } %> </table> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </form> Controller action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Numbers(int[] rb) { brojevi br = new brojevi(); for (int i = 1; i <= rb.Length; i++) //in this line I have error:Object reference not set to an instance of an object. { br.prvi_br = i; br.drugi_br = i+1; br.treci_br = i+3; } numbers.AddTobrojevi(br); numbers.SaveChanges(); return View(); } I try to post data row in wich radio button is checked but failed, what is wrong??

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  • Which network protocol to use for lightweight notification of remote apps (Delphi 2005)

    - by Chris Thornton
    I have this situation.... Client-initiated SOAP 1.1 communication between one server and let's say, tens of thousands of clients. Clients are external, coming in through our firewall, authenticated by certificate, https, etc.. They can be anywhere, and usually have their own firewalls, NAT routers, etc... They're truely external, not just remote corporate offices. They could be in a corporate/campus network, DSL/Cable, even Dialup. Currently, clients push new data to the server and pull new data from the server on 15-minute polling loop. The server currently does not push data - the client hits the "messagecount" method, to see if there is new data to pull. If 0, it sleeps for another 15 min and checks again. We're trying to get that down to 7 seconds. If this were an internal app, with one or just a few dozen clients, we'd write a cilent "listener" soap service, and would push data to it. But since they're external, sit behind their own firewalls, and sometimes private networks behind NAT routers, this is not practical. So we're left with polling on a much quicker loop. 10K clients, each checking their messagecount every 10 seconds, is going to be 1000/sec messages that will mostly just waste bandwidth, server, firewall, and authenticator resources. So I'm trying to design something better than what would amount to a self-inflicted DoS attack. I don't think it's practical to have the server send soap messages to the client (push) as this would require too much configuration at the client end. But I think there are alternatives that I don't know about. Such as: 1) Is there a way for the client to make a request for GetMessageCount() via Soap 1.1, and get the response, and then perhaps, "stay on the line" for perhaps 5-10 minutes to get additional responses in case new data arrives? i.e the server says "0", then a minute later in response to some SQL trigger (the server is C# on Sql Server, btw), knows that this client is still "on the line" and sends the updated message count of "5"? 2) Is there some other protocol that we could use to "ping" the client, using information gathered from their last GetMessageCount() request? 3) I don't even know. I guess I'm looking for some magic protocol where the client can send a GetMessageCount() request, which would include info for "oh by the way, in case the answer changes in the next hour, ping me at this address...". Also, I'm assuming that any of these "keep the line open" schemes would seriously impact the server sizing, as it would need to keep many thousands of connections open, simultaneously. That would likely impact the firewalls too, I think. Is there anything out there like that? Or am I pretty much stuck with polling? TIA, Chris

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  • iPhone: custom cell is overlaping with each other

    - by Nandakishore
    hi i am working on Table view, my Table view first custom cell is over ride other cell when Scrolling this is my code import UIKit/UIKit.h @interface MyTweetViewController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITableView *tweetsTableView; NSMutableArray *tweetArray; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableView *tweetsTableView; @end import "MyTweetViewController.h" @implementation MyTweetViewController @synthesize tweetsTableView; (void)viewDidLoad { tweetArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [tweetsTableView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; [super viewDidLoad]; } pragma mark - pragma mark Table view data source (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 1; } (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return [tweetArray count]; } (CGFloat)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView heightForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { return 80; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(UITableViewCell *)cell forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [cell setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; } //Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *identifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if(!cell) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStyleGrouped reuseIdentifier:identifier]; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; } cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; UILabel * name = [[UILabel alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(72,3,242,15)]; name.text = (NSString*)[(Tweet*)[tweetArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] userName]; [name setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size:14]]; name.textColor=[UIColor colorWithRed:250 green:250 blue:210 alpha:0.5]; [name setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; UILabel * tweetLabel = [[UILabel alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(72,20,242,60)]; tweetLabel.text = (NSString*)[(Tweet*)[tweetArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] tweet]; tweetLabel.numberOfLines = 3; tweetLabel.textColor=[UIColor colorWithRed:252 green:148 blue:31 alpha:1]; [tweetLabel setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size:12]]; [tweetLabel setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; NSLog(@" lblUserTweet : %@ ",name.text); UIImageView *myImage = [[UIImageView alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(6,3,58,49)]; NSURL url = [NSURL URLWithString:[(Tweet)[tweetArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] image_url]]; NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:url]; [myImage setImage: [UIImage imageWithData:data]]; [cell.contentView addSubview:myImage]; [cell.contentView addSubview:tweetLabel]; [cell.contentView addSubview:name]; return cell; } (void)dealloc { [tweetsTableView release]; [tweetArray release]; [super dealloc]; }

