Search Results

Search found 37607 results on 1505 pages for 'ms access 97'.

Page 721/1505 | < Previous Page | 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728  | Next Page >

  • What can a company possibly gain by making Android phones hard to root?

    - by Chinmay Kanchi
    As someone who recently got a HTC Hero, I had to jump through several hoops to get root access on the phone to install custom firmware. Now, Android is open-source and fairly easy to build and hack on an emulator. It seems to be against the spirit of open-source to lock down a phone so you can't hack the phone itself. Now, often, there are understandable (though not always justifiable) reasons for locking a device down. For example, it might have proprietary software on it or you might want to retain control of the platform. However, Android by its open-source nature makes such concerns moot. Everyone and their dog has access to the userland code, and HTC is forced by the GPL to release kernel sources for each of their devices. So, I fail to see any motivation for alienating the hackers, when there is no possible benefit (in my mind) to be had from doing this. Any idea why a company would want to do this? Is it just short-sightedness or am I missing possible commercial implications of this?

    Read the article

  • Thread Locking CollectionViewSource

    - by Robert
    I added an event handler to my code and it broke all access to the CollectionViewSources in the SystemHTA class saying "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it". My class was working when "this.systemHTA = new SystemHTA();" was placed outside of the DeviceManager_StateChanged() function. public partial class MainWindow : Window { private DeviceManager DeviceManager = DeviceManager.Instance; public SystemHTA systemHTA; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { DeviceManager.StateChanged += new EventHandler<DeviceManagerStateChangedEventArgs>(DeviceManager_StateChanged); DeviceManager.Initialize(); } void DeviceManager_StateChanged(object sender, DeviceManagerStateChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.State == DeviceManagerState.Operational) { this.systemHTA = new SystemHTA(); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.systemHTA.GetViewSourceTest(); } } public class SystemHTA { private CollectionViewSource _deviceTestSource; public SystemHTA() { _deviceTestSource = new CollectionViewSource(); _deviceTestSource.Source = CreateLoadData<HWController>.ControllerCollection; } public void GetViewSourceTest() { ListCollectionView view = (ListCollectionView)_deviceTestSource.View; //This creates an error saying a thread already owns _deviceTestSource } }

    Read the article

  • java: "downcasting" to new object / opposite of slicing

    - by rhavin
    Sorry, i really dont know how to make a headline for that question; maybe there is a name for what im trying to do that i dont know, but i can explain it with some code: Guess you have a class that unfortunately neither has a copy-constructor nor a public static copy method. class A { private int i; // <- private, cant access String x; // <- even worse: cant access unless in same pkg! /* … other stuff, ctor, etc. … */ public A clone() { A a = new A(); a.i = i; a.x = x; return x; } } Guess further, there is some function that returns an object of that class: public static A someFn(x,y,z); Now the problem: I want to derive from that class to add some functionality. Unfortunately, i neither have a sizeof in java nor a cc or static copy method. So when i do a class B extends A { protected w; public B clone() { /* as usual */ } } then i can clone my B and get a new one, but how can i convert the returned A from someFn() into a B. Is there anyway to do the opposite of slicing in java? if i clone it, it's still an A, and i cant copy it field by field. This is all simple in c++, but how to do this in Java?

    Read the article

  • C++ Builder 2010 Exception Dead Lock ???

    - by James
    Hello Is this some kind of exception dead lock i am facing? How to avoid it ? Have a look at below line where i have TIdContext objects of connected clients stored in an objlist and at times i need to process it. But if one user is disconnected while another thread is processing the list, then for that freed TIdContext-Data object I am getting Access voilation, Ok its fine i am using try/catch but problem is that at below line there is some kind of dead lock and process hangs , if i attach a debuger it show Access voilation Again and Again and Again, and cpu coonsumption goes up because of that exception dead lock. AnsiString UserID = ((Tmyobject*) ((TIdContext*) ObjList->Objects[i])->Data)->UserID; i know i can check before accessing the object, if object is not Null, It works.. But my question is what if once in a blue moon the Data object is freed at the point when NULL check is performed and on next line when again i am accessing the object i get same dead lock ??? So how to avoid/handle this dead lock exception ? Here is the call stack... :005F07C0 System::AnsiStringBase::AnsiStringBase(this=:0285FCE0, src=????) :0040223F System::AnsiStringT<0>::AnsiStringT<0>(this=:0285FCE0, src=:00000008) :00457996 TSomeClass::SomeFunction(this=:009D8230, UserID={ }, DataSize={ }, ) :0047BFF1 __linkproc__ ThreadProc(Thread=:009561C0) :004AD00E __linkproc__ ThreadWrapper(Parameter=:009EAA30) :7c80b729 ; C:\WINDOWS\system32\kernel32.dll Please helppppppppppppppppppppp Thanks

