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• Microsoft signed drivers appears as publisher not verfied

  - by Priyanka Gupta

  Task at hand: Microsoft sign drivers on Win 7. I microsoft signed my driver package 3 times every time thinking I might have missed a step or something. However, I cannot seem to get rid of the Windows Security error message "Windows can't verify the publisher of this driver software'. This is not the first time I have signed the driver packages. I was successfully able to sign other driver packages a few months ago. However, with this driver package I keep getting Windows security dialog box. Here's the procedure I follow - Create a new cat file using INF2CAT tool. Self sign the driver using a Versign Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority - G5.cer. Run the microsoft tests on DTM Servers and clients with the devices that use this driver. Create WLK submission package. Self sign the cab file. Submit the package for certification. The catalog file that comes back after successfully passing tests says Name of signer "Microsoft Windows Hardware Comptibility Publisher". When I check the validity of signature using SignTool, it says the signature is vaild. However, when I try to install the driver with new signed catalog file the windows complain. Any ideas? Edit 11/12/2012: Reply to Eugene's comment Thanks for the help, Eugene. Yes. I did sign two other driver packages before. One of them was modified version of WinUSB driver. I am using the same certificate I used when I signed those two driver packages a few months ago. It costs $250 per signing from Microsoft. I would think that Microsoft would complain about it during certification if the certificate is wrong. I use the following command to self sign the CAT file. I don't have to specify the ceritificate name as there's only one certificate in the directory - Signtool sign /v /a /n CompanyName /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timestamp.dll OurCatalogFile.cat Below is the result from running Verify command on the Microsoft signed OutCatalogFile.cat C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.1\Bin\x64signtool verify /v "C:\User s\logotest\Documents\serialdriversigning\OurCatalogFile.cat" Verifying: C:\Users\logotest\Documents\serialdriversigning\OurCatalogFile.cat" Hash of file (sha1): BDDF39B1DD95881B462164129758A7FFD54F47D9 Signing Certificate Chain: Issued to: Microsoft Root Certificate Authority Issued by: Microsoft Root Certificate Authority Expires: Sun May 09 18:28:13 2021 SHA1 hash: CDD4EEAE6000AC7F40C3802C171E30148030C072 Issued to: Microsoft Windows Hardware Compatibility PCA Issued by: Microsoft Root Certificate Authority Expires: Thu Jun 04 16:15:46 2020 SHA1 hash: 8D42419D8B21E5CF9C3204D0060B19312B96EB78 Issued to: Microsoft Windows Hardware Compatibility Publisher Issued by: Microsoft Windows Hardware Compatibility PCA Expires: Wed Sep 18 18:20:55 2013 SHA1 hash: D94345C032D23404231DD3902F22AB1C2100341E The signature is timestamped: Tue Nov 06 11:26:48 2012 Timestamp Verified by: Issued to: Microsoft Root Authority Issued by: Microsoft Root Authority Expires: Thu Dec 31 02:00:00 2020 SHA1 hash: A43489159A520F0D93D032CCAF37E7FE20A8B419 Issued to: Microsoft Timestamping PCA Issued by: Microsoft Root Authority Expires: Sun Sep 15 02:00:00 2019 SHA1 hash: 3EA99A60058275E0ED83B892A909449F8C33B245 Issued to: Microsoft Time-Stamp Service Issued by: Microsoft Timestamping PCA Expires: Tue Apr 09 16:53:56 2013 SHA1 hash: 1895C2C907E0D7E5C0292B92C6EA8D0E236F525E Successfully verified: C:\Users\logotest\Documents\serialdriversigning\OurCatalogFile.cat" Number of files successfully Verified: 1 Number of warnings: 0 Number of errors: 0 Thank you!

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• Postfix: Relay access denied

  - by Joseph Silvashy

  When I telnet to my server thats running postfix and try to send an email: MAIL FROM:<[email protected]> #=> 250 2.1.0 Ok RCPT TO:<[email protected]> #=> 554 5.7.1 <[email protected]>: Relay access denied I couldn't really find the answer on the site or by looking at other users question/answers, I'm not sure where to start. Ideas? Update So basically looking at the docs: http://www.postfix.org/SMTPD_ACCESS_README.html (section: Getting selective with SMTP access restriction lists), I don't seem to have any of those directives in etc/postfix/main.cf like smtpd_client_restrictions = permit_mynetworks, reject or any of the other ones, so I'm quite confused. But really I'm going to have a rails app connect to the server and send the emails, so I'm not sure how to handle it. Here is what my config file looks like: # See /usr/share/postfix/main.cf.dist for a commented, more complete version # Debian specific: Specifying a file name will cause the first # line of that file to be used as the name. The Debian default # is /etc/mailname. #myorigin = /etc/mailname smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name (Ubuntu) biff = no # appending .domain is the MUA's job. append_dot_mydomain = no # Uncomment the next line to generate "delayed mail" warnings #delay_warning_time = 4h readme_directory = no # TLS parameters smtpd_tls_cert_file=/etc/ssl/certs/ssl-cert-snakeoil.pem smtpd_tls_key_file=/etc/ssl/private/ssl-cert-snakeoil.key smtpd_use_tls=yes smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache # See /usr/share/doc/postfix/TLS_README.gz in the postfix-doc package for # information on enabling SSL in the smtp client. myhostname = rerecipe-utils alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases myorigin = /etc/mailname mydestination = $myhostname, localhost.$mydomain, localhost, mail.rerecipe.com, rerecipe.com relayhost = mailbox_size_limit = 0 recipient_delimiter = + inet_interfaces = all inet_protocols = all mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 204.232.207.0/24 10.177.64.0/19 [::1]/128 [fe80::%eth0]/64 [fe80::%eth1]/64 Something to note is that relayhost is blank, this is the default configuration file that was created when I installed Postfix, when testing to connect with openssl I get this: ~% openssl s_client -connect mail.myhostname.com:25 -starttls smtp CONNECTED(00000003) depth=0 /CN=myhostname verify error:num=18:self signed certificate verify return:1 depth=0 /CN=myhostname verify return:1 --- Certificate chain 0 s:/CN=myhostname i:/CN=myhostname --- Server certificate -----BEGIN CERTIFICATE----- MIIBqTCCARICCQDDxVr+420qvjANBgkqhkiG9w0BAQUFADAZMRcwFQYDVQQDEw5y ZXJlY2lwZS11dGlsczAeFw0xMDEwMTMwNjU1MTVaFw0yMDEwMTAwNjU1MTVaMBkx FzAVBgNVBAMTDnJlcmVjaXBlLXV0aWxzMIGfMA0GCSqGSIb3DQEBAQUAA4GNADCB iQKBgQDODh2w4A1k0qiPNPhkrPj8sfkxpKPTk28AuZhgOEBYBLeHacTKNH0jXxPv P3TyhINijvvdDPzyuPJoTTliR2EHR/nL4DLhr5FzhV+PB4PsIFUER7arx+1sMjz6 5l/Ubu1ppMzW9U0IFNbaPm2AiiGBQRCQN8L0bLUjzVzwoSRMOQIDAQABMA0GCSqG SIb3DQEBBQUAA4GBALi2vvk9TGKJubXYJbU0PKmVmsfzFK35yLqr0keiDBhK2Leg 274sWxEH3ds8mUaRftuFlXb7RYAGNlVyTuMTY3CEcnqIsH7F2McCUTpjMzu/o1mZ O/B21CelKetBd1u79Gkrv2vWyN7Csft6uTx5NIGG2+pGi3r0gX2r0Hbu2K94 -----END CERTIFICATE----- subject=/CN=myhostname issuer=/CN=myhostname --- No client certificate CA names sent --- SSL handshake has read 1203 bytes and written 360 bytes --- New, TLSv1/SSLv3, Cipher is DHE-RSA-AES256-SHA Server public key is 1024 bit Compression: NONE Expansion: NONE SSL-Session: Protocol : TLSv1 Cipher : DHE-RSA-AES256-SHA Session-ID: 1AA4B8BFAAA85DA9ED4755194C50311670E57C35B8C51F9C2749936DA11918E4 Session-ID-ctx: Master-Key: 9B432F1DE9F3580DCC6208C76F96631DC5A4BC517BDBADD5F514414DCF34AC526C30687B96C5C4742E9583555A118232 Key-Arg : None Start Time: 1292985376 Timeout : 300 (sec) Verify return code: 18 (self signed certificate) --- 250 DSN Oddly enough when I try to send an email from the machine itself it does work: echo test | mail -s "test subject" [email protected]

