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  • Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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  • how to update an Android ListActivity on changing data of the connected SimpleCursorAdapter

    - by 4485670
    I have the following code. What I want to achieve is to update the shown list when I click an entry so I can traverse through the list. I found the two uncommented ways to do it here on stackoverflow, but neither works. I also got the advice to create a new ListActivity on the data update, but that sounds like wasting resources? EDIT: I found the solution myself. All you need to do is call "SimpleCursorAdapter.changeCursor(new Cursor);". No notifying, no things in UI-Thread or whatever. import android.app.ListActivity; import android.database.Cursor; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.SimpleCursorAdapter; public class MyActivity extends ListActivity { private DepartmentDbAdapter mDbHelper; private Cursor cursor; private String[] from = new String[] { DepartmentDbAdapter.KEY_NAME }; private int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; private SimpleCursorAdapter notes; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.departments_list); mDbHelper = new DepartmentDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); // Get all of the departments from the database and create the item list cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(1); this.startManagingCursor(cursor); // Now create an array adapter and set it to display using our row notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.department_row, cursor, from, to); this.setListAdapter(notes); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); // get new data and update the list this.updateData(safeLongToInt(id)); } /** * update data for the list * * @param int departmentId id of the parent department */ private void updateData(int departmentId) { // close the old one, get a new one cursor.close(); cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(departmentId); // change the cursor of the adapter to the new one notes.changeCursor(cursor); } /** * safely convert long to in to save memory * * @param long l the long variable * * @return integer */ public static int safeLongToInt(long l) { if (l < Integer.MIN_VALUE || l > Integer.MAX_VALUE) { throw new IllegalArgumentException (l + " cannot be cast to int without changing its value."); } return (int) l; } }

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  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Representing xml through a single class

    - by Charles
    I am trying to abstract away the difficulties of configuring an application that we use. This application takes a xml configuration file and it can be a bit bothersome to manually edit this file, especially when we are trying to setup some automatic testing scenarios. I am finding that reading xml is nice, pretty easy, you get a network of element nodes that you can just go through and build your structures quite nicely. However I am slowly finding that the reverse is not quite so nice. I want to be able to build a xml configuration file through a single easy to use interface and because xml is composed of a system of nodes I am having a lot of struggle trying to maintain the 'easy' part. Does anyone know of any examples or samples that easily and intuitively build xml files without declaring a bunch of element type classes and expect the user to build the network themselves? For example if my desired xml output is like so <cook version="1.1"> <recipe name="chocolate chip cookie"> <ingredients> <ingredient name="flour" amount="2" units="cups"/> <ingredient name="eggs" amount="2" units="" /> <ingredient name="cooking chocolate" amount="5" units="cups" /> </ingredients> <directions> <direction name="step 1">Preheat oven</direction> <direction name="step 2">Mix flour, egg, and chocolate</direction> <direction name="step 2">bake</direction> </directions> </recipe> <recipe name="hot dog"> ... How would I go about designing a class to build that network of elements and make one easy to use interface for creating recipes? Right now I have a recipe object, an ingredient object, and a direction object. The user must make each one, set the attributes in the class and attach them to the root object which assembles the xml elements and outputs the formatted xml. Its not very pretty and I just know there has to be a better way. I am using python so bonus points for pythonic solutions

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  • asp.net Web server control with child controls, event not firing

