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  • How to add a title attribute to every option of an ASP.NET DropDownList

    - by zuallauz
    I'm working on an older ASP.NET project (not MVC I don't think) and one of the features they require is to view a description of an item when they hover over that item in a dropdown list. This can be simply done with HTML using the following code and making use of title text: <select> <option value="1" title="Option 1 Desc">Option 1</option> <option value="2" title="Option 2 Desc">Option 2</option> <option value="3" title="Option 3 Desc">Option 3</option> </select> Ok so how do I do this using ASP.NET DropDownList control? I have the following code: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownListLocation" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="DropDownListLocation_OnSelectedIndexChanged" CssClass="editorFieldServerControl" ClientIDMode="Static"></asp:DropDownList> And in the 'code behind' page: private void PopulateFacilityDropdown(List<FacilityAvailableByLocation> facilities, int? selectedID) { DropDownListFacility.DataSource = facilities; DropDownListFacility.DataTextField = "FacilityName"; DropDownListFacility.DataValueField = "FacilityID"; DropDownListFacility.DataBind(); DropDownListFacility.Items.Insert(0, new System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListItem("", "")); if (selectedID.HasValue && selectedID.Value > 0) DropDownListFacility.SelectedIndex = facilities.FindIndex(b => b.FacilityID == selectedID.Value); else DropDownListFacility.SelectedIndex = 0; } } Basically each facility in the list of facilities there has properties for an ID, Name, Description that I can get out. I just want to be able to put a title attribute on each <option> that gets rendered and put the description into it. Either that or be able to add a custom attribute like 'data-description' to each <option> tag then I can add the title into each option tag myself using a bit of jQuery which is easy enough. I miss the days where you could just loop through a list and output the custom dropdown code manually. Any ideas? Many thanks

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  • jquery ajax form success callback not being called

    - by Michael Merchant
    I'm trying to upload a file using "AJAX", process data in the file and then return some of that data to the UI so I can dynamically update the screen. I'm using the JQuery Ajax Form Plugin, jquery.form.js found at http://jquery.malsup.com/form/ for the javascript and using Django on the back end. The form is being submitted and the processing on the back end is going through without a problem, but when a response is received from the server, my Firefox browser prompts me to download/open a file of type "application/json". The file has the json content that I've been trying to send to the browser. I don't believe this is an issue with how I'm sending the json as I have a modularized json_wrapper() function that I'm using in multiple places in this same application. Here is what my form looks after Django templates are applied: <form method="POST" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="/test_suites/active/upload_results/805/"> <p> <label for="id_resultfile">Upload File:</label> <input type="file" id="id_resultfile" name="resultfile"> </p> </form> You won't see any submit buttons because I'm calling submit with a button else where and am using ajaxSubmit() from the jquery.form.js plugin. Here is the controlling javascript code: function upload_results($dialog_box){ $form = $dialog_box.find("form"); var options = { type: "POST", success: function(data){ alert("Hello!!"); }, dataType: "json", error: function(){ console.log("errors"); }, beforeSubmit: function(formData, jqForm, options){ console.log(formData, jqForm, options); }, } $form.submit(function(){ $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); return false; }); $form.ajaxSubmit(options); } As you can see, I've gotten desperate to see the success callback function work and simply have an alert message created on success. However, we never reach that call. Also, the error function is not called and the beforeSubmit function is executed. The file that I get back has the following contents: {"count": 18, "failed": 0, "completed": 18, "success": true, "trasaction_id": "SQEID0.231"} I use 'success' here to denote whether or not the server was able to run the post command adequately. If it failed the result would look something like: {"success": false, "message":"<error_message>"} Your time and help is greatly appreciated. I've spent a few days on this now and would love to move on.

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  • IE sends multiple cookies with same name?

    - by akach
    I have a strange bug that occurs in IE7/XP and IE8/Vista on my website. IE sends two cookies named PHPSESSID. How to reproduce: Clear cookies in IE (not necessary if you never visited unisender.com). Visit unisender.com (exactly without www to reproduce!) and it will redirect to www.unisender.com Login with any valid username and password (I've registered username testmsdn with password testmsdn - feel free to use for testing) Run your favourite capture-the-traffic program (I prefer wireshark) Now click any menu link (e.g. "messages") Look at captured traffic - you will see that IE sends double PHPSESSID cookie (and you are logged out after click because of this). It seems like first PHPSESSID is from unisender.com and second from www.unisender.com. Captured sample: GET /en/letter_list HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/gif, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-application, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/x-ms-xbap, application/x-shockwave-flash, / Referer: http://www.unisender.com/en/intro Accept-Language: ru User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0; Trident/4.0; Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1) ; SLCC1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; FDM; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: www.unisender.com Connection: Keep-Alive Cookie: authchallenge=3a9cfcfc9fe33822e3e21d75c8a3d3e4; PHPSESSID=14ea1cb133632951592397c86eaf037e; us_reg_ref=unknown; us_reg_url=http%3A%2F%2Funisender.com%2F; __utma=1.778517853.1271204400.1271204400.1271204400.1; __utmb=1.3.10.1271204400; __utmc=1; __utmz=1.1271204400.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); PHPSESSID=65e110aeb995a66b9dc8da5656c7a3da; last_login_name=testmsdn I've tried to use session and non-session cookies, tried to use .unisender.com instead of unisender.com for cookie - nothing helps. I suppose there should not be cookies with same name. Am I right? Is it a bug in IE? If it's a bug then is there a workaround? Or am I wrong and it's an expected behavior?

