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  • deleting object with template for int and object

    - by Yokhen
    Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

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  • C# function called after dependency property have been set

    - by mizipzor
    My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

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  • how to switch views according to command

    - by Veer
    I've a main view and many usercontrols. The main view contains a two column grid, with the first column filled with a listbox whose datatemplate consists of a usercontrol and the second column filled with another usercontrol. These two usercontrols have the same datacontext. MainView: <Grid> //Column defs ... <ListView Grid.Column="0" ItemSource="{Binding Foo}"> ... <DataTemplate> <Views: FooView1 /> </DataTemplate> </ListView> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Count}" /> <StackPanel Grid.Column="1"> <Views: FooView2 /> </StackPanel> <Grid> FooView1: <UserControl> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Title}"> </UserControl> FooView2: <UserControl> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail1}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail2}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail3}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail4}"> </UserControl> I've no IDE here. Excuse me if there is any syntax error When the user clicks on a button. These two usercontrols have to be replaced by another two usercontrols, so the datacontext changes, the main ui remaining the same. ie, FooView1 by BarView1 and FooView2 by BarView2 In short i want to bind this view changes in mainview to my command (command from Button) How can i do this? Also tell me if i could merge the usercontrol pairs, so that only one view exists for each viewmodel ie, FooView1 and FooView2 into FooView and so on...

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  • Rails load path questions

    - by HelpMe
    Say I have some custom classes that don't belong in models, controllers etc, I should put this in /lib correct? In rails < 3 I would add this directory to my loadpath and in rails 3+ I would add this to my autoload_path. Is this correct? Now say I have some classes that extends already defined classes. Where should I put this so its run on startup. Forexample say I want to add the method 'foo' on String. class String def foo 'foo; end end Where should I put this class so it's defined on startup? Another weird bug I have is when I try to namespace classes in lib. module MyProject class Foo end end Now in a console: ruby-1.9.2-p136 :004 Bags::Foo LoadError: Expected /Users/me/workspace/my_project/lib/foo.rb to define Foo from /Users/rob/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/activesupport-3.0.3/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:492:in `load_missing_constant' from /Users/rob/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/activesupport-3.0.3/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:183:in `block in const_missing' I keep getting this error. How can I load this file? Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

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  • Help renaming svn repository

    - by rascher
    Here is the deal: I created an SVN repository, say, foo. It is at http://www.example.com/foo. Then I did an svn checkout. I made some updates and changes to my local copy of the code over the week. I haven't committed yet. I realized that I wanted to rename the repository. So I did this: svn copy http://example.com/foo http://example.com/bar svn delete http://example.com/foo I finish my changes (and local svn still thinks I'm working under "foo".) svn commit fails because the repo has been renamed. I try to use svn switch --relocate but it yells at me because svn is awful. I try using the script here to replace "foo" with "bar" in my billion .svn/ folders. This replace is taking a long time. I wonder if something hung? Or maybe sshfs failed? I kill it. Ctrl-C. I look and see that half my files have "foo" and the others have "bar" in the URLs in the sundry .svn/ folders. All I want to do is commit my files with the new name. I could re-checkout the branch, but then I have no way to remember which files I changed, which is why I was using version control in the first place, and svn is so godawful at moving and renaming things. What do I need to do to: Have a "clean" copy of my "bar" svn branch? and, most importantly: Commit the changes I made?

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  • Does this code depend on string interning to work?

    - by Nick Gotch
    I'm creating a key for a dictionary which is a structure of two strings. When I test this method in a console app, it works, but I'm not sure if the only reason it works is because the strings are being interned and therefore have the same references. Foo foo1 = new Foo(); Foo foo2 = new Foo(); foo1.Key1 = "abc"; foo2.Key1 = "abc"; foo1.Key2 = "def"; foo2.Key2 = "def"; Dictionary<Foo, string> bar = new Dictionary<Foo, string>(); bar.Add(foo1, "found"); if(bar.ContainsKey(foo2)) System.Console.WriteLine("This works."); else System.Console.WriteLine("Does not work"); The struct is simply: public struct Foo { public string Key1; public string Key2; } Are there any cases which would cause this to fail or am I good to rely on this as a unique key?

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  • How to properly assign a value to the member of a struct that has a class data type?

    - by sasayins
    Hi, Please kindly see below for the codes. Its compiling successfully but the expected result is not working. Im very confused because my initialization of the array is valid, //cbar.h class CBar { public: class CFoo { public: CFoo( int v ) : m_val = v {} int GetVal() { return m_val; } private: int m_val; }; public: static const CFoo foo1; static const CFoo foo2; public: CBar( CFoo foo ) m_barval( foo.GetVal() ){} int GetFooVal() { return m_barval; } private: int m_barval; }; //cbar.cpp const CBar::CFoo foo1 = CBar::CFoo(2); const CBar::CFoo foo2 = CBar::CFoo(3); //main.cpp struct St { CBar::CFoo foo; }; St st[] = { CBar::foo1, CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } But then when I change the St::foo to a pointer. And like assign the address of CBar::foo1 or CBar::foo2, its working, like this, //main.cpp struct St { const CBar::CFoo *foo; }; St st[] = { &CBar::foo1, &CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( *st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } The real problem is. The app should output 2 3 Please advice. Many thanks.