    - by bleeeah
    I have a simple web control (TaskList) that can have children (Task) which inherit from LinkButton, that can be added declaratively or programatically. This works ok, but I can't get the onclick event of a Task to be fired in my code behind. The code .. [ToolboxData("<{0}:TaskList runat=\"server\"> </{0}:TaskList>")] [ParseChildren(true)] [PersistChildren(false)] public class TaskList : System.Web.UI.Control { //[DefaultProperty("Text")] public TaskList() {} private List<Task> _taskList = new List<Task>(); private string _taskHeading = ""; public string Heading { get { return this._taskHeading; } set { this._taskHeading = value; } } [NotifyParentProperty(true)] [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public List<Task> Tasks { get { return this._taskList; } set { this._taskList = value; } } protected override void CreateChildControls() { foreach (Task task in this._taskList) this.Controls.Add(task); base.CreateChildControls(); } protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<h2>" + this._taskHeading + "</h2>"); writer.Write("<div class='tasks_container'>"); writer.Write("<div class='tasks_list'>"); writer.Write("<ul>"); foreach (Task task in this._taskList) { writer.Write("<li>"); task.RenderControl(writer); writer.Write("</li>"); } writer.Write("</ul>"); writer.Write("</div>"); writer.Write("</div>"); } } public class Task : LinkButton { private string _key = ""; public string Key { get { return this._key; } set { this._key = value; } } } Markup: <rf:TaskList runat="server" ID="tskList" Heading="Tasks"> <Tasks> <rf:Task Key="ba" ID="L1" Text="Helllo" OnClick="task1_Click" runat="server" /> </Tasks> </rf:TaskList> The Onclick event task1_Click never fires when clicked (although a postback occurs).

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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • What are some things you'd like fresh college grads to know?

    - by bradhe
    So I proposed this to the Reddit community and I'd like to get SO's perspective on this. This is pretty much the copypasta of what I put there. I was thinking about this last night and thought it would be neat to compile a list. I'm still a pretty fresh college grad -- been in industry for 2 years -- but I think that I might have a few interesting things to lend. You don't know as much as you think you do. Somehow, college students think they know a lot more than they do (or maybe that was just me). Likewise, they think they can do more than they actually can. You should fairly assess your skills. QA people are not out to get you. Humans introduce bugs to code. It's not (nescessarily) a personal reflection on you and your skills if your code has a bug and it's caught by the QA/testing team. Listen to your senior (developers). They are not actually fuddy duddies who don't know about the new L337 hax in Ruby (okay, sometimes they are, but still...). They have a wealth of knowledge that you can learn from and it's in your best interest to do so. You will most likely not be doing what you want to for a while. This is mostly true in the corporate world -- startups are a different matter. Also, this is due to more than just the economy, man! Junior devs need to earn their keep, so to speak. Everyone wants to be lead dev on the next project and there are a lot of people in line ahead of you! For every elite developer there are 100 average developers. Joel Spolsky, I'm looking at you. Somehow this concept of ninja coders has really ingrained itself in our culture. While I encourage you to be the best you can be don't be disappointed if people aren't writing blog posts about you in the near future. Anyone else have anything they would see added to this list?

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  • How to get colliding effect or bouncy when ball hits the track.

