Search Results

Search found 37607 results on 1505 pages for 'ms access 97'.

Page 724/1505 | < Previous Page | 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731  | Next Page >

• Gettingn Started with Facebook API

  - by Btibert3

  I have a friend that owns a small business and has a Page on Facebook. I want to help her manage it from a marketing perspective, and figure that it may be best to do so through their API. I have skimmed their API documentation, and have a basic working knowledge of Python. What I can't figure out is if I can access their page's data with Python and grab the data on wall posts, who liked posts, etc. Is this possible? I can't find a decent tutorial for someone who is new to programming. To provide context, I have been scraping the Twitter Search API for some time now and I am hoping there is something similar (request certain data elements, and have it returned as structured data I can analyze). I find their API extremely straight forward, and for Facebook, I don't know where to begin. I don't want to create an application, I simply want to access the data that is related to my friend's page. I am hoping to find some decent tutorials and help on what I will need to get started. Any help you can provide will be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

  Read the article

• How can I write to a single xml file from two programs at the same time?

  - by Tom Bushell

  We recently started working with XML files, after many years of experience with the old INI files. My coworker found some CodeProject sample code that uses System.Xml.XmlDocument.Save. We are getting exceptions when two programs try to write to the same file at the same time. System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Test.xml' because it is being used by another process. This seems obvious in hindsight, but we had not anticipated it because accessing INI files via the Win32 API does not have this limitation. I assume there's some arbitration done by the Win32 calls that work at a higher level than the the XmlDocument.Save method. I'm hoping there are higher level XML routines somewhere in the .Net library that work similarily to the Win32 functions, but don't know where to start looking. Or maybe we can set up our file access permissions to allow multiple programs to write to the same file? Time is short (like almost all SW projects), and if we can't find a solution quickly, we'll have to hold our noses and go back to INI files.

  Read the article

• can JockerSoft.Media read/get video file from remote location?

  - by Lynx

  here is the code for JockerSoft.Media // Path of the video and frame storing path string _videopath = "http://www.test.com/Video/test.avi"; //"C:\\test.avi"; string _imagepath = "C:\\test.jpg" Bitmap bmp = FrameGrabber.GetFrameFromVideo(_videopath, 0.1d); bmp.Save(_imagepath, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Gif); // Save directly frame on specified location FrameGrabber.SaveFrameFromVideo(_videopath, 0.1d, _imagepath); it work perfectly is the video file is from my own computer, but when i try to get video file from remote location it not getting the frame. well, all the example is for windwos form app and i trying to use this for web-application. is there maybe an additional coding that enable me to use jockersoft to grab a video frame from remote location? here is the error that i got: Attempted to access an unloaded appdomain. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131014) Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.AppDomainUnloadedException: Attempted to access an unloaded appdomain. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131014) New Learner, please guide me..

  Read the article

• Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

  Read the article

• Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

  Read the article

• Using git svn with some awkward permissions

  - by Migs

  Due to some funky permissions on our client's side that we can't change, we have a project whose hierarchy looks something like: projectname/trunk: foo/, bar/, baz/ projectname/branches: branch1/, branch2/ (where branch1 and branch2 each contain foo, bar, and baz.) The thing is, I have no permission to access trunk, so I can't just do a clone of project/trunk. I do have permission to access branches. What I am currently doing is checking out each subdirectory individually via git svn clone, so that each one has their own git repo. I use a script to update/commit them all, but what I would prefer to do is to check them all out under a single repo, and be able to commit changes with a single call to git svn dcommit. Is this possible? I mentioned the branches hierarchy because if possible, I'd also like to be able to track the branches the way I could if the permissions were more sane. I've tried permuting a lot of options that sounded useful, but I haven't found one that gives me exactly what I want. I sense that the solution may have something to do with --no-minimize-url, but I'm not even sure about that, as it didn't help me when I tried it.

  Read the article

• Who needs singletons?