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when simply casting a pointer in Obj-C

    - by AlexChilcott
    Hi all, Frequent visitor but first post here on StackOverflow, I'm hoping that you guys might be able to help me out with this. I'm fairly new to Obj-C and XCode, and I'm faced with this really... weird... problem. Googling hasn't turned up anything whatsoever. Basically, I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal on a line that doesn't do any dereferencing or anything like that that I can see. Wondering if you guys have any idea where to look for this. I've found a work around, but no idea why this works... The line the broken version barfs out on is the line: LevelEntity *le = entity; where I get my bad access signal. Here goes: THIS VERSION WORKS NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (PhysicsContact *contact in contacts) { PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } THIS VERSION DOESNT WORK NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < [contacts count]; i++) { PhysicsContact *contact = [contacts objectAtIndex:i]; PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } Here, the only difference between the two examples is the way I enumerate through my array. In the first version (which works) I use for (... in ...), where as in the second I use for (...; ...; ...). As far as I can see, these should be the same. This is seriously weirding me out. Anyone have any similar experience or idea whats going on here? Would be really great :) Cheers, Alex

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  • Conceptual inheritance implementation

    - by TheSENDER
    Hi there, I'm writing a spatial data structure and I have a doubt about what's the best NODE implementation. According to my design I have an abstract node entity and three classes which inherit from it: EMPTYNODE, FULLNODE, INTERNALNODE. The first one has no particular data. The second one has 1 reference to a generic element. The third one has 2 references to other nodes. I have found several ways to implement this situation (that I have already coded) but I can't decide what's the best. The first solution that I have found is to use a single class Node that potentially performs all the operation in this way: private static class Node { private Elem elem = null; private Node left = null, right = null; public Elem getElem() { assert isFull(); return elem; } public boolean isEmpty() { return elem == null && left == null; } public boolean isFull() { return elem != null; } public boolean isInternal() { return elem == null && left != null; } } The second solution is to write an explicit division by classes where every class offers only its methods. Obviously in this way we are obliged to perform several casts to the node objects. private static abstract class Node { public abstract boolean isEmpty(); public abstract boolean isFull(); public abstract boolean isInternal(); } private static class FullNode extends Node{ private ITriangle elem; @Override public boolean isEmpty() { return false; } @Override public final boolean isFull() { return true; } @Override public final boolean isInternal() { return false; } public Elem getElem() { return elem; } } The third one solution is to use the inheritance allowing every classes to offer all the methods, but the object type should by check by "isEmpty()" and similar methods. In case of wrong call we'll throw an exception. private static abstract class Node { public abstract boolean isEmpty(); public abstract boolean isFull(); public abstract boolean isInternal(); public abstract Elem getElem(); } private static class Empty extends Node{ @Override public boolean isEmpty() { return true; } @Override public final boolean isFull() { return false; } @Override public final boolean isInternal() { return false; } @Override public Elem getElem() { throw new AssertionError(); } } What do you think about these three solutions? Which one would you use? Any other ideas? Thanks for your help. Every idea will be appreciated.

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  • How to fix this Speech Recognition wicked bug?