    - by Chandan Shetty SP
    I am using below formula to move the ball circular, where accelX and accelY are the values from accelerometer, it is working fine. But the problem in this code is mRadius (I fixed its value to 50), i need to change mRadius according to accelerometer values and also i need bouncing effect when it touches the track. Currently i am developing code by assuming only one ball is on the board. float degrees = -atan2(accelX, accelY) * 180 / 3.14159; int x = cCentrePoint.x + mRadius * cos(degreesToRadians(degrees)); int y = cCentrePoint.y + mRadius * sin(degreesToRadians(degrees)); Here is the snap of the game i want to develop: Updated: I am sending the updated code... mRadius = 5; mRange = NSMakeRange(0,60); -(void) updateBall: (UIAccelerationValue) accelX withY:(UIAccelerationValue)accelY { float degrees = -atan2(accelX, accelY) * 180 / 3.14159; int x = cCentrePoint.x + mRadius * cos(degreesToRadians(degrees)); int y = cCentrePoint.y + mRadius * sin(degreesToRadians(degrees)); //self.targetRect is rect of ball Object self.targetRect = CGRectMake(newX, newY, 8, 9); self.currentRect = self.targetRect; //http://books.google.co.in/books?id=WV9glgdrrrUC&pg=PA455#v=onepage&q=&f=false static NSDate *lastDrawTime; if(lastDrawTime!=nil) { NSTimeInterval secondsSinceLastDraw = -([lastDrawTime timeIntervalSinceNow]); ballXVelocity = ballXVelocity + (accelX * secondsSinceLastDraw) * [self isTouchedTrack:mRadius andRange:mRange]; ballYVelocity = ballYVelocity + -(accelY * secondsSinceLastDraw) * [self isTouchedTrack:mRadius andRange:mRange]; distXTravelled = distXTravelled + secondsSinceLastDraw * ballXVelocity * 50; distYTravelled = distYTravelled + secondsSinceLastDraw * ballYVelocity * 50; CGRect temp = self.targetRect; temp.origin.x += distXTravelled; temp.origin.y += distYTravelled; int radius = (temp.origin.x - cCentrePoint.x) / cos(degreesToRadians(degrees)); if( !NSLocationInRange(abs(radius),mRange)) { //Colided with the tracks...Need a better logic here ballXVelocity = -ballXVelocity; } else { // Need a better logic here self.targetRect = temp; } //NSLog(@"angle = %f",degrees); } [lastDrawTime release]; lastDrawTime = [ [NSDate alloc] init]; } In the above code i have initialized mRadius and mRange(indicate track) to some constant for testing, i am not getting the moving of the ball as i expected( bouncing effect when Collided with track ) with respect to accelerometer. Help me to recognize where i went wrong or send some code snippets or links which does the similar job. I am searching for better logic than my code, if you found share with me.

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  • C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

    - by Yeti
    I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

    - by Jordan
    When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

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  • How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

    - by Adam Jones
    I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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  • SQL Server architecture guidance

    - by Liam
    Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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  • representing an XML config file with an IXmlSerializable class

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm writing in C# and trying to represent an XML config file through an IXmlSerializable class. I'm unsure how to represent the nested elements in my config file, though, such as logLevel: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> <credentials> <user>user123</user> <host>localhost</host> <password>pass123</password> </credentials> <credentials> <user>user456</user> <host>my.other.domain.com</host> <password>pass456</password> </credentials> </configuration> There is an enum called LogLevel that represents all the possible values for the logLevel tag. The tags within credentials should all come out as strings. In my class, called DLLConfigFile, I had the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; However, this isn't going to work because <logLevel> isn't within the root node of the XML file, it's one node deeper in <logging>. How do I go about doing this? As for the <credentials> nodes, my guess is I will need a second class, say CredentialsSection, and have a property such as the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="credentials", DataType="CredentialsSection")] public CredentialsSection[] AllCredentials; Edit: okay, I tried Robert Love's suggestion and created a LoggingSection class. However, my test fails: var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(DLLConfigFile)); using (var stream = new FileStream(_configPath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read)) { using (var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream)) { XmlReader reader = new XmlTextReader(streamReader); var file = (DLLConfigFile)xs.Deserialize(reader); Assert.IsNotNull(file); LoggingSection logging = file.Logging; Assert.IsNotNull(logging); // fails here LogLevel logLevel = logging.LogLevel; Assert.IsNotNull(logLevel); Assert.AreEqual(EXPECTED_LOG_LEVEL, logLevel); } } The config file I'm testing with definitely has <logging>. Here's what the classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlRoot("logging")] public class LoggingSection : IXmlSerializable { public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { LogLevel = (LogLevel)Enum.Parse(typeof(LogLevel), reader.ReadString()); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { writer.WriteString(Enum.GetName(typeof(LogLevel), LogLevel)); } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("configuration")] public class DLLConfigFile : IXmlSerializable { [XmlElement(ElementName="logging", DataType="LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging; }

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  • How to rectify this program?