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• Secure openVPN using IPTABLES

  - by bob franklin smith harriet

  Hey, I setup an openVPN server and it works ok. The next step is to secure it, I opted to use IPTABLES to only allow certain connections through but so far it is not working. I want to enable access to the network behind my openVPN server, and allow other services (web access), when iptables is disabaled or set to allow all this works fine, when using my following rules it does not. also note, I already configured openVPN itself to do what i want and it works fine, its only failing when iptables is started. Any help to tell me why this isnt working will appreciated here. These are the lines that I added in accordance with openVPN's recommendations, unfortunately testing these commands shows that they are requiered, they seem incredibly insecure though, any way to get around using them? # Allow TUN interface connections to OpenVPN server -A INPUT -i tun+ -j ACCEPT #allow TUN interface connections to be forwarded through other interfaces -A FORWARD -i tun+ -j ACCEPT # Allow TAP interface connections to OpenVPN server -A INPUT -i tap+ -j ACCEPT # Allow TAP interface connections to be forwarded through other interfaces -A FORWARD -i tap+ -j ACCEPT These are the new chains and commands i added to restrict access as much as possible unfortunately with these enabled, all that happens is the openVPN connection establishes fine, and then there is no access to the rest of the network behind the openVPN server note I am configuring the main iptables file and I am paranoid so all ports and ip addresses are altered, and -N etc appears before this so ignore that they dont appear. and i added some explanations of what i 'intended' these rules to do, so you dont waste time figuring out where i went wrong : 4 #accepts the vpn over port 1192 -A INPUT -p udp -m udp --dport 1192 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -j INPUT-FIREWALL -A OUTPUT -j ACCEPT #packets that are to be forwarded from 10.10.1.0 network (all open vpn clients) to the internal network (192.168.5.0) jump to [sic]foward-firewall chain -A FORWARD -s 10.10.1.0/24 -d 192.168.5.0/24 -j FOWARD-FIREWALL #same as above, except for a different internal network -A FORWARD -s 10.10.1.0/24 -d 10.100.5.0/24 -j FOWARD-FIREWALL # reject any not from either of those two ranges -A FORWARD -j REJECT -A INPUT-FIREWALL -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT -A INPUT-FIREWALL -p tcp -m tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT-FIREWALL -j REJECT -A FOWARD-FIREWALL -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT #80 443 and 53 are accepted -A FOWARD-FIREWALL -m tcp -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT -A FOWARD-FIREWALL -m tcp -p tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT #192.168.5.150 = openVPN sever -A FOWARD-FIREWALL -m tcp -p tcp -d 192.168.5.150 --dport 53 -j ACCEPT -A FOWARD-FIREWALL -m udp -p udp -d 192.168.5.150 --dport 53 -j ACCEPT -A FOWARD-FIREWALL -j REJECT COMMIT now I wait :D

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• Is it possible to write C# code as below and send email using my home network?

  - by kedar karthik

  Is it possible to write C# code as below and send email using my home network? I have a valid user name and password on that exchange server. Is there any configuration that I can set to achieve this? BTW this code blow works when I run it within office network. I want this code to work when run from any network. String cMSExchangeWebServiceURL = (String)System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["MSExchangeWebServiceURL"]; String cEmail = (String)System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["Cemail"]; String cPassword = (String)System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["Cpassword"]; String cTo = (String)System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["CTo"]; ExchangeServiceBinding esb = new ExchangeServiceBinding(); esb.Timeout = 1800000; esb.AllowAutoRedirect = true; esb.UseDefaultCredentials = false; esb.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(cEmail, cPassword); esb.Url = cMSExchangeWebServiceURL; ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback += delegate(object sender1, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; // Create a CreateItem request object CreateItemType request = new CreateItemType(); // Setup the request: // Indicate that we only want to send the message. No copy will be saved. request.MessageDisposition = MessageDispositionType.SendOnly; request.MessageDispositionSpecified = true; // Create a message object and set its properties MessageType message = new MessageType(); message.Subject = subject; message.Body = new TestOutgoingEmailServer.com.cogniti.mail1.BodyType(); message.Body.BodyType1 = BodyTypeType.HTML; message.Body.Value = body; message.ToRecipients = new EmailAddressType[3]; message.ToRecipients[0] = new EmailAddressType(); //message.ToRecipients[1] = new EmailAddressType(); //message.ToRecipients[2] = new EmailAddressType(); message.ToRecipients[0].EmailAddress = "[email protected]"; message.ToRecipients[0].RoutingType = "SMTP"; //message.CcRecipients = new EmailAddressType[1]; //message.CcRecipients[0] = new EmailAddressType(); //message.CcRecipients[0].EmailAddress = toEmailAddress.ElementAt(1).ToString(); //message.CcRecipients[0].RoutingType = "SMTP"; //There are some more properties in MessageType object //you can set all according to your requirement // Construct the array of items to send request.Items = new NonEmptyArrayOfAllItemsType(); request.Items.Items = new ItemType[1]; request.Items.Items[0] = message; // Call the CreateItem EWS method. CreateItemResponseType response = esb.CreateItem(request);

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• Cannot Send Item error in Outlook - permissions to registry?

  - by Tim Alexander

  The issue I am trying to solve is to do with users getting a Cannot Send Item error in Outlook 2007 connecting to Exchange 2007. Basically if there is an image in the email (either one they have pasted in or one from another email in the chain) they get a "Cannot Send Item" error. Initially thought it was a citrix issue but users get it when they RDP to a server as well. Changing the message to Rich Text works 80% of the time but I do not think this is a solution but more of a temporary workaround. After some troubleshooting we found that the error can be fixed by adding the user as a member of the local power users group. of course this is not really a fix. My thoughts were that the ability of a power user to add/remove software may give them more access to the registry which might allow them to get round a restriction that is in place for a normal user. I have tried going through a procmon but the wealth of information is confusing. It initially looked like it may be an Outlook 2007 email security setting but this does not change between power user and normal user (set to 1 in the registry, "Use the security setting from Outlook Security Settings Public Folders"). I am struggling to fine tune my troubleshooting to work out exactly what is blocking it. Has anyone had an experience with an error similar to this? Or are there any tips for trying to track down issues via procmon as I must admit my approach seems somewhat lacking :) EDIT: So I have trawled through the two logs we have from process monitor (one as a power user and one a normal user). annoyingly I can find no obvious difference where something is denied access. There are more access denied events in the normal user log but these are quickly followed by sucessful entries to the same path fractions of a second later. The only thing that does stand out is an access denied to HKCR.html. This does not even appear in the power user version of the log. From what I understand this helps determine the default browser which ties in nicely with the fact that 9 out of 10 times you can send the message as Rich Text. EDIT: Looks like KB2509470 was causing the issue. Not really sure why but when I can work out what it does and why it causes the problem will post here unless anyone beats me to it!