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  • What happens when ToArray() is called on IEnumerable ?

    - by Sir Psycho
    I'm having trouble understanding what happens when a ToArray() is called on an IEnumerable. I've always assumed that only the references are copied. I would expect the output here to be: true true But instead I get true false What is going on here? class One { public bool Foo { get; set; } } class Two { public bool Foo { get; set; } } void Main() { var collection1 = new[] { new One(), new One() }; IEnumerable<Two> stuff = Convert(collection1); var firstOne = stuff.First(); firstOne.Foo = true; Console.WriteLine (firstOne.Foo); var array = stuff.ToArray(); Console.WriteLine (array[0].Foo); } IEnumerable<Two> Convert(IEnumerable<One> col1) { return from c in col1 select new Two() { Foo = c.Foo }; }

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  • C++ RPC library suggestions

    - by Oxsnarder
    I'm looking for suggestions regarding RPC libraries implemented in C++, for C++ developers. Some requirements constraints: Should work on both linux/unix and win32 systems Be able to execute free function and class methods Hopefully written in modern C++ not 90's/java-esque C++ Be able to function over networks and hetrogenous architectures Not too slow or inefficient Hopefully provide interfaces for TR1 style std::function's et al. My example usage is to invoke the free function foo on a remote machine. ---snip--- // foo translation unit int foo(int i, int j) { return i + j; } ---snip--- ---snip--- // client side main int main() { //register foo on client and server //setup necassary connections and states int result; if (RPCmechanism.invoke("foo",4,9,result)) std::cout << "foo(4,9) = " result << std::endl; else std::cout << "failed to invoke foo(4,9)!" << std::endl; return 0; } ---snip--- Something that can achieve the above or similar would be great.

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  • Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

    - by Anatoliy Gusarov
    class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

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  • Generic delegate instances

    - by Luc C
    I wonder if C# (or the underlying .NET framework) supports some kind of "generic delegate instances": that is a delegate instance that still has an unresolved type parameter, to be resolved at the time the delegate is invoked (not at the time the delegate is created). I suspect this isn't possible, but I'm asking it anyway... Here is an example of what I'd like to do, with some "???" inserted in places where the C# syntax seems to be unavailable for what I want. (Obviously this code doesn't compile) class Foo { public T Factory<T>(string name) { // implementation omitted } } class Test { public void TestMethod() { Foo foo = new Foo(); ??? magic = foo.Factory; // No type argument given here yet to Factory! // What would the '???' be here (other than 'var' :) )? string aString = magic<string>("name 1"); // type provided on call int anInt = magic<int>("name 2"); // another type provided on another call // Note the underlying calls work perfectly fine, these work, but i'd like to expose // the generic method as a delegate. string aString2 = foo.Factory<string>("name 1"); int anInt2 = foo.Factory<int>("name 2"); } } Is there a way to actually do something like this in C#? If not, is that a limitation in the language, or is it in the .NET framework?

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  • Using enum values to represent binary operators (or functions)

    - by Bears will eat you
    I'm looking for an elegant way to use values in a Java enum to represent operations or functions. My guess is, since this is Java, there just isn't going to be a nice way to do it, but here goes anyway. My enum looks something like this: public enum Operator { LT, LTEQ, EQEQ, GT, GTEQ, NEQ; ... } where LT means < (less than), LTEQ means <= (less than or equal to), etc - you get the idea. Now I want to actually use these enum values to apply an operator. I know I could do this just using a whole bunch of if-statements, but that's the ugly, OO way, e.g.: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; // one of the enum values if (foo == Operator.LT) { return a < b; } else if (foo == Operator.LTEQ) { return a <= b; } else if ... // etc What I'd like to be able to do is cut out this structure and use some sort of first-class function or even polymorphism, but I'm not really sure how. Something like: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return foo.apply(a, b); or even int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return a foo.convertToOperator() b; But as far as I've seen, I don't think it's possible to return an operator or function (at least, not without using some 3rd-party library). Any suggestions?

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  • Combine the Address & Search Bars in Firefox

