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  • How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

    - by Paul Lalonde
    I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

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  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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  • CreateDelegate with unknown types

    - by Giorgi
    Hello, I am trying to create Delegate for reading/writing properties of unknown type of class at runtime. I have a generic class Main<T> and a method which looks like this: Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T, object>), get) where get is a MethodInfo of the property that should be read. The problem is that when the property returns int (I guess this happens for value types) the above code throws ArgumentException because the method cannot be bound. In case of string it works well. To solve the problem I changed the code so that corresponding Delegate type is generated by using MakeGenericType. So now the code is: Type func = typeof(Func<,>); Type generic = func.MakeGenericType(typeof(T), get.ReturnType); var result = Delegate.CreateDelegate(generic, get) The problem now is that the created delegate instance of generic so I have to use DynamicInvoke which would be as slow as using pure reflection to read the field. So my question is why is that the first snippet of code fails with value types. According to MSDN it should work as it says that The return type of a delegate is compatible with the return type of a method if the return type of the method is more restrictive than the return type of the delegate and how to execute the delegate in the second snippet so that it is faster than reflection. Thanks.

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  • Javascript: Whitespace Characters being Removed in Chrome (but not Firefox)

    - by Matrym
    Why would the below eliminate the whitespace around matched keyword text when replacing it with an anchor link? Note, this error only occurs in Chrome, and not firefox. For complete context, the file is located at: http://seox.org/lbp/lb-core.js To view the code in action (no errors found yet), the demo page is at http://seox.org/test.html. Copy/Pasting the first paragraph into a rich text editor (ie: dreamweaver, or gmail with rich text editor turned on) will reveal the problem, with words bunched together. Pasting it into a plain text editor will not. // Find page text (not in links) -> doxdesk.com function findPlainTextExceptInLinks(element, substring, callback) { for (var childi= element.childNodes.length; childi-->0;) { var child= element.childNodes[childi]; if (child.nodeType===1) { if (child.tagName.toLowerCase()!=='a') findPlainTextExceptInLinks(child, substring, callback); } else if (child.nodeType===3) { var index= child.data.length; while (true) { index= child.data.lastIndexOf(substring, index); if (index===-1 || limit.indexOf(substring.toLowerCase()) !== -1) break; // don't match an alphanumeric char var dontMatch =/\w/; if(child.nodeValue.charAt(index - 1).match(dontMatch) || child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length).match(dontMatch)) break; // alert(child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length + 1)); callback.call(window, child, index) } } } } // Linkup function, call with various type cases (below) function linkup(node, index) { node.splitText(index+keyword.length); var a= document.createElement('a'); a.href= linkUrl; a.appendChild(node.splitText(index)); node.parentNode.insertBefore(a, node.nextSibling); limit.push(keyword.toLowerCase()); // Add the keyword to memory urlMemory.push(linkUrl); // Add the url to memory } // lower case (already applied) findPlainTextExceptInLinks(lbp.vrs.holder, keyword, linkup); Thanks in advance for your help. I'm nearly ready to launch the script, and will gladly comment in kudos to you for your assistance.

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  • How to get rid of the GUI access from shared library.

    - by Inso Reiges
    Hello, In my project i have a shared library with cross-platform code that provides a very convenient abstraction for a number of its clients. To be more specific, this library provides data access to encrypted files generated by main application on a number of platforms. There is a great deal of complicated code there that implements cryptographic protocols and as such is very error-prone and should be shared as much as possible across clients and platforms. However parsing all this encrypted stuff requires asking user for a number of different secrets ones in a while. The secret can be either a password, a number of shared passwords or a public key file and this list is a hot target for extension in the future. I can't really ask the user for any of those secrets beforehand from main application, because i really don't know what i need to ask for until i start working with the encrypted data directly in the library code. So i will have to create dialogs and call them from the library code. However i really see this as a bad idea, because (among other things) there is a possibility of a windows service using it and services can't have GUI access. The question is, are there any known ways or patterns to get rid of the GUI calls that are suitable for my case? Thank you.