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• routing through multiple subinterfaces in debian

  - by Kstro21

  my question is as simple as the title, i have a debian 6 , 2 NICs, 3 different subnets in a single interface, just like this: auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 192.168.106.254 netmask 255.255.255.0 auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address 172.19.221.81 netmask 255.255.255.248 auto eth0:1 iface eth0:1 inet static address 192.168.254.1 netmask 255.255.255.248 auto eth1 iface eth1 inet static address 172.19.216.3 netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 172.19.216.13 eth0 is conected to a swith with 3 differents vlans, eth1 is conected to a router. No iptables DROP, so, all traffic is allowed. Now, passing the traffic through eth0 is OK, passing the traffic through eth0:0 is OK, but, passing the traffic through eth0:1 is not working, i can ping the ip address of that sub interface from a pc where this ip is the default gateway, but can't get to servers in the subnet of the eth1 interface, the traffic is not passing, even when i set the iptables to log all the traffic in the FORWARD chain and i can see the traffic there, but, the traffic is not really passing. And the funny is i can do any the other way around, i mean, passing from eth1 to eth0:1, RDP, telnet, ping, etc, doing some work with the iptable, i manage to pass some traffic from eth0:1 to eth1, the iptables look like this: iptables -t nat PREROUTING -d 192.168.254.1/32 -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,110,5269 -j DNAT --to-destination 172.19.216.1 iptables -t nat PREROUTING -d 192.168.254.1/32 -p udp -m udp --dport 53 -j DNAT --to-destination 172.19.216.9 iptables -t nat PREROUTING -d 192.168.254.1/32 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 21 -j DNAT --to-destination 172.19.216.11 iptables -t nat POSTROUTING -s 172.19.216.0/24 -d 172.19.221.80/29 -j SNAT --to-source 172.19.221.81 iptables -t nat POSTROUTING -s 172.19.216.0/24 -d 192.168.254.0/29 -j SNAT --to-source 192.168.254.1 iptables -t nat POSTROUTING -s 172.19.216.0/24 -o eth0 -j SNAT --to-source 192.168.106.254 dong this is working, but,it is really a headache have to map each port with the server, imagine if i move the service from server, so, now i have doubts: can debian route through multiple subinterfaces?? exist a limit for this?? if not, what i'm doing wrong when i have the same setup with other subnets and it is working ok?? without the iptables rules in the nat, it doesn't work thanks and i hope good comments/answers

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• How to encrypt dual boot windows 7 and xp (bitlocker, truecrypt combo?) on sdd (recommended?)

  - by therobyouknow

  I would like to setup a dual boot Windows 7 and Windows XP laptop/notebook computer where each operation system's partition is fully encrypted. I would like to do this on a SSD - a 128Gb Crucial M4. My research Dual boot of truecrypt encrypted OSs on one drive (not possible - in Truecript 7.x at time of writing) This cannot be done on a standard Truecrypt setup - it will only support encrypting one of the operating systems. I have tried this and also read about it here on superuser.com However, I did see a solution here that uses grub4dos as the initial bootloader to chain to separate truecrypt encrypted OSs, in my case Windows 7 and Windows XP: http://yyzyyz.blogspot.co.uk/2010/06/truecrypt-how-to-encrypt-multiple.html I am not going to consider this solution as it relies upon some custom code for use in the bootloader that is provided by the author. I would prefer a solution that can be fully understood so that I can be sure that there is nothing undesirable occuring (i.e. malware or just simply bugs in the code). I would like to believe such a solution doesn't have those risks but I can't be sure. BitLocker and Truecrypt combination - possible solution? So I am now considering a combination of encryption programs: I now aim to encrypt Windows XP with Truecrypt and Windows 7 with BitLocker. Assuming Truecrypt bootloader can boot into non-Truecrypt OSs (e.g. via hitting Escape to go to another menu), then this solution may be viable. SSDs and Encryption (use fastest possible spinning hard disk instead (?)) I read on various superuser.com posts and elsewhere that current SSDs are not suited to whole drive encryption for various reasons: impact of performance algorithms that give SSDs advantage over spinning harddisks. Algorithms used in compression of data for example. Wear on the SSD, shortening its life Security issues whereby data is repeated, as indicated in some Truecrypt documentation So I am now considering not using SSD. But with the aim to have the fastest drive possible, I am considering using the Western Digital Scorpion black 2.5" 7200rpm harddisk as this appears to be top rated among spinning platter-based harddrives (don't work for Western Digital). Summary So to achieve whole drive encrypted dual boot Windows 7 and Windows XP with minimal performance impact I intend to use a combination of Truecrypt and Bitlocker on a top-rated conventional spinning platter-based harddisk. Questions Will my summary: achieve whole disk encryption of the dual-boot Windows XP, Windows 7? OR an you suggest a simpler solution, including one that only requires only Truecrypt (BitLocker not available on XP). Or another encryption tool, including paid-for? provide the highest performance. Am I correct to avoid using SDD with encryption for the reasons I discovered? Are the concerns about SSDs and encryption still very real (some articles I read go back to 2010) Thanks for your input!

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• Apache certificates for some urls not working