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  • Self referencing a table

    - by mue
    Hello, so I'm new to NHibernate and have a problem. Perhaps somebody can help me here. Given a User-class with many, many properties: public class User { public virtual Int64 Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Firstname { get; set; } public virtual string Lastname { get; set; } public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string Email { get; set; } ... public virtual string Comment { get; set; } public virtual UserInfo LastModifiedBy { get; set; } } Here some DDL for the table: CREATE TABLE USERS ( "ID" BIGINT NOT NULL , "FIRSTNAME" VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL , "LASTNAME" VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL , "USERNAME" VARCHAR(128) NOT NULL , "EMAIL" VARCHAR(128) NOT NULL , ... "LASTMODIFIEDBY" BIGINT NOT NULL , ) IN "USERSPACE1" ; Database-table-field 'LASTMODIFIEDBY' holds for auditing purposes the Id from the User who is acting in case of inserts or updates. This would normally be an admin. Because the UI shall display not this Int64 but admins name (pattern like 'Lastname, Firstname') I need to retrieve these values by self referencing table USERS to itself. Next is, that a whole object of type User would be overkill by the amount of unwanted fields. So there is a class UserInfo with much smaller footprint. public class UserInfo { public Int64 Id { get; set; } public string Firstname { get; set; } public string Lastname { get; set; } public string FullnameReverse { get { return string.Format("{0}, {1}", Lastname ?? string.Empty, Firstname ?? string.Empty); } } } So here starts the problem. Actually I have no clue how to accomplish this task. Im not sure if I also must provide a mapping for class UserInfo and not only for class User. I'd like to integrate class UserInfo as Composite-element within the mapping for User-class. But I dont no how to define the mapping between USERS.ID and USERS.LASTMODIFIEDBY table-fields. Hopefully I decribes my problem clear enough to get some hints. Thanks alot!

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  • Rails controller not rendering correct view when form is force-submitted by Javascript

    - by whazzmaster
    I'm using Rails with jQuery, and I'm working on a page for a simple site that prints each record to a table. The only editable field for each record is a checkbox. My goal is that every time a checkbox is changed, an ajax request updates that boolean attribute for the record (i.e., no submit button). My view code: <td> <% form_remote_tag :url => admin_update_path, :html => { :id => "form#{lead.id}" } do %> <%= hidden_field :lead, :id, :value => lead.id %> <%= check_box :lead, :contacted, :id => "checkbox"+lead.id.to_s, :checked => lead.contacted, :onchange => "$('#form#{lead.id}').submit();" %> <% end %> </td> In my routes.rb, admin_update_path is defined by map.admin_update 'update', :controller => "admin", :action => "update", :method => :post I also have an RJS template to render back an update. The contents of this file is currently just for testing (I just wanted to see if it worked, this will not be the ultimate functionality on a successful save)... page << "$('#checkbox#{@lead.id}').hide();" When clicked, the ajax request is successfully sent, with the correct params, and the action on the controller can retrieve the record and update it just fine. The problem is that it doesn't send back the JS; it changes the page in the browser and renders the generated Javascript as plain text rather than executing it in-place. Rails does some behind-the-scenes stuff to figure out if the incoming request is an ajax call, and I can't figure out why it's interpreting the incoming request as a regular web request as opposed to an ajax request. I may be missing something extremely simple here, but I've kind-of burned myself out looking so I thought I'd ask for another pair of eyes. Thanks in advance for any info!

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  • How to reference a particular JSON in a function call.

    - by Jane Wilkie
    Hi guys! I have two javascript routines.. the first one declares some JSON and it contains a function that takes two arguments, the first argument being the json object that needs traversing and the second argument is the tab that the rendering is done in. The second routine merely passes the name of the JSON that needs traversing and tab to render in. The code is below.... <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> var arr = [ {"id":"10", "class":"child-of-9", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"11", "class":"child-of-10", "useless":"donotneed"}]; var arrtwo = [ {"id":"12", "class":"child-of-12", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"13", "class":"child-of-13", "useless":"donotneed"}]; function render_help(json,tab){ var html=''; for(var i=0;i<json.length;i++){ var obj = json[i]; for(var key in obj){ var attrName = key; var attrValue = obj[key]; if (attrName == "id"){ html = html +'<B>'+attrValue+'</B>'+'<BR><BR>'; }else if (attrName == "class"){ html = html + attrValue + '<BR><BR>'; } } } document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); } </script> <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> render_help(arr,"helptab"); </script> Various testing and strategically placed alert boxes indicate that the tab parameter is being passed and interpreted correctly. I know this because when I change .... document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); to document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=("Howdy"); and it renders "Howdy" just fine. Putting an alert box (alert(json)) in to check the value of json yields.... [object.Object],[object.Object] The JSON object remains elusive. For the purposes of this scripting I need the JSON "arr" to be iterated over. I feel like the answer is fairly obvious so far no luck. Admittedly I am new with Javascript and I am apparently missing something. Does anyone have a clue as to what I'm overlooking here? Happy New Year to you all! Janie

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  • jquery animation problem using stop