    Read the article

  • TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

    - by Alan G.
    I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic WCF base addresses in SharePoint

    - by Paul Bevis
    I'm attempting to host a WCF service in SharePoint. I have configured the service to be compatible with ASP.NET to allow me access to HttpContext and session information [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class MISDataService : IMISDataService { ... } And my configuration looks like this <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="MISDataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MISDataViews.IMISDataService" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Whilst this gives me access to the current HTTP context, the serivce is always hosted under the root domain, i.e. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc. In SharePoint the URL being accessed gives you specific context information about the current site via the SPContext class. So with the service hosted in a virtual directory, I would like it to be available on mulitple addresses e.g. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site1/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site2/_layouts/MISDataService.svc so that the service can figure out what data to return based upon the current context. Is it possible to configure the endpoint address dynamically? Or is the only alternative to host the service in one location and then pass the "context" to it some how?

    Read the article

  • Could I do this blind relative to absolute path conversion (for perforce depot paths) better?

    - by wonderfulthunk
    I need to "blindly" (i.e. without access to the filesystem, in this case the source control server) convert some relative paths to absolute paths. So I'm playing with dotdots and indices. For those that are curious I have a log file produced by someone else's tool that sometimes outputs relative paths, and for performance reasons I don't want to access the source control server where the paths are located to check if they're valid and more easily convert them to their absolute path equivalents. I've gone through a number of (probably foolish) iterations trying to get it to work - mostly a few variations of iterating over the array of folders and trying delete_at(index) and delete_at(index-1) but my index kept incrementing while I was deleting elements of the array out from under myself, which didn't work for cases with multiple dotdots. Any tips on improving it in general or specifically the lack of non-consecutive dotdot support would be welcome. Currently this is working with my limited examples, but I think it could be improved. It can't handle non-consecutive '..' directories, and I am probably doing a lot of wasteful (and error-prone) things that I probably don't need to do because I'm a bit of a hack. I've found a lot of examples of converting other types of relative paths using other languages, but none of them seemed to fit my situation. These are my example paths that I need to convert, from: //depot/foo/../bar/single.c //depot/foo/docs/../../other/double.c //depot/foo/usr/bin/../../../else/more/triple.c to: //depot/bar/single.c //depot/other/double.c //depot/else/more/triple.c And my script: begin paths = File.open(ARGV[0]).readlines puts(paths) new_paths = Array.new paths.each { |path| folders = path.split('/') if ( folders.include?('..') ) num_dotdots = 0 first_dotdot = folders.index('..') last_dotdot = folders.rindex('..') folders.each { |item| if ( item == '..' ) num_dotdots += 1 end } if ( first_dotdot and ( num_dotdots > 0 ) ) # this might be redundant? folders.slice!(first_dotdot - num_dotdots..last_dotdot) # dependent on consecutive dotdots only end end folders.map! { |elem| if ( elem !~ /\n/ ) elem = elem + '/' else elem = elem end } new_paths << folders.to_s } puts(new_paths) end

    Read the article

  • Lazy loading is not working for one to many

    - by Shire
    Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET - What is the best way to block the application usage?