  - by Vegaasen

  We are having a rather strange problem with a Apache-installation. Here is a short summary: Currently I'm setting up Apache with https, and server-certificates. This is fairly easy and works straight out of the box - as expected. This is the configuration for this setup: Listen 443 SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.pem" SSLCertificateKeyFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.key" SSLCACertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_root.pem" SSLCADNRequestFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_intermediate.pem" SSLVerifyClient none SSLVerifyDepth 3 SSLOptions +StdEnvVars +ExportCertData RequestHeader set ssl-ClientCert-Subject-CN "%{SSL_CLIENT_S_DN}s" RewriteEngine On ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyRequests On SSLProxyEngine On ... <LocationMatch /secureStuff/$> SSLVerifyClient require Order deny,allow Allow from All </LocationMatch> ... <Proxy balancer://exBalancer> Header add Set-Cookie "EX_ROUTE=EB.%{BALANCER_WORKER_ROUTE}e; path=/" env=BALANCER_ROUTE_CHANGED BalancerMember http://10.0.0.1:7200 route=ee1 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on BalancerMember http://10.0.0.2:7200 route=ee2 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on status=+H ProxySet stickysession=EX_ROUTE scolonpathdelim=Off timeout=10 nofailover=off failonstatus=505 maxattempts=1 lbmethod=bybusyness Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/index.html [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://exBalancer/$1 [P,NC] ProxyPassReverse / balancer://exBalancer/ Header edit Set-Cookie "(.*)" "$1;HttpsOnly" ... So - everything works fine and as expected for all of the pages that are not a part of the LocationMatch-directive. When requesting something that matches the LocationMatch-directive, I'm asked for a certificate (hence the SSLVerifyClient required attribute) - and getting all the correct certificates in my browser that is based on the root/intermediate chain. After choosing a certificate and clicking "OK", this is what pops up in the apache logs: [ssl:info] [pid 9530:tid 25] [client :43357] AH01998: Connection closed to child 86 with abortive shutdown ( [Thu Oct 11 09:27:36.221876 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 9530:tid 25] ssl_engine_io.c(1171): (70014)End of file found: [client 10.235.128.55:45846] AH02007: SSL handshake interrupted by system [Hint: Stop button pressed in browser?!] And this just spams the logs. What is happening here? I can see this configuration working on my local machine, but not on one of our servers. There is no configration differences between the servers, only minor application-wise-changes. I've tried the following: 1) Removing CA-certificate-checking (works) 2) Adding required CA-certificate for the whole site (works) 3) Adding "SSLVerifyClient optional" does not work 4) ++ Server/Application Information Local: -OpenSSL v.1.0.1x -Apache 2.4.3 -Ubuntu -mpm: event -every configuration should be turned on (failing) server: -OpenSSL 0.9.8e -Apache 2.4.2 -SunOS -mpm: worker -every configuration should be turned on Please let me know if more information is needed, I'll provide it instantly. Brief sum-up: -Running apache 2.4 -Server certificates works just fine -Client certificates for some /Locations does not work, fails with errors PS: Could it be related with the OpenSSL version and the "Renegotiation" stuff related to TLS/SSLv3?

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• Why can't we reach some (but not all) external web service via VPN connection?

  - by Paul Haldane

  At work (UK university) we use a set of Windows servers running WS2008R2 and RRAS which offer VPN service to students in our accommodation. We do this to associate the network connections with individuals. Before they've connected to the VPN all they can talk to is the stuff thats needed to setup the VPN and a local web site with documentation on how to connect. Medium term we'll probably replace this but it's what we're using at the moment. VPN on the 2008 servers allocates client a private (10.x) address. Access to external sites is through NAT on the campus routers (same as any other directly connected client on a private address). Non-VPN connections aren't seeing this problem. Older servers run WS 2003 and ISA2004. That setup works but has become unreliable under load. Big difference there was that we were allocating non-RFC1918 addresses to the clients (so no NAT required). Behaviour we're seeing is that once connected to the VPN, clients can reach local web sites (that is sites on the campus network) but only some external sites. It seems (but this may be chance) that the sites we can reach are Google ones (including YouTube). We certainly have trouble reaching Microsoft's Office 365 service (which is a pain because that's where mail for most of our students is). One odd bit of behaviour is that clients can fetch (using wget on a Windows 7 client) http://www.oracle.com/ (which gets a 301 redirect) but hangs when asked to fetch http://www.oracle.com/index.html (which is what the first URL redirects to). Access works reliably if we configure clients to use our local web proxies (Squid). My gut tells me that this is likely to be something in the chain dropping replies either based on HTTP inspection or the IP address in the reply. However I'm puzzled about why we're seeing this with the VPN clients. Plan for tomorrow (when I'm back in the office) is to setup a web server on external connection so that we can monitor behaviour at both ends of the conversation (hoping that the problem manifests itself with our test server). Any suggestions for things we should be looking at?

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• Usage of IcmpSendEcho2 with an asynchronous callback

  - by Ben Voigt

  I've been reading the MSDN documentation for IcmpSendEcho2 and it raises more questions than it answers. I'm familiar with asynchronous callbacks from other Win32 APIs such as ReadFileEx... I provide a buffer which I guarantee will be reserved for the driver's use until the operation completes with any result other than IO_PENDING, I get my callback in case of either success or failure (and call GetCompletionStatus to find out which). Timeouts are my responsibility and I can call CancelIo to abort processing, but the buffer is still reserved until the driver cancels the operation and calls my completion routine with a status of CANCELLED. And there's an OVERLAPPED structure which uniquely identifies the request through all of this. IcmpSendEcho2 doesn't use an OVERLAPPED context structure for asynchronous requests. And the documentation is unclear excessively minimalist about what happens if the ping times out or fails (failure would be lack of a network connection, a missing ARP entry for local peers, ICMP destination unreachable response from an intervening router for remote peers, etc). Does anyone know whether the callback occurs on timeout and/or failure? And especially, if no response comes, can I reuse the buffer for another call to IcmpSendEcho2 or is it forever reserved in case a reply comes in late? I'm wanting to use this function from a Win32 service, which means I have to get the error-handling cases right and I can't just leak buffers (or if the API does leak buffers, I have to use a helper process so I have a way to abandon requests). There's also an ugly incompatibility in the way the callback is made. It looks like the first parameter is consistent between the two signatures, so I should be able to use the newer PIO_APC_ROUTINE as long as I only use the second parameter if an OS version check returns Vista or newer? Although MSDN says "don't do a Windows version check", it seems like I need to, because the set of versions with the new argument aren't the same as the set of versions where the function exists in iphlpapi.dll. Pointers to additional documentation or working code which uses this function and an APC would be much appreciated. Please also let me know if this is completely the wrong approach -- i.e. if either using raw sockets or some combination of IcmpCreateFile+WriteFileEx+ReadFileEx would be more robust.

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• Removing expired certificates from LDS (new ver of ADAM)

  - by jonthebrewer

  Hi all. This is my situation: We are in the process of replacing a certificate store currently hosted on Sun's iPlanet with Microsoft's Lightweight Directory Services (new version of ADAM with Server 2008). These certificates have been imported into LDS into an application partition (say o=myorg, C=AU). Under this structure I have around 40,000 OU's each one representing a customer under each customers OU are one or more user (iNetOrg) objects (around 60,000 in all). In each user are one or more certificates in the UserCertificate attribute. A combination of in-house written application code and proprietory PKI code reads and publishes these certficates to validate financial transactions. As the LDAP path of the certificates is stored within the customer certificates (and within the application code) and there is zero appetite for changing any of the code, I have had to pick up the iPlanet directory as a whole and dump it in LDS in the same structure. (I will not be using or hosting a Microsoft CA, just implementing an LDAP compliant directory to host these certificates) We have fully tested the application using the data in LDS and everything works fine - here is my dilema and question (finally, phew!) There was no process put in place for removing revoked or expired certificates, consequently the vast majority of the data is completely useless, the system has been running for about 8 years! I have done a quick analysis and I estimate that at least 80% of the data is no longer valid. As I am taking on responsibility for managing the directory I would like to start with a clean directory. Does anyone have any idea how I can cleanup these expired certificates. I am not a highly experienced scripter but have some background in VB. I have been researching the use of CAPICOM and have a feeling this may be able to be used but in exactly what way I am not sure?? I would prefer to write a script that I could specify an expiration date (say any certs that expired prior to 2010) then run against the LDS paritition. This way I can reuse the script periodically to cleanup the directory (as mentioned above - I have no way to adjust the applications that are writing the certs, this is with a third party). Another, less attractive, alternative is to massage the LDIF file (2.7 million lines!) to rip the certs out prior to the import Any help and advice MUCH appreciated. Cheers Jon