    - by Flanders
    Hi! When running a Jquery animation like slideDown(), it looks like a number of element-specific css properties is set to be updated at a specific interval and when the animation is complete these properties are unset and the display property is simply set to auto or whatever. At least in firebug you can't see those temporary properties any more. The problem I've encountered is the scenario where we stop the slide down with stop(). The element is then left with the current temporary css values. Which is fine because it has to, but let us say that I stoped the slidedown because I have decided to slide it back up again a bit prematurely. It would look something like this: $(this).slideDown(2000) //The below events is not in queue but will rather start execute almost simultaneously as the above line. (dont remember the exact syntax) $(this).delay(1000).stop().slideUp(2000) The above code might not make much sense, but the point is: After 1 second of sliding down the animation is stopped and it starts to slide back up. Works like a charm. BUT!!! And here is the problem. Once it it has slid back up the elements css properties are reset to the exact values it had 1000ms into the slideDown() animation (when stop() was called). If we now try to run the following: $(this).slideDown(2000) It will slide down to the very point the prior slideDown was aborted and not further at half the speed (since it uses the same time for approximately half the height). This is because the css properties were saved as I see it. But it is not especially wished for. Of course I want it to slide all the way down this time. Due to UI interaction that is hard to predict everything might soon break. The longer animations we use increases the risk of something like this happening. Is this to be considered a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Or maybe it's just a feature that is not supported? I guess I can use a callback function to reset the css properties, but depending on the animation used, different css properties are used to render it, and covering your back would result in quite a not-so-fancy solution.

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  • C#, cannot understand this error?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I am using VS2008. I have a project, SystemSoftware project, connect with a database and we are using L2E. I have a RuntimeInfo class which contains some shared information there. It looks like this: public class RuntimeInfo { public const int PWD_ExpireDays = 30; private static RuntimeInfo thisObj = new RuntimeInfo(); public static string AndeDBConnStr = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AndeDBEntities"].ConnectionString; private RuntimeInfo() { } /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <returns>Return this singleton object</returns> public static RuntimeInfo getRuntimeInfo() { return thisObj; } } Now I added a helper project, AndeDataViewer, to the solution which creates a simple UI to display data from the database for testing/verification purpose. I don't want to create another set of Entity Data Model in the helper project. I just added all related files as a link in the new helper project. In the AndeDataViewer project, I get the connection string from above RuntimeInfo class which is a class from my SystemSoftware project as a linked file. The code in AndeDataViewer is like this: public class DbAccess : IDisposable { private String connStr = String.Empty; public DbAccess() { connStr = RuntimeInfo.AndeDBConnStr; } } My SystemSoftware works fine that means the RuntimeInfo class has no problem there. But when I run my AndeDataViewer, the statement inside above constructor, connStr = RuntimeInfo.AndeDBConnStr; , throws an exception. The exception is copied here: System.TypeInitializationException was unhandled Message="The type initializer for 'MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo' threw an exception." Source="AndeDataViewer" TypeName="MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo" StackTrace: at AndeDataViewer.DbAccess..ctor() in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\Other\AndeDataViewer\AndeDataViewer\DbAccess.cs:line 17 at AndeDataViewer.Window1.rbRawData_Checked(Object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\Other\AndeDataViewer\AndeDataViewer\Window1.xaml.cs:line 69 at System.Windows.RoutedEventHandlerInfo.InvokeHandler(Object target, RoutedEventArgs routedEventArgs) .... InnerException: System.NullReferenceException Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="AndeDataViewer" StackTrace: at MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo..cctor() in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\SystemSoftware\src\systeminfo\RuntimeInfo.cs:line 24 InnerException: I cannot understand this because it looks fine to me but why there is an exception? we cannot access static variable when a class is a linked class? A linked class should be the same as the local class I think. "Linked" here means when I add file I use "Add As Link".

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  • Browsers (IE and Firefox) freeze when copying large amount of text

    - by Matt
    I have a web application - a Java servlet - that delivers data to users in the form of a text printout in a browser (text marked up with HTML in order to display in the browser as we want it to). The text does display in different colors, though most of it is black. One typical mode of operation is this: 1. User submits a form to request data. 2. Servlet delivers HTML file to browser. 3. User does CTRL+A to select all the text. 4. User does CTRL+C to copy all the text. 5. User goes to a text editor and does CTRL+V to paste the text. In the testing where I'm having this problem, step #2 successfully loads all the data - we wait for that to complete. We can scroll down to the end of what the browser loaded and see the end of the data. However, the browser freezes on step #3 (Firefox) or on step #4 (IE). Because step #2 finishes, I think it is a browser/memory issue, and not an issue with the web application. If I run queries to deliver smaller amounts of data (but after several queries we get the same data we would have above in one query) and copy/paste this text, the file I save it into ends up being about 8 MB. If I save the browser's displayed HTML to a file on my computer via File-Save As from the browser menu, it works fine and the file is about 22 MB. We've tried this on 2 different computers at work (both running Windows XP, with at least 2 GB of RAM and many GB of free disk space), using Firefox and IE. We also tried it on a home computer from a home network outside of work (thinking it might be our IT security software causing the problem), running Windows 7 using IE, and still had the problem. When I've done this, I can see whatever browser I'm using utilizing the CPU at 50%. Firefox's memory usage grows to about 1 GB; IE's stays in the several hundred MBs. We once let this run for half an hour, and it did not complete. I'm most likely going to modify the web app to have an option of delivering a plain text file for download, and I imagine that will get the users what they need. But for the mean time, and because I'm curious - and I don't like my application freezing people's browsers, does anyone have any ideas about the browser freezing? I understand that sometimes you just reach your memory limit, but 22 MB sounds to me like an amount I should be able to copy to the clipboard.