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  • .NET 4: Process.Start using credentials returns empty output

    - by alexey
    I run an external program from ASP.NET: var process = new Process(); var startInfo = process.StartInfo; startInfo.FileName = filePath; startInfo.Arguments = arguments; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; startInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; startInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); process.WaitForExit(); Console.Write("Output: {0}", process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd()); Console.Write("Error Output: {0}", process.StandardError.ReadToEnd()); Everything works fine with this code: the external program is executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns the correct output. But after I add these two lines before process.Start() (to run the program in the context of another user account): startInfo.UserName = userName; startInfo.Password = securePassword; The program is not executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns an empty string. No exceptions are thrown. userName and securePassword are correct (in case of incorrect credentials an exception is thrown). How to run the program in the context of another user account?

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  • Can addition of an ActionListener be short? Can I add arguments to the actionPerformed?

    - by Roman
    I have a big table containing a button in each cell. These buttons are very similar and do almost the same. If I add an action listener to every button in this way: tmp.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { proposition = proposition + action; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { updatePropositionPanel(); } }); } }); Actually, every action listener differ from all others by the value of the action. proposition and updatePropositionPanel are a field and a method of the class. First i thought that I can make it shorter if I do not use inner classes. So, I decided to program a new ActionListener class. But than I realized that in this case "proposition" will not be visible to the instances of this class. Then I decided to add the actionPerformed method to the current class and do that: addActionListener(this). But than I realized that I do not know how give arguments to the actionPerformed method. So, how does it work. Can I add an action listener in a short and elegent way?

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  • Can't seem to load a webview from xml, why?

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm trying to follow the tutorial from http://rapidandroid.org/wiki/Graphing. But I found a problem just in the first part of it. I'll describe the problem here, I just cannot understand how this could be wrong, it's pretty simple stuff. What am I doing wrong here? First I created a xml file called statistics.xml, in it among other things I put this code: <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent"/> Now in the activity that is supposed to display this webview I'm doing this: public class DisplayStatistics extends Activity { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView wv = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); The problem arises here, as I seem to be getting null for wv whenever I test for it. Which means of course that findViewById(R.id.webview) couldn't find the view. But again, what am I doing wrong?? Of course I know I could also instantiate the webview directly from code without the need to specify it from the xml, but I was just wondering what was wrong about this way of doing it. Just in case I also added the following line in my android manifest file: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> I'm not really sure if it's necessary for displaying the webview (I think not) but I just put it there to see if that was the problem, and it turned out it isn't. Thanks Nelson

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  • Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

    - by morpheous
    I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • how to access control in templatefield gridview with custom id

    - by Mohsen.Tavoosi
    i have a customized gridview.my grid is able to sort for each column just by 1 click in the header without any setting and overloading methods such as sorting,etc by user(programmer).(i do this successfully and work fine) users(programmers) maybe add each column in grid.such as template field,hyperlinkfield,boundfield... . for sorting, i must access datafield of columns. i can access boundfield column by this code.i can access datafield and header text and ... sample: for (int j = 0; j < this.Columns.Count; j++) { BoundField bf; bf = this.Columns[j] as BoundField; if (bf != null) { string ht = bf.HeaderText; string df = bf.DataField; } } but i can access control in the templateField.such as ColumnBound. sample: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Name") %>'></asp:Label> i want access "Name" (Bind ("Name") or Eval ("Name")) . how can i? there is a point: i dont now what is the ID (in this case "Label1") of control in templatefield. special thanks

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  • How to solve timing problems in automated UI tests with C# and Visual Studio?