    - by user1430719
    This is a program to display a pie chart. I also have a button. But the program I have written, creates two separate frames and one frame is for the pie chart and the other is for the button. How do I put both button and pie chart on the same frame?? Can you please rectify my program. import java.awt.*; import org.jfree.chart.*; import org.jfree.chart.title.*; import org.jfree.data.general.DefaultPieDataset; import org.jfree.ui.*; import java.io.*; import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.filechooser.*; public class Pie{ public static void getFile(File f) { System.out.println("File is: "+f.getName()); } public static void main(String[] args) { JPanel panel=new JPanel(); panel.setLayout(null); JButton b=new JButton("Open File"); b.addActionListener(new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { JFileChooser chooser=new JFileChooser(); int ret = chooser.showDialog(null, "Open file"); if (ret == JFileChooser.APPROVE_OPTION) { File file = chooser.getSelectedFile(); getFile(file); } } } ); b.setBounds(50,40,100,35); panel.add(b); DefaultPieDataset pieDataset = new DefaultPieDataset(); pieDataset.setValue("A", new Integer(10)); pieDataset.setValue("B", new Integer(20)); pieDataset.setValue("C", new Integer(30)); pieDataset.setValue("D", new Integer(10)); pieDataset.setValue("E", new Integer(20)); pieDataset.setValue("F", new Integer(10)); JFreeChart chart = ChartFactory.createPieChart("Pie Chart using JFreeChart", pieDataset, true,true,true); ChartFrame frame1=new ChartFrame("Pie Chart",chart); frame1.add(panel); frame1.setVisible(true); frame1.setSize(600,600); } }

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  • Managing several custom content types from one module(drupal)

    - by Andrew
    Is it possible to declare and manage several custom content types inside one module? I'm creating a site that needs four custom content types and I'd like to manage them from one module instead of creating module for every content type. After some testing, I found out that it seems impossible. Because, unless hook_form and content type share the same name of module, drupal doesn't call hook_form. Here's how I'd like to do - function mycontent_node_info(){ return array( 'mycontent1' => array( 'name' => t('....'), 'module' => 'mycontent', 'description' => t('...), 'has_title' => TRUE, 'title_label' => t('Title'), 'has_body' => TRUE, 'body_label' => t('content body'), ), 'mycontent2' => array( ....... ), 'mycontent3' => array( ...... ), 'mycontent4' => array( ...... ), ); } function mycontent1_form(&$node){ $form['control1'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('selection 1'), '1' => t('selection 2'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control1'), ); $form['control2'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('1'), '1' => t('2'), '2' => t('3'), '3' => t('4'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control2'), ); return $form; } function mycontent2_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent3_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent4_form(&$node){ .... } Am I doing something wrong here or is not possible and there's no alternative other than creating module for every content types. I appreciate much your help.

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Android - binding to service

    - by tommy
    Hi: I can't seem to get an activity to bind to a service in the same package. The activity looks like this: public class myApp extends TabActivity { static private String TAG = "myApp"; private myService mService = null; private ServiceConnection mServiceConn = new ServiceConnection(){ public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName name, IBinder service) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " connected"); mService = ((myService.myBinder)service).getService(); } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName name) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " disconnected"); } }; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); doBind(); Log.i(TAG, "Started (UI Thread)"); // set content setContentView(R.layout.main); Resources res = getResources(); // Resource object to get Drawables TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); // The activity TabHost ... add some tabs here.... tabHost.setCurrentTab(0); } private void doBind(){ Intent i = new Intent(this,myService.class); if( bindService(i, mServiceConn, 0 )){ Log.i(TAG, "Service bound"); } else { Log.e(TAG, "Service not bound"); } } } Then the service: public class myService extends Service { private String TAG = "myService"; private boolean mRunning = false; @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startid) { Log.i(TAG,"Service start"); mRunning = true; Log.d(TAG,"Finished onStartCommand"); return START_STICKY; } /* * Called on service stop */ @Override public void onDestroy(){ Log.i(TAG,"onDestroy"); mRunning = false; super.onDestroy(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { return mBinder; } boolean isRunning() { return mRunning; } /* * class for binding */ private final IBinder mBinder = new myBinder(); public class myBinder extends Binder { myService getService() { return myService.this; } } } bindService returns true, but onServiceConnection is never called (mService is always null, so I can't do something like mService.isRunning() ) The manifest entry for the service is just: <service android:name=".myService"></service> I was copying the code direct from the Android developers site, but I must have missed something.