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  • SQL Design Question regarding schema and if Name value pair is the best solution

    - by Aur
    I am having a small problem trying to decide on database schema for a current project. I am by no means a DBA. The application parses through a file based on user input and enters that data in the database. The number of fields that can be parsed is between 1 and 42 at the current moment. The current design of the database is entirely flat with there being 42 columns; some have repeated columns such as address1, address2, address3, etc... This says that I should normalize the data. However, data integrity is not needed at this moment and the way the data is shaped I'm looking at several joins. Not a bad thing but the data is still in a 1 to 1 relationship and I still see a lot of empty fields per row. So my concerns are that this does not allow the database or the application to be very extendable. If they want to add more fields to be parsed (which they do) than I'd need to create another table and add another foreign key to the linking table. The third option is I have a table where the fields are defined and a table for each record. So what I was thinking is to make a table that stores the value and then links to those two tables. The problem is I can picture the size of that table growing large depending on the input size. If someone gives me a file with 300,000 records than 300,000 x 40 = 12 million so I have some reservations. However I think if I get to that point than I should be happy it is being used. This option also allows for more custom displaying of information albeit a bit more work but little rework even if you add more fields. So the problem boils down to: 1. Current design is a flat file which makes extending it hard and it is not normalized. 2. Normalize the tables although no real benefits for the moment but requirements change. 3. Normalize it down into the name value pair and hope size doesn't hurt. There are a large number of inserts, updates, and selects against that table. So performance is a worry but I believe the saying is design now, performance testing later? I'm probably just missing something practical so any comments would be appreciated even if it’s a quick sanity check. Thank you for your time.

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  • Custom CSS menu, "Active" tab remains on 'Home' not the actual page

    - by user1690254
    I created this custom css menu, but when switching tabs, the "Active" tab design remains on the 'Home' link on the menu, rather than the actual page I'm on. Any idea how I an fix this? Here's the code: .menu{margin:0 auto; padding:0; height:30px; width:100%; display:block; background:url('http://media.datahc.com/Affiliates/43817/Brands/Image/topmenuimages.png') repeat-x;} .menu li{padding:0; margin:0; list-style:none; display:inline;} .menu li a{float:left; padding-left:15px; display:block; color:rgb(255,255,255); text-decoration:none; font:12px Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; cursor:pointer; background:url('http://media.datahc.com/Affiliates/43817/Brands/Image/topmenuimages.png') 0px -30px no-repeat;} .menu li a span{line-height:30px; float:left; display:block; padding-right:15px; background:url('http://media.datahc.com/Affiliates/43817/Brands/Image/topmenuimages.png') 100% -30px no-repeat;} .menu li a:hover{background-position:0px -60px; color:rgb(255,255,255);} .menu li a:hover span{background-position:100% -60px;} .menu li a.active, .menu li a.active:hover{line-height:30px; font:12px Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; background:url('http://media.datahc.com/Affiliates/43817/Brands/Image/topmenuimages.png') 0px -90px no-repeat; color:rgb(255,255,255);} .menu li a.active span, .menu li a.active:hover span{background:url('http://media.datahc.com/Affiliates/43817/Brands/Image/topmenuimages.png') 100% -90px no-repeat;} <ul class="menu"> <li><a href="http://caribbeantl.com/"; class="active"><span>Home</span></a></li> <li><a href="http://caribbeantl.com/hotels/"><span>Testing post</span></a></li> </ul>

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  • asp.net mvc 2 multithread

    - by Chris Cap
    I'm getting some weird behavior in asp.net MVC2 (at least it's not what I'm expecting). I have a controller httppost action that processes credit cards. I'm setting a session variable on the server to let me know if a user has attempted to process a card. I clear that session variable when I'm done. I am doing some very quick posts to test the process and the session variable is coming back null everytime because I clear the session variable at the end of the process. I have some debug prints that show me that the all requests are processed synchronously. That is...the first attempt occurs, it fails, session variable is cleared, second attempt tries and fails and the variable is cleared, etc... My first thought was that this was a side effect of debugging and that it just lined requests up for debugging purposes using the local webserver. So I put it on a development server and the same thing is occurring. Multiple submits/posts are processed synchronously. I even put a System.Threading.Sleep in there to make sure it would stop right after I set the session variable and it still won't even START the second request until the first is done. Has anyone else seen this behavior? My understanding was that a worker process was spawned for each request and that these actions could happen asychronously. Here's some psuedo code if (Session["CardCharged"] != null) return RedirectToAction("Index", "Problem"); Session["CardCharged"] = false; //starting the process System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10000); //charge card here if (!providerResponse.IsApproved) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("failed"); Session["CardCharged"] = null; //have to allow them to charge again since this failed return View(myModel); } Session["CardCharged"] = true; return RedirectToAction("Index", "OrderComplete"); I should mention that my code ALWAYS fails the credit card check for testing purposes. I'm trying to test the situation where processing is STILL occurring and redirect the user elsewhere. I have set a dummy session variable elsewhere to assure that the session id "sticks". So I know the session id is the same for each request. Thanks

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  • Spring noHandlerFound

    - by Justin
    I am trying to set up my Spring MVC testing environment. But I always get this noHandlerFound error: Aug 21, 2014 4:43:25 PM org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/restful/firstPage] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring' Aug 21, 2014 4:47:21 PM org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/restful/firstPage2] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring' Aug 21, 2014 5:10:27 PM org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/restful/index.html] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring' I already searched for solution, but none can fix my problem. My spring mvc version: 3.1.3.RELEASE This is my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml </param-value> </context-param> this is my spring-servlet.xml: <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver" p:prefix="/WEB-INF/jsp/" p:suffix=".jsp" /> this is my applicationContext.xml: <context:annotation-config /> <context:component-scan base-package="test.spring" /> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:resources mapping="/index.html" location="/index.html" /> <mvc:view-controller path="/firstPage" /> This is my Controller: package test.spring; .... @Controller @RequestMapping("/") public class FirstController { @RequestMapping(value = "firstPage2", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String showFirstPage(Map<String,Object> model){ return "firstPage"; } } My server is tomcat 7, there is no error and warning when it is deployed. I also tried this with no luck: <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> Before I start Spring MVC, I can access index.html