    - by Lernkurve
    Question What is the standard approach to solve timing problems in automated UI tests? Concrete example I am using Visual Studio 2010 and Team Foundation Server 2010 to create automated UI tests and want to check whether my application has really stopped running: [TestMethod] public void MyTestMethod() { Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App shouldn't be running, but is."); StartMyApp(); Assert.IsTrue(IsMyAppRunning(), "App should have been started and should be running now."); StopMyApp(); //Pause(500); Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App was stopped and shouldn't be running anymore."); } private bool IsMyAppRunning() { foreach (Process runningProcesse in Process.GetProcesses()) { if (runningProcesse.ProcessName.Equals("Myapp")) { return true; } } return false; } private void Pause(int pauseTimeInMilliseconds) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pauseTimeInMilliseconds); } StartMyApp() and StopMyApp() have been recorded with MS Test Manager 2010 and reside in UIMap.uitest. The last assert fails because the assertion is executed while my application is still in the process of shutting down. If I put a delay after StopApp() the test case passes. The above is just an example to explain my problem. What is the standard approach to solve these kinds of timing issues? One idea would be to wait with the assertion until I get some event notification that my app has been stopped.

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • Query on object id in VQL

    - by Banang
    I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

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  • Slow Databinding setup time in C# .NET 4.0

    - by Svisstack
    Hello, I have got a problem. I have windows forms application with dynamic generated layout, but i have a problem in performance. In this form i use DataBinding from .NET 4.0 and databinding after setup works fine, but he binding setup time for ONE control blocking my application on approx 0.7 second. I have some controls and time of binging setuping is around 2 minutes. I trying all possible solutions, I dont have any ideas without write self binding class. Why is wrong with my code? case "Boolean": { Binding b = new Binding("Checked", __bindingsource, __ep.Name); CheckBox cb = new CheckBox(); /* * HERE is the problem */ cb.DataBindings.Add(b); /* * HERE is the end of problem */ __flp.Controls.Add(cb); __bindingcontrol.AddBinding(b); break; } Without problem code lines all works fast and without binding ;-( but i want binding turn on in normal speed. PS1. I have suspended layout in generation time. PS2. I have same problem with binding TextBox'es, PictureBoxe's, CheckBox is only example. How to do that?

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • Best way for launching html/jsp to communicate with GWT module

    - by h2g2java
    I asked this at the GWT forum but I'm impatient for the answer and I seem to get rather good responses here. A html or jsp file is used to launch the xxx.nocache.js, which then decides which browser "permutation" to use. <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>xxx</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="xxx.nocache.js"></script> </head> In my case, I am using a jsp. When the JSP is executed, it discovers some conditions. I wish to pass these conditions as values to the GWT module being launched. The "elegant" GWT way to pass these values would be to persist them as request/memcache attributes and then have the GWT module perform RPC to retrieve those values. For example, the JSP discovers that the current user is Whoopy. Shouldn't I simply have the JSP generate javascript to store user = "Whoopy" as a top or namedframe level javascript variable and use JSNI within the module to retrieve the value for user? I have not tried it yet, but I would like to know how anyone might have done it without having to use RPC.

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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  • .NET RegEx - First N chars of First M lines

    - by George
    Hello! I want 4 general RegEx expressions for the following 4 basic cases: Up to A chars starting after B chars from start of line on up to C lines starting after D lines from start of file Up to A chars starting after B chars from start of line on up to C lines occurring before D lines from end of file Up to A chars starting before B chars from end of line on up to C lines starting after D lines from start of file Up to A chars starting before B chars from end of line on up to C lines starting before D lines from end of file These would allow to select arbitrary text blocks anywhere in the file. So far I have managed to come up with cases that only work for lines and chars separately: (?<=(?m:^[^\r]{N}))[^\r]{1,M} = UP TO M chars OF EVERY LINE, AFTER FIRST N chars [^\r]{1,M}(?=(?m:.{N}\r$)) = UP TO M chars OF EVERY LINE, BEFORE LAST N chars The above 2 expressions are for chars, and they return MANY matches (one for each line). (?<=(\A([^\r]*\r\n){N}))(?m:\n*[^\r]*\r$){1,M} = UP TO M lines AFTER FIRST N lines (((?=\r?)\n[^\r]*\r)|((?=\r?)\n[^\r]+\r?)){1,M}(?=((\n[^\r]*\r)|(\n[^\r]+\r?)){N}\Z) = UP TO M lines BEFORE LAST N lines from end These 2 expressions are equivalents for the lines, but they always return just ONE match. The task is to combine these expressions to allow for scenarios 1-4. Anyone can help? Note that the case in the title of the question, is just a subclass of scenario #1, where both B = 0 and D = 0. EXAMPLE: SOURCE: line1 blah 1 line2 blah 2 line3 blah 3 line4 blah 4 line5 blah 5 line6 blah 6 DESIRED RESULT: Characters 3-6 of lines 3-5: A total of 3 matches: <match>ne3 </match> <match>ne4 </match> <match>ne5 </match>