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  • How to manage maintenance/bug-fix branches in Subversion when third-party installers are involved?

    - by Mike Spross
    We have a suite of related products written in VB6, with some C# and VB.NET projects, and all the source is kept in a single Subversion repository. We haven't been using branches in Subversion (although we do tag releases now), and simply do all development in trunk, creating new releases when the trunk is stable enough. This causes no end of grief when we release a new version, issues are found with it, and we have already begun working on new features or major changes to the trunk. In the past, we would address this in one of two ways, depending on the severity of the issues and how stable we thought the trunk was: Hurry to stabilize the trunk, fix the issues, and then release a maintenance update based on the HEAD revision, but this had the side effect of releases that fixed the bugs but introduced new issues because of half-finished features or bugfixes that were in trunk. Make customers wait until the next official release, which is usually a few months. We want to change our policies to better deal with this situation. I was considering creating a "maintenance branch" in Subversion whenever I tag an official release. Then, new development would continue in trunk, and I can periodically merge specific fixes from trunk into the maintenance branch, and create a maintenance release when enough fixes are accumulated, while we continue to work on the next major update in parallel. I know we could also have a more stable trunk and create a branch for new updates instead, but keeping current development in trunk seems simpler to me. The major problem is that while we can easily branch the source code from a release tag and recompile it to get the binaries for that release, I'm not sure how to handle the setup and installer projects. We use QSetup to create all of our setup programs, and right now when we need to modify a setup project, we just edit the project file in-place (all the setup projects and any dependencies that we don't compile ourselves are stored on a separate server, and we make sure to always compile the setup projects on that machine only). However, since we may add or remove files to the setup as our code changes, there is no guarantee that today's setup projects will work with yesterday's source code. I was going to put all the QSetup projects in Subversion to deal with this, but I see some problems with this approach. I want the creation of setup programs to be as automated as possible, and at the very least, I want a separate build machine where I can build the release that I want (grabbing the code from Subversion first), grab the setup project for that release from Subversion, recompile the setup, and then copy the setup to another place on the network for QA testing and eventual release to customers. However, when someone needs to change a setup project (to add a new dependency that trunk now requires or to make other changes), there is a problem. If they treat it like a source file and check it out on their own machine to edit it, they won't be able to add files to the project unless they first copy the files they need to add to the build machine (so they are available to other developers), then copy all the other dependencies from the build machine to their machine, making sure to match the folder structure exactly. The issue here is that QSetup uses absolute paths for any files added to a setup project. However, this means installing a bunch of setup dependencies onto development machines, which seems messy (and which could destabilize the development environment if someone accidentally runs the setup project on their machine). Also, how do we manage third-party dependencies? For example, if the current maintenance branch used MSXML 3.0 and the trunk now requires MSXML 4.0, we can't go back and create a maintenance release if we have already replaced the MSXML library on the build machine with the latest version (assuming both versions have the same filename). The only solution I can think is to either put all the third-party dependencies in Subversion along with the source code, or to make sure we put different library versions in separate folders (i.e. C:\Setup\Dependencies\MSXML\v3.0 and C:\Setup\Dependencies\MSXML\v4.0). Is one way "better" or more common than the other? Are there any best practices for dealing with this situation? Basically, if we release v2.0 of our software, we want to be able to release v2.0.1, v2.0.2, and v.2.0.3 while we work on v2.1, but the whole setup/installation project and setup dependency issue is making this more complicated than the the typical "just create a branch in Subversion and recompile as needed" answer.