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  • With custom binding for Masonry how would I resize the container appropriately

    - by BigDubb
    Based on the suggestion give here, and the information given here on how to make a custom bindingHandler for a forEach, I decided to attempt to write my own custom binding for a forEach and Masonry. Because the elements are added on the fly the redrawing and moving around of elements to fill the space doesn't occur. So, this functionality needed to be moved after the elements have been rendered or called after each item has been added. Here is my bindingHandler ko.bindingHandlers.masonry = { init: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor) { var $element = $(element), originalContent = $element.html(); $element.data("original-content", originalContent); //var msnry = new Masonry($element); return { controlsDescendantBindings: true } }, update: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor) { var value = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(valueAccessor()), //get the list of items items = value.items(), //get a jQuery reference to the element $element = $(element), //get the current content of the element elementContent = $element.data("original-content"); $element.html(""); var container = $element[0]; var msnry = new Masonry(container); for (var index = 0; index < items.length; index++) { (function () { //get the list of items var item = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(items[index]), $childElement = $(elementContent); ko.applyBindings(item, $childElement[0]); //add the child to the parent $element.append($childElement); msnry.appended($childElement[0]); })(); msnry.layout(); msnry.bindResize(); } } }; and the HTML implementing the handler. <div id="criteriaContainer" data-bind="masonry: { items: SearchItems.Items }"> <div class="searchCriterion control-group"> <label class="control-label" data-bind="text: Description"></label> <div class="controls"> <input type="hidden" data-bind="value: Value, select2: { minimumInputLength: 3, queryUri: SearchUri(), placeholder: Placeholder(), allowClear: true }" style="width: 450px"> </div> <p data-bind="text: Value"></p> </div> </div> When this shows up on the page It stacks all if the elements rendered via the append method right on top of each other. You can see in my bindingHandler I am calling bindResize as well as layout(), neither of which seem to be having any effect. Here's a screenshot of what it looks like in the UI.

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  • h:selectOneMenu not populating a 'selected' item

    - by dann.dev
    I'm having trouble with an h:selectOneMenu not having a selected item when there is already something set on the backing bean. I am using seam and have specified a customer converter. When working on my 'creation' page, everything works fine, something from the menu can be selected, and when the page is submitted, the correct value is assigned and persisted to the database as well. However when I work on my 'edit' page the menu's default selection is not the current selection. i have gone through and confirmed that something is definitely set etc. My selectOneMenu looks like this: <h:selectOneMenu id="selVariable" value="#{customer.variableLookup}" converter="#{variableLookupConverter}"> <s:selectItems var="source" value="#{customerReferenceHelper.variableLookups()}" label="#{source.name}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> And the converter is below. It very simple and just turns the id from string to int and back etc: @Name( "sourceOfWealthLookupConverter" ) public class SourceOfWealthLookupConverter implements Serializable, Converter { @In private CustomerReferenceHelper customerReferenceHelper; @Override public Object getAsObject( FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2 ) { VariableLookup variable= null; try { if ( "org.jboss.seam.ui.NoSelectionConverter.noSelectionValue".equals( arg2 ) ) { return null; } CustomerReferenceHelper customerReferenceHelper = ( CustomerReferenceHelper ) Contexts.getApplicationContext().get( "customerReferenceHelper" ); Integer id = Integer.parseInt( arg2 ); source = customerReferenceHelper.getVariable( id ); } catch ( NumberFormatException e ) { log.error( e, e ); } return variable; } @Override public String getAsString( FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, Object arg2 ) { String result = null; VariableLookup variable= ( VariableLookup ) arg2; Integer id = variable.getId(); result = String.valueOf( id ); return result; } } I've seen a few things about it possibly being the equals() method on the class, (that doesn't add up with everything else working, but I overrode it anyway as below, where the hashcode is just the id (id is a unique identifier for each item). Equals method: @Override public boolean equals( Object other ) { if ( other == null ) { return false; } if ( this == other ) { return true; } if ( !( other instanceof VariableLookup ) ) { return false; } VariableLookup otherVariable = ( VariableLookup ) other; if ( this.hashCode() == otherVariable.hashCode() ) { return true; } return false; } I'm at my wits end with this, I can't find what I could have missed?! Any help would be much appreciated

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  • In .NET Xml Serialization, is it possible to serialize a class with an enum property with different

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a class, containing a list property, where the list contains objects that has an enum property. When I serialize this, it looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <test-event type="changing" /> <test-event type="changed" /> </events> </test> Is it possible, through attributes, or similar, to get the Xml to look like this? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <changing /> <changed /> </events> </test> Basically, use the property value of the enum as a way to determine the tag-name? Is using a class hierarchy (ie. creating subclasses instead of using the property value) the only way? Edit: After testing, it seems even a class-hierarchy won't actually work. If there is a way to structure the classes to get the output I want, even with sub-classes, that is also an acceptable answer. Here's a sample program that will output the above Xml (remember to hit Ctrl+F5 to run in Visual Studio, otherwise the program window will close immediately): using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; namespace ConsoleApplication18 { public enum TestEventTypes { [XmlEnum("changing")] Changing, [XmlEnum("changed")] Changed } [XmlType("test-event")] public class TestEvent { [XmlAttribute("type")] public TestEventTypes Type { get; set; } } [XmlType("test")] public class Test { private List<TestEvent> _Events = new List<TestEvent>(); [XmlArray("events")] public List<TestEvent> Events { get { return _Events; } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Test test = new Test(); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changing }); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changed }); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Test)); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); serializer.Serialize(Console.Out, test, ns); } } }