    - by aF
    I have this code in my C# project: public void startRecognition(string pName) { presentationName = pName; if (WaveNative.waveInGetNumDevs() > 0) { string grammar = System.Environment.GetEnvironmentVariable("PUBLIC") + "\\SoundLog\\Presentations\\" + presentationName + "\\SpeechRecognition\\soundlog.cfg"; if (File.Exists(grammar)) { File.Delete(grammar); } executeCommand(); /// Create an instance of SpSharedRecoContextClass which will be used /// to interface with the incoming audio stream recContext = new SpSharedRecoContextClass(); // Create the grammar object recContext.CreateGrammar(1, out recGrammar); //recContext.CreateGrammar(2, out recGrammar2); // Set up dictation mode //recGrammar2.SetDictationState(SpeechLib.SPRULESTATE.SPRS_ACTIVE); //recGrammar2.SetGrammarState(SPGRAMMARSTATE.SPGS_ENABLED); // Set appropriate grammar mode if (File.Exists(grammar)) { recGrammar.LoadCmdFromFile(grammar, SPLOADOPTIONS.SPLO_STATIC); //recGrammar.SetDictationState(SpeechLib.SPRULESTATE.SPRS_INACTIVE); recGrammar.SetGrammarState(SPGRAMMARSTATE.SPGS_ENABLED); recGrammar.SetRuleIdState(0, SPRULESTATE.SPRS_ACTIVE); } /// Bind a callback to the recognition event which will be invoked /// When a dictated phrase has been recognised. recContext.Recognition += new _ISpeechRecoContextEvents_RecognitionEventHandler(handleRecognition); // System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(recContext.ToString()); // gramática compilada } } private static void handleRecognition(int StreamNumber, object StreamPosition, SpeechLib.SpeechRecognitionType RecognitionType, SpeechLib.ISpeechRecoResult Result) { string temp = Result.PhraseInfo.GetText(0, -1, true); _recognizedText = ""; // System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(temp); // System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(recognizedWords.Count.ToString()); foreach (string word in recognizedWords) { if (temp.Contains(word)) { // System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("yes"); _recognizedText = word; } } } This codes generates a dll that I use in another application. Now, the wicked bug: - when I run the startRecognition method in the beginning of the execution of the other application, this codes works very well. But when I run it some time after the beginning, this codes works but the handleRecognition method is never called. I see that the words are recognized because they appear on the Microsoft Speech Recognition app, but the handler method is never called. Do you know what's the problem with this code? NOTE: this project has some code that is allways being executed. Might that be the problem? Because the other code is running it doesn't allow it to this to run?

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  • How to Integrate C++ compiler in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Kasun
    Hi Can someone help me with this issue? I currently working on my project for final year of my honors degree. And we are developing a application to evaluate programming assignments of student ( for 1st year student level) I just want to know how to integrate C++ compiler using C# code to compile C++ code. In our case we are loading a student C++ code into text area, then with a click on button we want to compile the code. And if there any compilation errors it will be displayed on text area nearby. (Interface is attached herewith.) And finally it able to execute the code if there aren't any compilation errors. And results will be displayed in console. We were able to do this with a C#(C# code will be loaded to text area intead of C++ code) code using inbuilt compiler. But still not able to do for C# code. Can anyone suggest a method to do this? It is possible to integrate external compiler to VS C# code? If possible how to achieve it? Very grateful if anyone will contributing to solve this matter? This is code for Build button which we proceed with C# code compiling CodeDomProvider codeProvider = CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("csharp"); string Output = "Out.exe"; Button ButtonObject = (Button)sender; rtbresult.Text = ""; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); //Make sure we generate an EXE, not a DLL parameters.GenerateExecutable = true; parameters.OutputAssembly = Output; CompilerResults results = codeProvider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, rtbcode.Text); if (results.Errors.Count > 0) { rtbresult.ForeColor = Color.Red; foreach (CompilerError CompErr in results.Errors) { rtbresult.Text = rtbresult.Text + "Line number " + CompErr.Line + ", Error Number: " + CompErr.ErrorNumber + ", '" + CompErr.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { //Successful Compile rtbresult.ForeColor = Color.Blue; rtbresult.Text = "Success!"; //If we clicked run then launch our EXE if (ButtonObject.Text == "Run") Process.Start(Output); // Run button }

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