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• Question About Example In Robert C Martin's _Clean Code_

  - by Jonah

  This is a question about the concept of a function doing only one thing. It won't make sense without some relevant passages for context, so I'll quote them here. They appear on pgs 37-38: To say this differently, we want to be able to read the program as though it were a set of TO paragraphs, each of which is describing the current level of abstraction and referencing subsequent TO paragraphs at the next level down. To include the setups and teardowns, we include setups, then we include the test page content, and then we include the teardowns. To include the setups, we include the suite setup if this is a suite, then we include the regular setup. It turns out to be very dif?cult for programmers to learn to follow this rule and write functions that stay at a single level of abstraction. But learning this trick is also very important. It is the key to keeping functions short and making sure they do “one thing.” Making the code read like a top-down set of TO paragraphs is an effective technique for keeping the abstraction level consistent. He then gives the following example of poor code: public Money calculatePay(Employee e) throws InvalidEmployeeType { switch (e.type) { case COMMISSIONED: return calculateCommissionedPay(e); case HOURLY: return calculateHourlyPay(e); case SALARIED: return calculateSalariedPay(e); default: throw new InvalidEmployeeType(e.type); } } and explains the problems with it as follows: There are several problems with this function. First, it’s large, and when new employee types are added, it will grow. Second, it very clearly does more than one thing. Third, it violates the Single Responsibility Principle7 (SRP) because there is more than one reason for it to change. Fourth, it violates the Open Closed Principle8 (OCP) because it must change whenever new types are added. Now my questions. To begin, it's clear to me how it violates the OCP, and it's clear to me that this alone makes it poor design. However, I am trying to understand each principle, and it's not clear to me how SRP applies. Specifically, the only reason I can imagine for this method to change is the addition of new employee types. There is only one "axis of change." If details of the calculation needed to change, this would only affect the submethods like "calculateHourlyPay()" Also, while in one sense it is obviously doing 3 things, those three things are all at the same level of abstraction, and can all be put into a TO paragraph no different from the example one: TO calculate pay for an employee, we calculate commissioned pay if the employee is commissioned, hourly pay if he is hourly, etc. So aside from its violation of the OCP, this code seems to conform to Martin's other requirements of clean code, even though he's arguing it does not. Can someone please explain what I am missing? Thanks.

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• Is the design notion of layers contrived?

  - by Bruce

  Hi all I'm reading through Eric Evans' awesome work, Domain-Driven Design. However, I can't help feeling that the 'layers' model is contrived. To expand on that statement, it seems as if it tries to shoe-horn various concepts into a specific, neat model, that of layers talking to each other. It seems to me that the layers model is too simplified to actually capture the way that (good) software works. To expand further: Evans says: "Partition a complex program into layers. Develop a design within each layer that is cohesive and that depends only on the layers below. Follow standard architectural patterns to provide loose coupling to the layers above." Maybe I'm misunderstanding what 'depends' means, but as far as I can see, it can either mean a) Class X (in the UI for example) has a reference to a concrete class Y (in the main application) or b) Class X has a reference to a class Y-ish object providing class Y-ish services (ie a reference held as an interface). If it means (a), then this is clearly a bad thing, since it defeats re-using the UI as a front-end to some other application that provides Y-ish functionality. But if it means (b), then how is the UI any more dependent on the application, than the application is dependent on the UI? Both are decoupled from each other as much as they can be while still talking to each other. Evans' layer model of dependencies going one way seems too neat. First, isn't it more accurate to say that each area of the design provides a module that is pretty much an island to itself, and that ideally all communication is through interfaces, in a contract-driven/responsibility-driven paradigm? (ie, the 'dependency only on lower layers' is contrived). Likewise with the domain layer talking to the database - the domain layer is as decoupled (through DAO etc) from the database as the database is from the domain layer. Neither is dependent on the other, both can be swapped out. Second, the idea of a conceptual straight line (as in from one layer to the next) is artificial - isn't there more a network of intercommunicating but separate modules, including external services, utility services and so on, branching off at different angles? Thanks all - hoping that your responses can clarify my understanding on this..

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• Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

  - by Software Monkey

  I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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• Cases of companies taking IP rights of your own personal projects developed outside company time

  - by GSS

  Hi, I have heard of cases where a developer working for a company is also making his own personal projects in his own time, using his own equipment yet the company he works for tries to claim ownership for the project. I really find this annoying, and bang out of order. It should also be illegal. I am in this position (work for a company and working on my own systems - from small class libraries used to practise what I learn in my exam revision to a large commercial-scale system). While I don't know if the company will try to take ownership, all I know is they say they do not want a conflict of interest. Fair enough, my system is developed in my own time using my own equipment. They also say that work time should be for work only, which it is. Funny thing that as work is so boring, easy and slow that I have plenty of free time, which I wish I could spend on something productive - said system. The problem is, my company does not take hiring technical talent seriously. This is my first job, I am a junior coder (but my status/position doesn't really reflect what I can do), but I am the only developer. Likewise with the guy who controls Windows Server. As the contract does not say anything about taking ownership, I would assume they would. They would try to milk my success (I've made a good impression so I am sure they would). How can this be allowed? Are there any examples of this happening to any fellow Stacker here? It really makes my blood boil. What I find funny is that my company hardly has the expertise and resources to even be able to successfully run a project of my size. What I do at work is an ASP.NET application consisting of five pages, and even then there are flaws in the project. If I told them that they would also have to take responsibility for flaws in the project, then they would think twice! It's exactly because of this I save the best code for myself and at work I write rubbish code full of code smells. The company don't really care about error handling, as long as the business functionality works (ie a scheduled email sends, but there is no error handling). They'd think twice when they see the embarassment and business cost of a YSOD...

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• IoC/DI in the face of winforms and other generated code

  - by Kaleb Pederson

  When using dependency injection (DI) and inversion of control (IoC) objects will typically have a constructor that accepts the set of dependencies required for the object to function properly. For example, if I have a form that requires a service to populate a combo box you might see something like this: // my files public interface IDataService { IList<MyData> GetData(); } public interface IComboDataService { IList<MyComboData> GetComboData(); } public partial class PopulatedForm : BaseForm { private IDataService service; public PopulatedForm(IDataService service) { //... InitializeComponent(); } } This works fine at the top level, I just use my IoC container to resolve the dependencies: var form = ioc.Resolve<PopulatedForm>(); But in the face of generated code, this gets harder. In winforms a second file composing the rest of the partial class is generated. This file references other components, such as custom controls, and uses no-args constructors to create such controls: // generated file: PopulatedForm.Designer.cs public partial class PopulatedForm { private void InitializeComponent() { this.customComboBox = new UserCreatedComboBox(); // customComboBox has an IComboDataService dependency } } Since this is generated code, I can't pass in the dependencies and there's no easy way to have my IoC container automatically inject all the dependencies. One solution is to pass in the dependencies of each child component to PopulatedForm even though it may not need them directly, such as with the IComboDataService required by the UserCreatedComboBox. I then have the responsibility to make sure that the dependencies are provided through various properties or setter methods. Then, my PopulatedForm constructor might look as follows: public PopulatedForm(IDataService service, IComboDataService comboDataService) { this.service = service; InitializeComponent(); this.customComboBox.ComboDataService = comboDataService; } Another possible solution is to have the no-args constructor to do the necessary resolution: public class UserCreatedComboBox { private IComboDataService comboDataService; public UserCreatedComboBox() { if (!DesignMode && IoC.Instance != null) { comboDataService = Ioc.Instance.Resolve<IComboDataService>(); } } } Neither solution is particularly good. What patterns and alternatives are available to more capably handle dependency-injection in the face of generated code? I'd love to see both general solutions, such as patterns, and ones specific to C#, Winforms, and Autofac.