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • Daemonize() issues on Debian

    - by djTeller
    Hi, I'm currently writing a multi-process client and a multi-treaded server for some project i have. The server is a Daemon. In order to accomplish that, i'm using the following daemonize() code: static void daemonize(void) { pid_t pid, sid; /* already a daemon */ if ( getppid() == 1 ) return; /* Fork off the parent process */ pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* If we got a good PID, then we can exit the parent process. */ if (pid > 0) { exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); } /* At this point we are executing as the child process */ /* Change the file mode mask */ umask(0); /* Create a new SID for the child process */ sid = setsid(); if (sid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Change the current working directory. This prevents the current directory from being locked; hence not being able to remove it. */ if ((chdir("/")) < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Redirect standard files to /dev/null */ freopen( "/dev/null", "r", stdin); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stdout); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stderr); } int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { daemonize(); /* Now we are a daemon -- do the work for which we were paid */ return 0; } I have a strange side effect when testing the server on Debian (Ubuntu). The accept() function always fail to accept connections, the pid returned is -1 I have no idea what causing this, since in RedHat & CentOS it works well. When i remove the call to daemonize(), everything works well on Debian, when i add it back, same accept() error reproduce. I've been monitring the /proc//fd, everything looks good. Something in the daemonize() and the Debian release just doesn't seem to work. (Debian GNU/Linux 5.0, Linux 2.6.26-2-286 #1 SMP) Any idea what causing this? Thank you

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  • How do I hide the text links over a toggleable horizontal list with background images.

    - by Sivakanesh
    I'm trying to create a UL/LI horizontal list with background images only, with no text link visible. The reason for this is so that when I over over a list item, the background would rollover and when I click on it the current item would toggle. basically it is a horizontal menu with background images that can be toggled; mimicking the job of a radio button. I have done it like this; <div id="options"> <ul id="list"> <li class="active"><a href="#" class="option1 active" id="link1"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option2" id="link2"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option3" id="link3"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> </ul> </div> The CSS for option1, option2 and option3 simply define the background image. #options LI{list-style-type: none; display : inline} a.option1{ background:url('../images/option1.png') no-repeat;} a.option2{ background:url('../images/option2.png') no-repeat;} a.option3{ background:url('../images/option3.png') no-repeat;} a.option1, a.option2, a.option3{ background-position:top; display:inline; width:230px; height:40px; } And the hover & active css part simply sets the background position like so- a.option1:hover, a.option2:hover, a.option3:hover{ background-position:bottom; } a.active{ background-position:bottom !important; } This works fine, however on top of the background I get the words "XXXXX" as text links and I'm struggling to hide them. They are interfering with the hover action and preventing rollover (even if I replace XXXXX with a period or something short). I can't just remove the text from the link as it would hide the whole LI element. I have tried to use display:none; or text-indent:-999px but then the whole UI element becomes invisible. I can't understand what I'm doing wrong. Are you able to help? Thanks

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  • how to update only the updated rows in gridview?

    - by user603007
    what is the handiest way to update only the updated rows (only the checkbox column) in this gridview? what is a handy way to check wether the row was updated? c# public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<customer> listCustomer = new List<customer>(); customer cust1 = new customer(){name="fred",email="[email protected]",jobless="true"}; customer cust2 = new customer(){name="mark",email="[email protected]",jobless="false"}; listCustomer.Add(cust1); listCustomer.Add(cust2); GridView1.DataSource=listCustomer; GridView1.DataBind(); } } protected void btnUpdate_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (GridViewRow rw in GridView1.Rows) { CheckBox thiscontrol = (CheckBox)rw.Cells[0].FindControl("cb"); var ch = thiscontrol.Checked; //only update the updated rows? } } public class customer { public string name { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public string jobless { get; set; } } html <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="gridviewUpdate._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="jobless" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("jobless").ToString().Equals("true") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="email" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div>

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