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  • Is it thread safe to read a form controls value (but not change it) without using Invoke/BeginInvoke from another thread

    - by goku_da_master
    I know you can read a gui control from a worker thread without using Invoke/BeginInvoke because my app is doing it now. The cross thread exception error is not being thrown and my System.Timers.Timer thread is able to read gui control values just fine (unlike this guy: can a worker thread read a control in the GUI?) Question 1: Given the cardinal rule of threads, should I be using Invoke/BeginInvoke to read form control values? And does this make it more thread-safe? The background to this question stems from a problem my app is having. It seems to randomly corrupt form controls another thread is referencing. (see question 2) Question 2: I have a second thread that needs to update form control values so I Invoke/BeginInvoke to update those values. Well this same thread needs a reference to those controls so it can update them. It holds a list of these controls (say DataGridViewRow objects). Sometimes (not always), the DataGridViewRow reference gets "corrupt". What I mean by corrupt, is the reference is still valid, but some of the DataGridViewRow properties are null (ex: row.Cells). Is this caused by question 1 or can you give me any tips on why this might be happening? Here's some code (the last line has the problem): public partial class MyForm : Form { void Timer_Elapsed(object sender) { // we're on a new thread (this function gets called every few seconds) UpdateUiHelper updateUiHelper = new UpdateUiHelper(this); foreach (DataGridViewRow row in dataGridView1.Rows) { object[] values = GetValuesFromDb(); updateUiHelper.UpdateRowValues(row, values[0]); } // .. do other work here updateUiHelper.UpdateUi(); } } public class UpdateUiHelper { private readonly Form _form; private Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object> _rows; private delegate void RowDelegate(DataGridViewRow row); private readonly object _lockObject = new object(); public UpdateUiHelper(Form form) { _form = form; _rows = new Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object>(); } public void UpdateRowValues(DataGridViewRow row, object value) { if (_rows.ContainsKey(row)) _rows[row] = value; else { lock (_lockObject) { _rows.Add(row, value); } } } public void UpdateUi() { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in _rows.Keys) { SetRowValueThreadSafe(row); } } private void SetRowValueThreadSafe(DataGridViewRow row) { if (_form.InvokeRequired) { _form.Invoke(new RowDelegate(SetRowValueThreadSafe), new object[] { row }); return; } // now we're on the UI thread object newValue = _rows[row]; row.Cells[0].Value = newValue; // randomly errors here with NullReferenceException, but row is never null! }

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  • jQuery image loop not displaying any images

    - by user1871097
    I'm trying to create a very basic image gallery in jQuery. The goal is to have 3 images fade in and out in a sequential order. So image 1 is displayed, fades to image 2 etc. then the whole thing loops again. My HTML code so far is as follows: <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Slider</title> <style type="text/css"> .slider{ width: 2848px; height: 2136px; overflow: hidden; margin: 30px auto; } .slider img{ width:2848px; height:2136px; display:none; } </style> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.9.2/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="Slider2.js"></script> </head> <body onload="Slider2"();> <div class="slider"> <img id="1" src="31.jpg" border="0" alt="city"/> <img id="2" src="2vrtigo2.jpg" border="0" alt="roof"/> <img id="3" src="3.jpg" border="0" alt="sea"/> </div> </body> And the jQuery code looks like this: function Slider2() { var total = $(".slider img").size(); for (i=1; i<=total; i+=1) { $(".slider #"+i).fadeIn(600); $(".slider #"+i).delay(2000).hide; }} A quick syntactical note, I've also tried using i++ in the last argument of the For Loop. The result of this code is a blank, white page. I know some of the HTML is being compiled because the enormous 2848x2136 div creates scroll bars on the browser. If anyone could help me out, that would be greatly appreciated. Obviously I'm relatively new to web programming and would love some insight into why this isn't working. Thanks!

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  • Updating table from async task android

    - by CantChooseUsernames
    I'm following this tutorial: http://huuah.com/android-progress-bar-and-thread-updating/ to learn how to make progress bars. I'm trying to show the progress bar on top of my activity and have it update the activity's table view in the background. So I created an async task for the dialog that takes a callback: package com.lib.bookworm; import android.app.ProgressDialog; import android.content.Context; import android.os.AsyncTask; public class UIThreadProgress extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { private UIThreadCallback callback = null; private ProgressDialog dialog = null; private int maxValue = 100, incAmount = 1; private Context context = null; public UIThreadProgress(Context context, UIThreadCallback callback) { this.context = context; this.callback = callback; } @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... args) { while(this.callback.condition()) { this.callback.run(); this.publishProgress(); } return null; } @Override protected void onProgressUpdate(Void... values) { super.onProgressUpdate(values); dialog.incrementProgressBy(incAmount); }; @Override protected void onPreExecute() { super.onPreExecute(); dialog = new ProgressDialog(context); dialog.setCancelable(true); dialog.setMessage("Loading..."); dialog.setProgress(0); dialog.setProgressStyle(ProgressDialog.STYLE_HORIZONTAL); dialog.setMax(maxValue); dialog.show(); } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result) { super.onPostExecute(result); if (this.dialog.isShowing()) { this.dialog.dismiss(); } this.callback.onThreadFinish(); } } And in my activity, I do: final String page = htmlPage.substring(start, end).trim(); //Create new instance of the AsyncTask.. new UIThreadProgress(this, new UIThreadCallback() { @Override public void run() { row_id = makeTableRow(row_id, layout, params, matcher); //ADD a row to the table layout. } @Override public void onThreadFinish() { System.out.println("FINISHED!!"); } @Override public boolean condition() { return matcher.find(); } }).execute(); So the above creates an async task to run to update a table layout activity while showing the progress bar that displays how much work has been done.. However, I get an error saying that only the thread that started the activity can update its views. I tried doing: MainActivity.this.runOnUiThread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { row_id = makeTableRow(row_id, layout, params, matcher); //ADD a row to the table layout. } } But this gives me synchronization errors.. Any ideas how I can display progress and at the same time update my table in the background? Currently my UI looks like:

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  • IntentService android download and return file to Activity

    - by Andrew G
    I have a fairly tricky situation that I'm trying to determine the best design for. The basics are this: I'm designing a messaging system with a similar interface to email. When a user clicks a message that has an attachment, an activity is spawned that shows the text of that message along with a paper clip signaling that there is an additional attachment. At this point, I begin preloading the attachment so that when the user clicks on it - it loads more quickly. currently, when the user clicks the attachment, it prompts with a loading dialog until the download is complete at which point it loads a separate attachment viewer activity, passing in the bmp byte array. I don't ever want to save attachments to persistent storage. The difficulty I have is in supporting rotation as well as home button presses etc. The download is currently done with a thread and handler setup. Instead of this, I'd like the flow to be the following: User loads message as before, preloading begins of attachment as before (invisible to user). When the user clicks on the attachment link, the attachment viewer activity is spawned right away. If the download was done, the image is displayed. If not, a dialog is shown in THIS activity until it is done and can be displayed. Note that ideally the download never restarts or else I've wasted cycles on the preload. Obviously I need some persistent background process that is able to keep downloading and is able to call back to arbitrarily bonded Activities. It seems like the IntentService almost fits my needs as it does its work in a background thread and has the Service (non UI) lifecycle. However, will it work for my other needs? I notice that common implementations for what I want to do get a Messenger from the caller Activity so that a Message object can be sent back to a Handler in the caller's thread. This is all well and good but what happens in my case when the caller Activity is Stopped or Destroyed and the currently active Activity (the attachment viewer) is showing? Is there some way to dynamically bind a new Activity to a running IntentService so that I can send a Message back to the new Activity? The other question is on the Message object. Can I send arbitrarily large data back in this package? For instance, rather than send back that "The file was downloaded", I need to send back the byte array of the downloaded file itself since I never want to write it to disk (and yes this needs to be the case). Any advice on achieving the behavior I want is greatly appreciated. I've not been working with Android for that long and I often get confused with how to best handle asynchronous processes over the course of the Activity lifecycle especially when it comes to orientation changes and home button presses...

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  • Update View at runtime in Android

    - by seretur
    The example is pretty straightforward: i want to let the user know about what the app is doing by just showing a text (canvas.drawText()). Then, my first message appears, but not the other ones. I mean, i have a "setText" method but it doesn't updates. onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); setContentView(splash); // splash is the view class loadResources(); splash.setText("this"); boundWebService(); splash.setText("that"): etc(); splash.setText("so on"); } The view's text drawing works by doing just a drawText in onDraw();, so setText changes the text but doesn't show it. Someone recommended me replacing the view with a SurfaceView, but it would be alot of trouble for just a couple of updates, SO... how the heck can i update the view dinamically at runtime? It should be quite simple, just showing a text for say 2 seconds and then the main thread doing his stuff and then updating the text... Thanks! Update: I tried implementing handler.onPost(), but is the same story all over again. Let me put you the code: package coda.tvt; import android.app.Activity; import android.graphics.Canvas; import android.graphics.Paint; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.TextView; import android.widget.Toast; public class ThreadViewTestActivity extends Activity { Thread t; Splash splash; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); splash = new Splash(this); t = new Thread(splash); t.start(); splash.setTextow("OA"); try { Thread.sleep(4000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } splash.setTextow("LALA"); } } And: public class Splash implements Runnable { Activity activity; final Handler myHandler = new Handler(); public Splash(Activity activity) { this.activity=activity; } @Override public void run() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public synchronized void setTextow(final String textow) { // Wrap DownloadTask into another Runnable to track the statistics myHandler.post(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { TextView t = (TextView)activity.findViewById(R.id.testo); t.setText(textow); t.invalidate(); } }); } } Although splash is in other thread, i put a sleep on the main thread, i use the handler to manage UI and everything, it doesn't changes a thing, it only shows the last update.

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  • why my test performance class gives me inconsistent results even after proper warm-up?