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• How to fine tune a Membership Provider?

  - by Venemo

  After all the answers to my last question about fine-tuning turned out to be more useful than I expected, I thought that I would ask another similar Question about the MembershipProviders as well. Okay, so firstly, to clarify: I know what a Membership, Role, and Profile provider is, how to implement my own, and how to configure them, and most of the things about them. Implementing a role and profile provider is pretty straightforward, because they only require simple CRUD most of the time. (A single line of LINQ is enough for about half of the RoleProvider's methods.) However, the Membership provider is a differend beast. Many of you may realize that it violates the SR (Single Responsibility) principle, because it has to do EVERYTHING related to user management. While this leaves a lot of room for customizations, it has its downsides as well. There is no information on the Internet about what their EXACT expected behaviour is, such as when should they throw exceptions or simply return null, and stuff like that. I use this sample implementation for reference, but it also contains several contradictions. For example, it uses its own ValidateUser method for checking for credentials in the ChangePassword method. But the ValidateUser also updates the user's LastLoginDate to the current date. So, does the framework expect that I set it in my own provider as well, or is it simply a mistake in the sample? The other is: the ChangePassword method throws an exception every time when validating the new password, but CreateUser doesn't ever throw an exception, it simply returns false. And last, but not least: it counts the invalid password attempts of the user and locks them if it passes a threshold. While this is good, but it requires manual action to unlock the users. Is it a problem if my provider automatically unlocks the user after a certain amount of time? (EDIT) I almost forgot: the CreateUser method in the sample inserts the ID from the method parameter. I actually think this is bad practice, because I use inters with auto incement as IDs, so inserting them from some method parameter is not an option. Should I just ignore the parameter, or require that its value is null and throw an exception if it isn't? All in all, does ASP.NET have any assumptions about the behaviour of a MembershipProvider? Is there any documentation which describes when should I throw an exception or just return null? I also tried to find a set of generic unit tests which would provide some guidance about the expected behaviour, but no luck, I found plenty of articles about "Unit testing is good", and "How to unit test a MembershipProvider", but not one where there would be any actual tests. Thanks in advance for everyone!

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• How is IObservable<double>.Average supposed to work?

  - by Dan Tao

  Update Looks like Jon Skeet was right (big surprise!) and the issue was with my assumption about the Average extension providing a continuous average (it doesn't). For the behavior I'm after, I wrote a simple ContinuousAverage extension method, the implementation of which I am including here for the benefit of others who may want something similar: public static class ObservableExtensions { private class ContinuousAverager { private double _mean; private long _count; public ContinuousAverager() { _mean = 0.0; _count = 0L; } // undecided whether this method needs to be made thread-safe or not // seems that ought to be the responsibility of the IObservable (?) public double Add(double value) { double delta = value - _mean; _mean += (delta / (double)(++_count)); return _mean; } } public static IObservable<double> ContinousAverage(this IObservable<double> source) { var averager = new ContinuousAverager(); return source.Select(x => averager.Add(x)); } } I'm thinking of going ahead and doing something like the above for the other obvious candidates as well -- so, ContinuousCount, ContinuousSum, ContinuousMin, ContinuousMax ... perhaps ContinuousVariance and ContinuousStandardDeviation as well? Any thoughts on that? Original Question I use Rx Extensions a little bit here and there, and feel I've got the basic ideas down. Now here's something odd: I was under the impression that if I wrote this: var ticks = Observable.FromEvent<QuoteEventArgs>(MarketDataProvider, "MarketTick"); var bids = ticks .Where(e => e.EventArgs.Quote.HasBid) .Select(e => e.EventArgs.Quote.Bid); var bidsSubscription = bids.Subscribe( b => Console.WriteLine("Bid: {0}", b) ); var avgOfBids = bids.Average(); var avgOfBidsSubscription = avgOfBids.Subscribe( b => Console.WriteLine("Avg Bid: {0}", b) ); I would get two IObservable<double> objects (bids and avgOfBids); one would basically be a stream of all the market bids from my MarketDataProvider, the other would be a stream of the average of these bids. So something like this: Bid Avg Bid 1 1 2 1.5 1 1.33 2 1.5 It seems that my avgOfBids object isn't doing anything. What am I missing? I think I've probably misunderstood what Average is actually supposed to do. (This also seems to be the case for all of the aggregate-like extension methods on IObservable<T> -- e.g., Max, Count, etc.)

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• How can I test caching and cache busting?

  - by Nathan Long

  In PHP, I'm trying to steal a page from the Rails playbook (see 'Using Asset Timestamps' here): By default, Rails appends assets' timestamps to all asset paths. This allows you to set a cache-expiration date for the asset far into the future, but still be able to instantly invalidate it by simply updating the file (and hence updating the timestamp, which then updates the URL as the timestamp is part of that, which in turn busts the cache). It‘s the responsibility of the web server you use to set the far-future expiration date on cache assets that you need to take advantage of this feature. Here‘s an example for Apache: # Asset Expiration ExpiresActive On <FilesMatch "\.(ico|gif|jpe?g|png|js|css)$"> ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </FilesMatch> If you look at a the source for a Rails page, you'll see what they mean: the path to a stylesheet might be "/stylesheets/scaffold.css?1268228124", where the numbers at the end are the timestamp when the file was last updated. So it should work like this: The browser says 'give me this page' The server says 'here, and by the way, this stylesheet called scaffold.css?1268228124 can be cached for a year - it's not gonna change.' On reloads, the browser says 'I'm not asking for that css file, because my local copy is still good.' A month later, you edit and save the file, which changes the timestamp, which means that the file is no longer called scaffold.css?1268228124 because the numbers change. When the browser sees that, it says 'I've never seen that file! Give me a copy, please.' The cache is 'busted.' I think that's brilliant. So I wrote a function that spits out stylesheet and javascript tags with timestamps appended to the file names, and I configured Apache with the statement above. Now: how do I tell if the caching and cache busting are working? I'm checking my pages with two plugins for Firebug: Yslow and Google Page Speed. Both seem to say that my files are caching: "Add expires headers" in Yslow and "leverage browser caching" in Page Speed are both checked. But when I look at the Page Speed Activity, I see a lot of requests and waiting and no 'cache hits'. If I change my stylesheet and reload, I do see the change immediately. But I don't know if that's because the browser never cached in the first place or because the cache is busted. How can I tell?