    - by Tufo
    Our clients must pay a monthly Fee... if they don't, what is the best way to block the asp.net software usage? Note: The application runs on the client own server, its not a SaaS app... My ideas are: Idea: Host a Web Service on the internet that the application will use to know if the client can use the software. Issue 1 - What happen if the client internet fails? Or the data center fails? Possible Answer: Make each web service access to send a key that is valid for 7 or 15 days, so each web service consult will enable the software to run more 7 or 15 days, this way the application will only be locked after 7 or 15 days without consulting our web servicee. Issue 2 - And if the client don't have or don't want to enable internet access to the application? Idea 2: Send a key monthly to the client. Issue - How to make a offline key? Possible Answer: Generate a Hash using the "limit" date, so each login try on software will compare the today hash with the key? Issue 2 - Where to store the key? Possible Answer: Database (not good, too easy to change), text file, registry, code file, assembly... Any opinion will be very appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Jquery Hidden Field in Table

    - by zSysop
    Hi all, I was wondering if anyone knew of a way to access a hidden field (by client id) within a table row using jquery. $("#tblOne").find("tr").click(function() { var worker = $(this).find(":input").val(); }); I find that the above works for a row that has only one input, but i need some help figuring out a way to get the value by the inputs name. Here's the example of a table row. How would i access the two fields by their id's? <table id="tblOne"> <tr> <td> <asp:HiddenField id="hdnfld_Id" Text='<% Eval("ID") %>'></asp:HiddenField> </td> <td> <asp:HiddenField id="hdnfld_Id2" Text='<% Eval("ID2") %>'></asp:HiddenField> </td> </tr> </table>

    Read the article

  • Eclipse sync workspaces/perspectives/preferences across computers

    - by Naren
    I have a project I need to be working on from two different computers, at work and at home. I need to be able to work on the code from both computers, so the issue is two fold; Sharing the code Sharing the workspace. 1 is simple enough with svn; but I feel icky committing broken code to svn just so I can access that again from home. I can live with this but is there a better option? To elaborate more on 2. I have a highly customized eclipse setup on one of the computers where I spent hours adding plugins and tweaking every tiny config options I could access to get it to the point where it is just right. It'll be a pain redoing every single change on the other computer, is there some way to automatically sync that? I know I can export preferences from Eclipse and import them, but I don't want to have to manually do that each time I change something. [Also, I don't think exporting preferences also exports perspectives?] Both computers run windows.

    Read the article

  • Get settings through a button action

    - by Russ Knudsen
    I am looking for a way to access user settings (I assume, NSUserDefaults?) through a button action. Let me back up and explain. What I have right now are 2 TextFields a label and a button. The user will type in measurements in the 2 TextFields. When they hit the button the label displays the volume of the measured object in Gallons. That part of it works great. Then I wanted to give the user options to output the volume in Liters instead of gallons. I would also like to give the user options to type in the measurements in Centimeters. So I setup a 'Settings.Bundle' and configured it with 2 'Multi Value' cells (Measurement units and Volumetric Units). Each Multi Value cell has its own list of different units the user can pick from. My main issue is I don't know how to access these settings through the button action. I may be thinking of this wrong, but what I'm looking for is something like; Button Action If settings key = 0 Then do the math in Inches, Display in Gallons If settings key = 1 Then do the math in Centimeters, Display in Gallons If settings key = 2 Then do the math in Inches, Display in Liters If settings key = 3 Then do the math in Centimeters, Display in Liters Etc... Is this possible? Am I thinking of this in the wrong way? What's the best way to do this?

    Read the article

  • how to share a variable between two threads

    - by prmatta
    I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

    Read the article

  • MFC/CCriticalSection: Simple lock situation hangs

    - by raph.amiard
    I have to program a simple threaded program with MFC/C++ for a uni assignment. I have a simple scenario in wich i have a worked thread which executes a function along the lines of : UINT createSchedules(LPVOID param) { genProgThreadVal* v = (genProgThreadVal*) param; // v->searcherLock is of type CcriticalSection* while(1) { if(v->searcherLock->Lock()) { //do the stuff, access shared object , exit clause etc.. v->searcherLock->Unlock(); } } PostMessage(v->hwnd, WM_USER_THREAD_FINISHED , 0,0); delete v; return 0; } In my main UI class, i have a CListControl that i want to be able to access the shared object (of type std::List). Hence the locking stuff. So this CList has an handler function looking like this : void Ccreationprogramme::OnLvnItemchangedList5(NMHDR *pNMHDR, LRESULT *pResult) { LPNMLISTVIEW pNMLV = reinterpret_cast<LPNMLISTVIEW>(pNMHDR); if((pNMLV->uChanged & LVIF_STATE) && (pNMLV->uNewState & LVNI_SELECTED)) { searcherLock.Lock(); // do the stuff on shared object searcherLock.Unlock(); // do some more stuff } *pResult = 0; } The searcherLock in both function is the same object. The worker thread function is passed a pointer to the CCriticalSection object, which is a member of my dialog class. Everything works but, as soon as i do click on my list, and so triggers the handler function, the whole program hangs indefinitely.I tried using a Cmutex. I tried using a CSingleLock wrapping over the critical section object, and none of this has worked. What am i missing ?