    - by colinfang
    i made a class which helps me measure time for any methods in Ticks. Basically, it runs testing method 100x, and force GC, then it records time taken for another 100x method runs. x64 release ctrl+f5 VS2012/VS2010 the results are following: 2,914 2,909 2,913 2,909 2,908 2,907 2,909 2,998 2,976 2,855 2,446 2,415 2,435 2,401 2,402 2,402 2,399 2,401 2,401 2,400 2,399 2,400 2,404 2,402 2,401 2,399 2,400 2,402 2,404 2,403 2,401 2,403 2,401 2,400 2,399 2,414 2,405 2,401 2,407 2,399 2,401 2,402 2,401 2,404 2,401 2,404 2,405 2,368 1,577 1,579 1,626 1,578 1,576 1,578 1,577 1,577 1,576 1,578 1,576 1,578 1,577 1,578 1,576 1,578 1,577 1,579 1,585 1,576 1,579 1,577 1,579 1,578 1,579 1,577 1,578 1,577 1,578 1,576 1,578 1,577 1,578 1,599 1,579 1,578 1,582 1,576 1,578 1,576 1,579 1,577 1,578 1,577 1,591 1,577 1,578 1,578 1,576 1,578 1,576 1,578 As you can see there are 3 phases, first is ~2,900, second is ~2,400, then ~1,550 What might be the reason to cause it? the test performance class code follows: public static void RunTests(Func<long> myTest) { const int numTrials = 100; Stopwatch sw = new Stopwatch(); double[] sample = new double[numTrials]; Console.WriteLine("Checksum is {0:N0}", myTest()); sw.Start(); myTest(); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("Estimated time per test is {0:N0} ticks\n", sw.ElapsedTicks); for (int i = 0; i < numTrials; i++) { myTest(); } GC.Collect(); string testName = myTest.Method.Name; Console.WriteLine("----> Starting benchmark {0}\n", myTest.Method.Name); for (int i = 0; i < numTrials; i++) { sw.Restart(); myTest(); sw.Stop(); sample[i] = sw.ElapsedTicks; } double testResult = DataSetAnalysis.Report(sample); for (int j = 0; j < numTrials; j = j + 5) Console.WriteLine("{0,8:N0} {1,8:N0} {2,8:N0} {3,8:N0} {4,8:N0}", sample[j], sample[j + 1], sample[j + 2], sample[j + 3], sample[j + 4]); Console.WriteLine("\n----> End of benchmark"); }

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  • Command prompt in debug mode for Eclipse? (OpenCV + Eclipse + Win7)

    - by Tony
    I am a beginner for Eclipse. I now have Eclipse C/C++ IDE with OpenCV library running on Windows 7. So far it works after spending hours trying to get it running. But then I realize that Eclipse does not pop up a command prompt as VS2010 does while debugging. And moreover Eclipse's debug mode is just stuck in there and refuse to output anything. But if the code doesn't involve the OpenCV things it works again. Below is the code I use for testing. It captures images from webcam and output it to the screen. The infinite loop (until you press 'q') makes sure it constantly grabs new inputs from the camera. I browsed through the workspace and run the exe just compiled and it worked flawlessly. So I don't think there's anything wrong in the code (it's an example code anyway In brief, can I just pop up a command prompt window in debug mode? And why is Eclipse console stuck when the code involves some OpenCV functions? #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <tchar.h> #include <cv.h> #include <cxcore.h> #include <highgui.h> #include <iostream> int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { CvCapture *capture = 0; IplImage *frame = 0; int key = 0; /* initialize camera */ capture = cvCaptureFromCAM( 0 ); /* always check */ if ( !capture ) { printf("Cannot open initialize webcam!\n"); return 1; } /* create a window for the video */ cvNamedWindow( "result", CV_WINDOW_AUTOSIZE ); while( key != 'q' ) { /* get a frame */ frame = cvQueryFrame( capture ); /* always check */ if( !frame ) break; /* display current frame */ cvShowImage( "result", frame ); /* exit if user press 'q' */ key = cvWaitKey( 1 ); } /* free memory */ cvDestroyWindow( "result" ); cvReleaseCapture( &capture ); return 0; }

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  • PHP array performance

    - by dfo
    Hi, this is my first question on Stackoverflow, please bear with me. I'm testing an algorithm for 2d bin packing and I've chosen PHP to mock it up as it's my bread-and-butter language nowadays. As you can see on http://themworks.com/pack_v0.2/oopack.php?ol=1 it works pretty well, but you need to wait around 10-20 seconds for 100 rectangles to pack. For some hard to handle sets it would hit the php's 30s runtime limit. I did some profiling and it shows that most of the time my script goes through different parts of a small 2d array with 0's and 1's in it. It either checks if certain cell equals to 0/1 or sets it to 0/1. It can do such operations million times and each times it takes few microseconds. I guess I could use an array of booleans in a statically typed language and things would be faster. Or even make an array of 1 bit values. I'm thinking of converting the whole thing to some compiled language. Is PHP just not good for it? If I do need to convert it to let's say C++, how good are the automatic converters? My script is just a lot of for loops with basic arrays and objects manipulations. Thank you! Edit. This function gets called more than any other. It reads few properties of a very simple object, and goes through a very small part of a smallish array to check if there's any element not equal to 0. function fits($bin, $file, $x, $y) { $flag = true; $xw = $x + $file->get_width();; $yh = $y + $file->get_height(); for ($i = $x; $i < $xw; $i++) { for ($j = $y; $j < $yh; $j++) { if ($bin[$i][$j] !== 0) { $flag = false; break; } } if (!$flag) break; } return $flag; }

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  • WPF/INotifyPropertyChanged, change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC should change automatically?

    - by user1033098
    I supposed, once i change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC would change automatically, since i have implemented INotifyPropertyChanged for ValueA. But they were not updated on UI. txtB was always 100, and txtC was always -50. I don't know what's the reason. My Xaml.. <Window x:Class="WpfApplicationReviewDemo.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <TextBox Name="txtA" Text="{Binding ValueA}" /> <TextBox Name="txtB" Text="{Binding ValueB}" /> <TextBox Name="txtC" Text="{Binding ValueC}" /> </StackPanel> </Window> My code behind... public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new Model(); } } public class Model : INotifyPropertyChanged { private decimal valueA; public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); } } private decimal valueB; public decimal ValueB { get { valueB = ValueA + 100; return valueB; } set { valueB = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); } } private decimal valueC; public decimal ValueC { get { valueC = ValueA - 50; return valueC; } set { valueC = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } After i add code to the set method of ValueA property, it works. public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } But I supposed it should be automatically refresh/updated for txtB and txtC. Please advise.

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