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• decorator pattern

  - by vbNewbie

  I have a program that converts currency using a specific design pattern. I now need to take my converted result and using the decorator pattern allow the result to be converted to 3 different formats: 1 - exponential notation, rounded to 2 decimal points. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Converter { public partial class Form1 : Form { // Setup Chain of Responsibility Handler h1 = new USDHandler(); Handler h2 = new CADHandler(); Handler h3 = new AUDHandler(); public string reqCurName; public int reqAmt; public string results; public string requestID; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); h1.SetSuccessor(h2); h2.SetSuccessor(h3); } // "Handler" private void button1_Click_1(object sender, EventArgs e) { reqCurName = txtInput.Text; reqAmt = Convert.ToInt32(txtAmt.Text.ToString()); results = h1.HandleRequest(reqCurName, reqAmt); if (results != "") { lblResult.Text = results; lblResult.Visible = true; } } abstract class Handler { protected Handler successor; public string retrn; public void SetSuccessor(Handler successor) { this.successor = successor; } public abstract string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt); } // "USD Handler" class USDHandler : Handler { public override string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt) { if (requestID == "USD") { retrn = "Request handled by " + this.GetType().Name + " \nConversion from Euro to USD is " + reqAmt/0.630479; return (retrn); } else if (successor != null) { retrn = successor.HandleRequest(requestID, reqAmt); } return (retrn); } } // "CAD Handler" class CADHandler : Handler { public override string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt) { if (requestID == "CAD") { retrn = "Request handled by " + this.GetType().Name + " \nConversion from Euro to CAD is " + reqAmt /0.617971; return (retrn); } else if (successor != null) { retrn = successor.HandleRequest(requestID, reqAmt); } return (retrn); } } // "AUD Handler" class AUDHandler : Handler { public override string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt) { if (requestID == "AUD") { requestID = "Request handled by " + this.GetType().Name + " \nConversion from Euro to AUD is " + reqAmt / 0.585386; return (requestID); } else if (successor != null) { retrn = successor.HandleRequest(requestID, reqAmt); } return (requestID); } } } }

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• Container item implementation

  - by onurozcelik

  Hi, I am working in Train Traffic Controller software project. My responsibility in this project is to develop the visual railroad GUI. We are implementing the project with Qt. By now I am using QGraphicsLinearLayout to hold my items. I am using the layout because I do not want to calculate coordinates of each item. So far I wrote item classes to add the layout. For instance SwitchItem class symbolizes railroad switch in real world. Each item class is responsible for its own painting and events. So far so good. Now I need a composite item that can contain two or more item. This class is going to be responsible for painting the items contained in it. I need this class because I have to put two or more items inside same layout cell. If I don' t put them in same cell I can' t use layout. See the image below. BlockSegmentItem and SignalItem inside same cell. Here is my compositeitem implementation. #include "compositeitem.h" CompositeItem::CompositeItem(QString id,QList<FieldItem *> _children) { children = _children; } CompositeItem::~CompositeItem() { } QRectF CompositeItem::boundingRect() const { FieldItem *child; QRectF rect(0,0,0,0); foreach(child,children) { rect = rect.united(child->boundingRect()); } return rect; } void CompositeItem::paint(QPainter *painter, const QStyleOptionGraphicsItem *option, QWidget *widget ) { FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { child->paint(painter,option,widget); } } QSizeF CompositeItem::sizeHint(Qt::SizeHint which, const QSizeF &constraint) const { QSizeF itsSize(0,0); FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { // if its size empty set first child size to itsSize if(itsSize.isEmpty()) itsSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); else { QSizeF childSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); if(itsSize.width() < childSize.width()) itsSize.setWidth(childSize.width()); itsSize.setHeight(itsSize.height() + childSize.height()); } } return itsSize; } void CompositeItem::contextMenuEvent(QGraphicsSceneContextMenuEvent *event) { qDebug()<<"Test"; } This code works good with painting but when it comes to item events it is problematic. QGraphicsScene treats the composite item like a single item which is right for layout but not for events. Because each item has its own event implementation.(e.g. SignalItem has its special context menu event.) I have to handle item events seperately. Also I need a composite item implementation for the layout. How can I overcome this dilemma?

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• Consolidating coding styles: Funcs, private method, single method classes

  - by jdoig

  Hi all, We currently have 3 devs with, some, conflicting styles and I'm looking for a way to bring peace to the kingdom... The Coders: Foo 1: Likes to use Func's & Action's inside public methods. He uses actions to alias off lengthy method calls and Func's to perform simple tasks that can be expressed in 1 or 2 lines and will be used frequently through out the code Pros: The main body of his code is succinct and very readable, often with only one or 2 public methods per class and rarely any private methods. Cons: The start of methods contain blocks of lambda rich code that other developers don't enjoy reading; and, on occasion, can contain higher order functions that other dev's REALLY don't like reading. Foo 2: Likes to create a private method for (almost) everything the public method will have to do . Pros: Public methods remain small and readable (to all developers). Cons: Private methods are numerous. With private methods that call into other private methods, that call into... etc, etc. Making code hard to navigate. Foo 3: Likes to create a public class with a, single, public method for every, non-trivial, task that needs performing, then dependency inject them into other objects. Pros: Easily testable, easy to understand (one object, one responsibility). Cons: project gets littered by classes, opening multiple class files to understand what code does makes navigation awkward. It would be great to take the best of all these techniques... Foo-1 Has really nice, readable (almost dsl-like) code... for the most part, except for all the Action and Func lambda shenanigans bulked together at the start of a method. Foo-3 Has highly testable and extensible code that just feels a bit "belt-&-braces" for some solutions and has some code-navigation niggles (constantly hitting F12 in VS and opening 5 other .cs files to find out what a single method does). And Foo-2... Well I'm not sure I like anything about the one-huge .cs file with 2 public methods and 12 private ones, except for the fact it's easier for juniors to dig into. I admit I grossly over-simplified the explanations of those coding styles; but if any one knows of any patterns, practices or diplomatic-manoeuvres that can help unite our three developers (without just telling any of them to just "stop it!") that would be great. From a feasibility standpoint : Foo-1's style meets with the most resistance due to some developers finding lambda and/or Func's hard to read. Foo-2's style meets with a less resistance as it's just so easy to fall into. Foo-3's style requires the most forward thinking and is difficult to enforce when time is short. Any ideas on some coding styles or conventions that can make this work?

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• Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

  - by Jim Fell

  It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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• Non-Dom Element Event Binding with jQuery