    Read the article

  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET - Accessing copied content

    - by James Kolpack
    I have a class library project which contains some content files configured with the "Copy if newer" copy build action. This results in the files being copied to a folder under ...\bin\ for every project in the solution. In this same solution, I've got a ASP.NET web project (which is MVC, by the way). In the library I have a static constructor load the files into data structures accessible by the web project. Previously I've been including the content as an embedded resource. I now need to be able to replace them without recompiling. I want to access the data in three different contexts: Unit testing the library assembly Debugging the web application Hosting the site in IIS For unit testing, Environment.CurrentDirectory points to a path containing the copied content. When debugging however, it points to C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE. I've also looked at Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location which points to C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c44f9da4\9238ccc\assembly\dl3\eb4c23b4\9bd39460_f7d4ca01\. What I need is to the physical location of the webroot \bin folder, but since I'm in a static constructor in the library project, I don't have access to a Request.PhysicalApplicationPath. Is there some other environment variable or structure where I can always find my "Copy if newer" files?

    Read the article

  • Error accessing uncompiled pages using ISA Server 2006 SP1

    - by Bravax
    We are in the processing of configuring a portal to use ISA Server as our front end security provider. So we are using ISA Server 2006 SP1. Unfortunately when we access .net applications through ISA Server, the first time they are accessed. i.e. They are not compiled yet, the following error appears: Error Code: 500 Internal Server Error. The parameter is incorrect. (87) In the ISA Monitoring logs, this shows: Failed Connection Attempt Log type: Web Proxy (Reverse) Status: 87 The parameter is incorrect. Once the application is compiled, the error never appears. Does anyone know how to resolve this, so the site works correctly the first time? Some additional information: The websites accessed are running on windows server 2008 64 bit - standard edition, and occurs for Sharepoint as well as standard .net websites. ISA Server is running on Windows server 2003 R2 SP2 Standard eidtion The firewall on the windows server 2008 box allows all access. (To rule this out.) Nothing odd appears in the IIS logs or firewall logs.

    Read the article

  • ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

    - by birdus
    I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

    Read the article

  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

    Read the article

  • How to get address the object of an related entity with CoreData ?

    - by eemceebee
    Hi Ok, after I ran into a dead end modifieing an existing Apple example for CoreData, I started completely new creating my own project and that worked fine,..... until I tried to access a related entity. So here is what I did. I created 2 entities, where one is just the detail information of the other one, so there is a one-2-one relationship. Entity #1, Stocks: name value details -- relationship to Entity #2 Entity #2, StockDetails: bank published stock -- relationship to Entity #1 Now, I created the "Managed Object Class" for both of the Entities. Then I created a few lines to put some data into it NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self managedObjectContext]; Stocks *stockinfo= [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Stocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; stockinfo.name = @"Apple"; stockinfo.value = [NSNumber numberWithInt:200]; StockDetails *thestockdetails = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"StockDetails" inManagedObjectContext:context]; thestockdetails.bank = @"Bank of America"; thestockdetails.published = [NSDate date]; thestockdetails.stock = stocks_; stockinfo.details = thestockdetails ; NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { NSLog(@"A Problem occured, couldn't save: %@", [error localizedDescription]); } Just want to mention here, that I do not get an error with this. Next I put everything into a UITableViewController for a preview and another for a detail view. The preview just shows infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) and when selected it shows the detail view. Now here I also display the infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) but I want to show the Entity #2 (StockDetails) aswell. This is how I try to access the data : StockDetails *details_ = [stockinfo details]; And this gives me a EXC_BAD_ACCESS. So any idea what I am doing wrong here ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Double hashing passwords - client & server