  - by sexyprout

  Imagine you access your MySQL database via PDO. You got some functions, and in these functions, you need to access the database. The first thing I thought of is global, like: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'root', 'pwd'); function some_function() { global $db; $db->query('...'); } But it's considered as a bad practice. So, after a little search, I ended up with the Singleton pattern, which "applies to situations in which there needs to be a single instance of a class." According to the example of the manual, we should do this: class Database { private static $instance, $db; private function __construct(){} static function singleton() { if(!isset(self::$instance)) self::$instance = new __CLASS__; return self:$instance; } function get() { if(!isset(self::$db)) self::$db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'user', 'pwd') return self::$db; } } function some_function() { $db = Database::singleton(); $db->get()->query('...'); } some_function(); But I just can't understand why you need that big class when you can do it merely with: class Database { private static $db; private function __construct(){} static function get() { if(!isset(self::$rand)) self::$db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'user', 'pwd'); return self::$db; } } function some_function() { Database::get()->query('...'); } some_function(); This last one works perfectly and I don't need to worry about $db anymore. But maybe I'm forgetting something. So, who's wrong, who's right?

  Read the article

• Rails creating users, roles, and projects

  - by Bobby

  I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

  Read the article

• Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

  Read the article

• Slow Response in checkbox using JQuery

  - by Dean

  Hi to all. I'm trying to optimize a website. The flow is i tried to query a certain table and all of its data entry in a page(w/ toolbars), work fine. When i tried to edit the page the problem is when i click the checkbox button i have to wait 2-5sec just by clicking it. I limit the viewing of entry to 5 only but the response on checkbox doesn't change. The tables have 100 entries in them. function checkAccess(celDiv,id) { var celValue = $(celDiv).html(); if (celValue==1) $(celDiv).html("<input type='checkbox' value='"+$(celDiv).html()+"' checked disabled>") else $(celDiv).html("<input type='checkbox' value='"+$(celDiv).html()+"' disabled>") $(celDiv).click ( function() { $('input',this).each( function(){ tr_idx = $('#detFlex1 tbody tr').index($(this).parent().parent().parent()); td_idx = $('#detFlex1 tbody tr:eq('+tr_idx+') td').index($(this).parent().parent()); td_last = 13; for(var td=td_idx+1; td<=td_last;td++) { if ($(this).attr('checked') == true) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td_idx] = 1;//index[1] = Full Access if (td_idx==3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td] = 1; } df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[2] = 1; if (td_idx > 3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[2] = 1; } } else { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td_idx] = 0;//index[0] = With Access if (td_idx==2) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td] = 0; } else if (td_idx==3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td] = 0; } if (td_idx > 3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[3] = 0; } } } $('#detFlex1').flexAddData(df[0]); $('.toolbar a[title=Edit Item]').trigger('click'); }); } ); } I've thought that the problem is this above code. Could anyone help me simplify this code.?

  Read the article

• At what point is it worth using a database?

  - by radix07

  I have a question relating to databases and at what point is worth diving into one. I am primarily an embedded engineer, but I am writing an application using QT to interface with our controller. We are at an odd point where we have enough data that it would be feasible to implement a database (around 700+ items and growing) to manage everything, but I am not sure it is worth the time right now to deal with. I have no problems implementing the GUI with files generated from excel and parsed in, but it gets tedious and hard to track even with VBA scripts. I have been playing around with converting our data into something more manageable for the application side with Microsoft Access and that seems to be working well. If that works out I am only a step (or several) away from using an SQL database and using the QT library to access and modify it. I don't have much experience managing data at this level and am curious what may be the best way to approach this. So what are some of the real benefits of using a database if any in this case? I realize much of this can be very application specific, but some general ideas and suggestions on how to straddle the embedded/application programming line would be helpful. Thanks

  Read the article

• Passing the form scope to a Remote cfc

  - by cf_PhillipSenn

  What is the syntax for passing the form scope into a cfc with access="remote"? I have: <cfcomponent> <cfset Variables.Datasource = "xxx"> <cffunction name="Save" access="remote"> <cfset var local = {}> <!--- todo: try/catch ---> <cfif arguments.PersonID> <cfquery datasource="#Variables.Datasource#"> UPDATE Person SET FirstName = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.FirstName#"> ,LastName = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.LastName#"> WHERE PersonID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.PersonID#"> </cfquery> <cfset local.result = arguments.PersonID> <cfelse> <cfquery name="local.qry" datasource="#Variables.Datasource#"> INSERT INTO Person(FirstName,LastName) VALUES( <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.FirstName#"> ,<cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.LastName#"> ); SELECT PersonID FROM Person WHERE PersonID=Scope_Identity() </cfquery> <cfset local.result = local.qry.PersonID> </cfif> <cfreturn local.result> </cffunction> </cfcomponent> I need to pass in form.PersonID, form.firstname, form.lastname.