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  • Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

    - by manu08
    I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • .NET: Allow NULLS in DB fields?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I have the task of re-factoring an SQLServer DB.... A lot of the tables and columns "ALLOW NULLS", Is this good practice... I seem to remember the authour of CSLA.NET saying it was really bad practice to allow nulls in a DB... If this is the case, what are my alternatives? Remove all "ALLOW NULLS" from all columns.... and in numeric columns use a value of -1 for example?? I would really appreciate any input anyone has. I am currently using a Model (from entity framework) from my DB and the db columns that "ALLOW NULLS" are null ... and some of the stored procedures require that i have a default value... i.e. BOOLEAN require FALSE as default ... but it is null.. Well i don't want to stray from my original question, ALLOW NULLS are a bad thing from what i can gather .... so how do i fix this ? Any help really appreciated

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  • jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

    - by Fred Kafka
    I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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  • How to remove the error "Cant find PInvoke DLL SQLite.interop.dll"

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing windows mobile application. I am using the SQLlite database. I am using the following code to connect to this database as follows SQLiteConnection cn = new SQLiteConnection(); SQLiteDataReader SQLiteDR; cn.ConnectionString = @"Data Source=F:\CompNetDB.db3"; cn.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "select * from CustomerInfo"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Connection = cn; SQLiteDR = cmd.ExecuteReader(); In the above case I am getting the error "Cant find PInvike DLL SQLite.interop.dll". I have added the DLL System.Data.SQLLite from the \SQLite.NET\bin\compactframework this folder. This is the folder which is installed by default when I installed the SQLite. In the same folder there is one DLL file named SQLlite.Interop.66.DLL. When I try to add reference to this dll it is giving error that dll can not be added. Are the two dlls SQLlite.Interop.dll & System.Interop.066.dll same ? In the above code how to solve the error "Cant find PInvoke.SQLite.Interop.dll" Please can you tell whether there is mistake in my code or I am missing something in my application?

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  • Simulating O_NOFOLLOW (2): Is this other approach safe?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    As a follow-up question to this one, I thought of another approach which builds off of @caf's answer for the case where I want to append to file name and create it if it does not exist. Here is what I came up with: Create a temporary directory with mode 0700 in a system temporary directory on the same filesystem as file name. Create an empty, temporary, regular file (temp_name) in the temporary directory (only serves as placeholder). Open file name for reading only, just to create it if it does not exist. The OS may follow name if it is a symbolic link; I don't care at this point. Make a hard link to name at temp_name (overwriting the placeholder file). If the link call fails, then exit. (Maybe someone has come along and removed the file at name, who knows?) Use lstat on temp_name (now a hard link). If S_ISLNK(lst.st_mode), then exit. open temp_name for writing, append (O_WRONLY | O_APPEND). Write everything out. Close the file descriptor. unlink the hard link. Remove the temporary directory. (All of this, by the way, is for an open source project that I am working on. You can view the source of my implementation of this approach here.) Is this procedure safe against symbolic link attacks? For example, is it possible for a malicious process to ensure that the inode for name represents a regular file for the duration of the lstat check, then make the inode a symbolic link with the temp_name hard link now pointing to the new, symbolic link? I am assuming that a malicious process cannot affect temp_name.

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