    - by J. Stoever
    Hey, first, let me say, I'm not asking about things like md5(md5(..., there are already topics about it. My question is this: We allow our clients to store their passwords locally. Naturally, we don't want them stored in plan text, so we hmac them locally, before storing and/or sending. Now, this is fine, but if this is all we did, then the server would have the stored hmac, and since the client only needs to send the hmac, not the plain text password, an attacker could use the stored hashes from the server to access anyone's account (in the catastrophic scenario where someone would get such an access to the database, of course). So, our idea was to encode the password on the client once via hmac, send it to the server, and there encode it a second time via hmac and match it against the stored, two times hmac'ed password. This would ensure that: The client can store the password locally without having to store it as plain text The client can send the password without having to worry (too much) about other network parties The server can store the password without having to worry about someone stealing it from the server and using it to log in. Naturally, all the other things (strong passwords, double salt, etc) apply as well, but aren't really relevant to the question. The actual question is: does this sound like a solid security design ? Did we overlook any flaws with doing things this way ? Is there maybe a security pattern for something like this ?

    Read the article

  • Connect Rails model to non-rails database

    - by the_snitch
    I'm creating a new web application (Rails 3 beta), of which pieces of it will access data from a legacy mysql database that a current php application is using. I do not wish to modify the legacy db schema, I just want to be able to read/write to it, as well as the rails application having it's own database using activerecord for the newer stuff. I'm using mysql for the rails app, so I have the adapter installed. How is the best way to do this? For example, I want contacts to come from the old database. Should I create a contacts controller, and manually call sql to get the variables for the views? Or should I create a Contact model, and define attributes that match the fields in the database, and am I able to use it like Contact.mail_address to have it call "SELECT mailaddr FROM contacts WHERE id=Contact.id". Sorry, I've never done much in Rails outside of the standard stuff that is documented well. I'm not sure of what the best approach would be. Ideally, I want the contacts to be presented to my rails application as native as possible, so that I can expose them RESTfully for API access. Any suggestions and code examples would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • Why is search functionality not working on this page?

    - by DaveDev
    we deliver micro-site content for our client. Our content is injected into a wrapper that is supplied by another developer. To deliver our content we host the wrapper as well as the content. The user can access this at http://fundcentre.newireland.ie/ (try a search for 'bloxham') For the other content that is not ours, the other developer hosts a similar (though slightly different) wrapper and delivers the content. the user accesses this here: http://www.newireland.ie/ (try a search for 'bloxham') The wrapper contains a search box, which does not work for us but it works for the other developer. I took a look at the network traffic with FireBug but it appears that when I do the search from the wrapper that we're hosting, I'm getting a "407 Proxy Access Denied" error. My guess is their proxy has a problem with the fact that the search is being conducted from a page hosted outside the scope of their proxy. It was also suggested that there were javascript errors on the page that were preventing the search from executing but I can't see any. Also, I don't think I'd get as far as the proxy error if that was the case. I don't really understand this stuff too well though, so could somebody with a bit more experience please take a look and maybe shed some light on this for me? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to know which image is being viewed in UIScrollView? Also, is it possible to loop scrolling for

    - by bruin
    This is what I'm trying to do, and I'm not sure if it's possible using UIScrollView. First, I don't care about zooming, all I care is that the user is able to scroll through images just like the Photo App, this I got. But how do I know which image he is viewing while using UIScrollView? For instance, if he stops on the 3rd image out of 10 images in the view, how do I know he's on that image? I can't find a way to access the index (is this accessible)?? Also, bonus question, once the user scrolls to the last image, I don't want the scrolling to stop but I want it to loop so that image 1 comes after image 10. And vice versa, if you scroll left passed image 1, you'll see image 10. I'm not asking for the logic, I can do this in an array very simply, I just don't know how to access (if it's even possible) the indexing of the images in the scroll view. If it's not, does anyone have a solution to do this? thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Best practice accessing an array set within a class

    - by user350599
    I have created a basic class for a customer. I haven't done this before and want to know the best way to access the data. Should I have a get() method for every field in the customer array or should I simply pass the customer array back and access with the page. i.e. Just return the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer() { return $this->customer; } } versus create a method for each item in the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer_name() { return $this->customer->customer_name; } ... ... } versus option 3 based on Tobias' feedback: (not sure if syntax is correct) class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); return mysql_fetch_row($query); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728  | Next Page >