  Read the article

• Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

  - by Tom

  I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

  Read the article

• How do you make use of the provider independency in the Entity Framework?

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to learn more about data access and the Entity Framework. My goal is to have a "provider independent" data access layer (to be able to switch easily e.g. from SQL Server to MySQL or vice versa), and since the EF is supposed to be provider independent it seems like a good way to go. But how do you use this provider independence? I mean, I was expecting to be able to sort of "program to an interface", and then just be able to switch database provider. But as far as I can tell I'm only getting a concrete type to program against, an "Entities" class, e.g. in my case it is: UserDBEntities _context = new UserDBEntities(); What I would have expected to be able to switch provider easily was to have an interface e.g. like IEntities _context = new UserDBEntities(); Sort of like I can do with datasets... But maybe that isn't how it works at all with EF? Or do you just switch provider in the connectionstring, and the model stays the same?? Please remember that I'm a complete newbie at this EF, and rather inexperienced with databases in general, so I would really appreciate if you could be as clear as possible :-)

  Read the article

• Sending data back to Controller Spring-MVC

  - by Umesh Awasthi

  I am not sure if this is a complex problem but as a starting person this seems a bit complex to me. I have an object based on which i need to show some values on the UI and let user select some of them, i need to send data back to another controller when user click on the submit button.Here is the structure of my data object public class PrsData{ private Map<String, List<PrsCDData>> prsCDData; } public class PrsCDData{ private Map<String, Collection<ConfiguredDesignData>> configuredDesignData; } public ConfiguredDesignData{ // simple fields } I have set the object in model before showing the view like model.addAttribute("prsData", productData.getPrData()); In the form i have following settings <form:form method="post" commandName="prsData" action="${addProductToCartAction}" > <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].code"/> <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].description"/> </form:form> This is what i have at AddProductToCartController public String addToCart(@RequestParam("productCodePost") final String code, @ModelAttribute("prsData") final PrsData prsData, final Model model, @RequestParam(value = "qty", required = false, defaultValue = "1") final long qty) On submitting the form i am getting following exception org.springframework.beans.NullValueInNestedPathException: Invalid property 'prsCDData[Forced][0]' of bean class [com.product.data.PrsData]: Cannot access indexed value of property referenced in indexed property path 'prsCDData[Forced][0]': returned null It seems like its trying to access the values on this controller while i am trying to send value to that controller and trying to create same object with selected values Can any one tell me where i am doing wrong and what i need to take care of

  Read the article

• trouble calculating offset index into 3D array

  - by Derek

  Hello, I am writing a CUDA kernel to create a 3x3 covariance matrix for each location in the rows*cols main matrix. So that 3D matrix is rows*cols*9 in size, which i allocated in a single malloc accordingly. I need to access this in a single index value the 9 values of the 3x3 covariance matrix get their values set according to the appropriate row r and column c from some other 2D arrays. In other words - I need to calculate the appropriate index to access the 9 elements of the 3x3 covariance matrix, as well as the row and column offset of the 2D matrices that are inputs to the value, as well as the appropriate index for the storage array. i have tried to simplify it down to the following: //I am calling this kernel with 1D blocks who are 512 cols x 1row. TILE_WIDTH=512 int bx = blockIdx.x; int by = blockIdx.y; int tx = threadIdx.x; int ty = threadIdx.y; int r = by + ty; int c = bx*TILE_WIDTH + tx; int offset = r*cols+c; int ndx = r*cols*rows + c*cols; if((r < rows) && (c < cols)){ //this IF statement is trying to avoid the case where a threadblock went bigger than my original array..not sure if correct d_cov[ndx + 0] = otherArray[offset]; d_cov[ndx + 1] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 2] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 3] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 4] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 5] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 6] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 7] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 8] = otherArray[offset] } When I check this array with the values calculated on the CPU, which loops over i=rows, j=cols, k = 1..9 The results do not match up. in other words d_cov[i*rows*cols + j*cols + k] != correctAnswer[i][j][k] Can anyone give me any tips on how to sovle this problem? Is it an indexing problem, or some other logic error?