  - by Rick Strahl

  Yesterday I had a short discussion with Dave Reed on Twitter regarding setting up fake ‘events’ on objects that are hookable. jQuery makes it real easy to bind events on DOM elements and with a little bit of extra work (that I didn’t know about) you can also set up binding to non-DOM element ‘event’ bindings. Assume for a second that you have a simple JavaScript object like this: var item = { sku: "wwhelp" , foo: function() { alert('orginal foo function'); } }; and you want to be notified when the foo function is called. You can use jQuery to bind the handler like this: $(item).bind("foo", function () { alert('foo Hook called'); } ); Binding alone won’t actually cause the handler to be triggered so when you call: item.foo(); you only get the ‘original’ message. In order to fire both the original handler and the bound event hook you have to use the .trigger() function: $(item).trigger("foo"); Now if you do the following complete sequence: var item = { sku: "wwhelp" , foo: function() { alert('orginal foo function'); } }; $(item).bind("foo", function () { alert('foo hook called'); } ); $(item).trigger("foo"); You’ll see the ‘hook’ message first followed by the ‘original’ message fired in succession. In other words, using this mechanism you can hook standard object functions and chain events to them in a way similar to the way you can do with DOM elements. The main difference is that the ‘event’ has to be explicitly triggered in order for this to happen rather than just calling the method directly. .trigger() relies on some internal logic that checks for event bindings on the object (attached via an expando property) which .trigger() searches for in its bound event list. Once the ‘event’ is found it’s called prior to execution of the original function. This is pretty useful as it allows you to create standard JavaScript objects that can act as event handlers and are effectively hookable without having to explicitly override event definitions with JavaScript function handlers. You get all the benefits of jQuery’s event methods including the ability to hook up multiple events to the same handler function and the ability to uniquely identify each specific event instance with post fix string names (ie. .bind("MyEvent.MyName") and .unbind("MyEvent.MyName") to bind MyEvent). Watch out for an .unbind() Bug Note that there appears to be a bug with .unbind() in jQuery that doesn’t reliably unbind an event and results in a elem.removeEventListener is not a function error. The following code demonstrates: var item = { sku: "wwhelp", foo: function () { alert('orginal foo function'); } }; $(item).bind("foo.first", function () { alert('foo hook called'); }); $(item).bind("foo.second", function () { alert('foo hook2 called'); }); $(item).trigger("foo"); setTimeout(function () { $(item).unbind("foo"); // $(item).unbind("foo.first"); // $(item).unbind("foo.second"); $(item).trigger("foo"); }, 3000); The setTimeout call delays the unbinding and is supposed to remove the event binding on the foo function. It fails both with the foo only value (both if assigned only as “foo” or “foo.first/second” as well as when removing both of the postfixed event handlers explicitly. Oddly the following that removes only one of the two handlers works: setTimeout(function () { //$(item).unbind("foo"); $(item).unbind("foo.first"); // $(item).unbind("foo.second"); $(item).trigger("foo"); }, 3000); this actually works which is weird as the code in unbind tries to unbind using a DOM method that doesn’t exist. <shrug> A partial workaround for unbinding all ‘foo’ events is the following: setTimeout(function () { $.event.special.foo = { teardown: function () { alert('teardown'); return true; } }; $(item).unbind("foo"); $(item).trigger("foo"); }, 3000); which is a bit cryptic to say the least but it seems to work more reliably. I can’t take credit for any of this – thanks to Dave Reed and Damien Edwards who pointed out some of these behaviors. I didn’t find any good descriptions of the process so thought it’d be good to write it down here. Hope some of you find this helpful.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in jQuery  

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• What’s Your Tax Strategy? Automate the Tax Transfer Pricing Process!

  - by tobyehatch

  Does your business operate in multiple countries? Well, whether you like it or not, many local and international tax authorities inspect your tax strategy.  Legal, effective tax planning is perceived as a “moral” issue. CEOs are being asked to testify on their process of tax transfer pricing between multinational legal entities.  Marc Seewald, Senior Director of Product Management for EPM Applications specializing in all tax subjects and Product Manager for Oracle Hyperion Tax Provisioning, and Bart Stoehr, Senior Director of Product Strategy for Oracle Hyperion Profitability and Cost Management joined me for a discussion/podcast on this interesting subject.  So what exactly is “tax transfer pricing”? Marc defined it this way. “Tax transfer pricing is a profit allocation methodology required to be used by multinational corporations. Specifically, the ultimate goal of the transfer pricing is to ensure that the global multinational pays their fair share of income tax in each of their local markets. Specifically, it prevents companies from unfairly moving profit from ‘high tax’ countries to ‘low tax’ countries.” According to Marc, in today’s global economy, profitability can be significantly impacted by goods and services exchanged between the related divisions within a single multinational company.  To ensure that these cost allocations are done fairly, there are rules that govern the process. These rules ensure that intercompany allocations fairly represent the actual nature of the businesses activity- as if two divisions were unrelated - and provide a clear audit trail of how the costs have been allocated to prove that allocations fall within reasonable ranges.  What are the repercussions of improper tax transfer pricing? How important is it? Tax transfer pricing allocations can materially impact the amount of overall corporate income taxes paid by a company worldwide, in some cases by hundreds of millions of dollars!  Since so much tax revenue is at stake, revenue agencies like the IRS, and international regulatory bodies like the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) are pushing to reform and clarify reporting for tax transfer pricing. Most recently the OECD announced an “Action Plan for Base Erosion and Profit Shifting”. As Marc explained, the times are changing and companies need to be responsive to this issue. “It feels like every other week there is another company being accused of avoiding taxes,” said Marc. Most recently, Caterpillar was accused of avoiding billions of dollars in taxes. In the last couple of years, Apple, GE, Ikea, and Starbucks, have all been accused of tax avoidance. It’s imperative that companies like these have a clear and auditable tax transfer process that enables them to justify tax transfer pricing allocations and avoid steep penalties and bad publicity. Transparency and efficiency are what is needed when it comes to the tax transfer pricing process. Bart explained that tax transfer pricing is driving a deeper inspection of profit recognition specifically focused on the tax element of profit.  However, allocations needed to support tax profitability are nearly identical in process to allocations taking place in other parts of the finance organization. For example, the methods and processes necessary to arrive at tax profitability by legal entity are no different than those used to arrive at fully loaded profitability for a product line. In fact, there is a great opportunity for alignment across these two different functions.So it seems that tax transfer pricing should be reflected in profitability in general. Bart agreed and told us more about some of the critical sub-processes of an overall tax transfer pricing process within the Oracle solution for tax transfer pricing.  “First, there is a ton of data preparation, enrichment and pre-allocation data analysis that is managed in the Oracle Hyperion solution. This serves as the “data staging” to the next, critical sub-processes.  From here, we leverage the Oracle EPM platform’s ability to re-use dimensions and legal entity driver data and financial data with Oracle Hyperion Profitability and Cost Management (HPCM).  Within HPCM, we manage the driver data, define the legal entity to legal entity allocation rules (like cost plus), and have the option to test out multiple, simultaneous tax transfer pricing what-if scenarios.  Once processed, a tax expert can evaluate the effectiveness of any one scenario result versus another via a variance analysis configured with HPCM’s pre-packaged reporting capability known as Oracle Hyperion SmartView for Office.”   Further, Bart explained that the ability to visibly demonstrate how a cost or revenue has been allocated is really helpful and auditable.  “HPCM’s Traceability Maps are that visual representation of all allocation flows that have been executed and is the tax transfer analyst’s best friend in maintaining clear documentation for tax transfer pricing audits. Simply click and drill as you inspect the chain of allocation definitions and results. Once final, the post-allocated tax data can be compared to the GL to create invoices and journal entries for posting to your GL system of choice.  Of course, there is a framework for overall governance of the journal entries, allocation percentages, and reporting to include necessary approvals.” Lastly, Marc explained that the key value in using the Oracle Hyperion solution for tax transfer pricing is that it keeps everything in alignment in one single place. Specifically, Oracle Hyperion effectively becomes the single book of record for the GAAP, management, and the tax set of books. There are many benefits to having one source of the truth. These include EFFICIENCY, CONTROLS and TRANSPARENCY.So, what’s your tax strategy? Why not automate the tax transfer pricing process!To listen to the entire podcast, click here.To learn more about Oracle Hyperion Profitability and Cost Management (HPCM), click here.

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