  Read the article

• RegEx expression or jQuery selector to NOT match "external" links in href

  - by TrueBlueAussie

  I have a jQuery plugin that overrides link behavior, to allow Ajax loading of page content. Simple enough with a delegated event like $(document).on('click','a', function(){});. but I only want it to apply to links that are not like these ones (Ajax loading is not applicable to them, so links like these need to behave normally): target="_blank" // New browser window href="#..." // Bookmark link (page is already loaded). href="afs://..." // AFS file access. href="cid://..." // Content identifiers for MIME body part. href="file://..." // Specifies the address of a file from the locally accessible drive. href="ftp://..." // Uses Internet File Transfer Protocol (FTP) to retrieve a file. href="http://..." // The most commonly used access method. href="https://..." // Provide some level of security of transmission href="mailto://..." // Opens an email program. href="mid://..." // The message identifier for email. href="news://..." // Usenet newsgroup. href="x-exec://..." // Executable program. href="http://AnythingNotHere.com" // External links Sample code: $(document).on('click', 'a:not([target="_blank"])', function(){ var $this = $(this); if ('some additional check of href'){ // Do ajax load and stop default behaviour return false; } // allow link to work normally }); Q: Is there a way to easily detect all "local links" that would only navigate within the current website? excluding all the variations mentioned above. Note: This is for an MVC 5 Razor website, so absolute site URLs are unlikely to occur.

  Read the article

• Using boost::iterator_adaptor

  - by Neil G

  I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: class iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal >

  Read the article

• C#: HTTPWebResponse using application/x-www-form-urlencoded

  - by CSharpened

  So I sent an HTTPWebRequest using application/x-www-form-urlencoded as my content type. I assume that this means the reponse will be returned in a similar type? (EDIT: Have now been told this isn't the case) My question is this. How do I access the different key/value pairs returned in the response. My code so far looks like this. I can of course read the string but surely there is a better way to access the data other than ripping the string apart. HttpWebResponse response = SendPOSTRequest("https://site/page?Service=foo", content.ToString(), "", "", true); string responseCode = response.StatusCode.ToString(); string responseStatusDescription = response.StatusDescription; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string result = sr.ReadToEnd(); I tried using XML/linq to read the elements into an XDocument but of course it is not being returned in XML form. Assume I have 3 or 4 different pieces of information in there how could I read them out? EDIT: I have just checked and the data is being returned as text/plain. How can this be processed easily? EDIT: The response string once retrieved via a streamreader is: VPSProtocol=2.23 Status=OK StatusDetail=Server transaction registered successfully. VPSTxId={FDC93F3D-FC64-400D-875F-0B7E855AD81F} SecurityKey=***** NextURL=https://foo.com/PaymentPage.asp?TransactionID={875F-0B7E855AD81F}

  Read the article

• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

  - by max

  Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

  Read the article

• Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

  - by Luca Matteis

  Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

  Read the article

• How to create a separate thread to do some operation periodically and update UI in WPF?I'm stack

  - by black sensei

  Hello Experts! I'm trying to do a periodic separated thread operation let's say check for internet connection or check for user's info via web service and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement that.So i created an inner class for the window i need to update.That inner class does what is meant for but the problem is that i don't know how to access parent's(window class) members form the child(inner class). for example public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public string doMyOperation() { //code here return result; } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //Now here i could be able to call a label of name lblNotif //lblNotif.Content = result; } } } Well the whole idea works but i'm stacked at here i need to access a controls of Window2 Since i'm stacked i tried Spring.Net way of implementing Quartz hoping that i could use MethodInvokingJobDetailFactoryObject and rather have the Operation done on Window2 itself.But for some reason i'm having an exception Cannot resolve type [System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows];, could not load type from string value System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows and the wiring is done so <object name="UpdateLabelJob" type="System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows"/> What i'm i doing wrong here?Is that a way round? thanks for reading and for helping out

  Read the article

• Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731  | Next Page >