    - by Asian Angel
    The Search Bar in Firefox is very useful for finding additional information or images while browsing but the UI space it takes up can be frustrating at times. Now you can reclaim that UI space and still have access to all that searching goodness with the Foobar extension. Note: This is about the Foobar Firefox extension and not to be confused with Foobar2000 the open source music player. Before If you have the “Search Bar” displayed there is no doubt that it is taking up valuable space in your browser’s UI. What you need is the ability to reclaim that UI space and still have the same access to your search capability as before…no more sacrificing one for a gain with the other. After As soon as you have installed the extension you can see that the top part of your browser will look much sleeker without the “Search Bar” to clutter it up. The “Search Engine Icon” will now be visible inside of your “Address Bar” as seen here. You will be able to access the same “Search Engine Menu” as before by clicking on the “Search Engine Icon”. There are two display modes for search results (setting available in the “Options”). The first one shown here is “Simple Mode” where all results are in a condensed format. Notice that not only are there search suggestions but also “Bookmarks & History” listings as well. You can literally get the best of both when conducting a search. Note: The number of entries for search suggestions and bookmark/history listings can be adjusted higher or lower in the “Options”. The second one is “Rich Mode” where the results are shown with more details. Choose the “mode” that best suits your personal style. For our first example you can see the results when we conducted a quick search on “Windows 7” (using the first of the three offerings shown from Bing). Our second example was a search for “Flowers” using our Photobucket search engine. Once again nice results opened in a new tab for us. Options The options are easy to go through. It is really nice to be able to choose the number of results that you want displayed and the format that you want them shown in. Note: Changing the “Suggestion popup style” will require a browser restart to take effect. Conclusion If you love using the “Search Bar” in Firefox but want to reclaim the UI space then you will definitely want to add this extension to your browser. The ability to customize the number of results and choose the formatting make this extension even better. Links Download the Foobar extension (Mozilla Add-ons) Similar Articles Productive Geek Tips Combine the Address Bar and Progress Bar Together in FirefoxHide Some or All of the GUI Bars in FirefoxEnable Partial Match AutoComplete in the Firefox Address BarQuick Firefox UI TweaksAdd Search Forms to the Firefox Search Bar TouchFreeze Alternative in AutoHotkey The Icy Undertow Desktop Windows Home Server – Backup to LAN The Clear & Clean Desktop Use This Bookmarklet to Easily Get Albums Use AutoHotkey to Assign a Hotkey to a Specific Window Latest Software Reviews Tinyhacker Random Tips Revo Uninstaller Pro Registry Mechanic 9 for Windows PC Tools Internet Security Suite 2010 PCmover Professional Scan your PC for nasties with Panda ActiveScan CleanMem – Memory Cleaner AceStock – The Personal Stock Monitor Add Multiple Tabs to Office Programs The Wearing of the Green – St. Patrick’s Day Theme (Firefox) Perform a Background Check on Yourself

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  • Cannot add namespace prefix to children using XSL

    - by Erdal
    I checked many answers here and I think I am almost there. One thing that is bugging me (and for some reason my peer needs it) follows: I have the following input XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <MyRoot> <MyRequest CompletionCode="0" CustomerID="9999999999"/> <List TotalList="1"> <Order CustomerID="999999999" OrderNo="0000000001" Status="Shipped"> <BillToAddress ZipCode="22221"/> <ShipToAddress ZipCode="22222"/> <Totals Tax="0.50" SubTotal="10.00" Shipping="4.95"/> </Order> </List> <Errors/> </MyRoot> I was asked to produce this: <ns:MyNewRoot xmlns:ns="http://schemas.foo.com/response" xmlns:N1="http://schemas.foo.com/request" xmlns:N2="http://schemas.foo.com/details"> <N1:MyRequest CompletionCode="0" CustomerID="9999999999"/> <ns:List TotalList="1"> <N2:Order CustomerID="999999999" Level="Preferred" Status="Shipped"> <N2:BillToAddress ZipCode="22221"/> <N2:ShipToAddress ZipCode="22222"/> <N2:Totals Tax="0.50" SubTotal="10.00" Shipping="4.95"/> </N2:Order> </ns:List> <ns:Errors/> </ns:MyNewRoot> Note the children of the N2:Order also needs N2: prefix as well as the ns: prefix for the rest of the elements. I use the XSL transformation below: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="@* | node()"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/MyRoot"> <MyNewRoot xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/response" xmlns:N1="http://schemas.foo.com/request" xmlns:N2="http://schemas.foo.com/details"> <xsl:apply-templates/> </MyNewRoot> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/MyRoot/MyRequest"> <xsl:element name="N1:{name()}" namespace="http://schemas.foo.com/request"> <xsl:copy-of select="namespace::*"/> <xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/MyRoot/List/Order"> <xsl:element name="N2:{name()}" namespace="http://schemas.foo.com/details"> <xsl:copy-of select="namespace::*"/> <xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> This one doesn't process the ns (I couldn't figure this out). When I process thru the above the XSL transformation with AltovaXML I end up with below: <MyNewRoot xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/response" xmlns:N1="http://schemas.foo.com/request" xmlns:N2="http://schemas.foo.com/details"> <N1:MyRequest CompletionCode="0" CustomerID="9999999999"/> <List xmlns="" TotalList="1"> <N2:Order CustomerID="999999999" Level="Preferred" Status="Shipped"> <BillToAddress ZipCode="22221"/> <ShipToAddress ZipCode="22222"/> <Totals Tax="0.50" SubTotal="10.00" Shipping="4.95"/> </N2:Order> </List> <Errors/> </MyNewRoot> Note that N2: prefix for the children of Order is not there after the XSL transformation. Also additional xmlns="" in the Order header (for some reason). I couldn't figure out putting the ns: prefix for the rest of the elements (like Errors and List). First of all, why would I need to put the prefix for the children if the parent already has it. Doesn't the parent namespace dictate the children nodes/attribute namespaces? Secondly, I want to add the prefixes in the above XML as expected, how can I do that with XSL?

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  • What does Active, Targetset, and Active targetset mean in the Output of dfsutil /pkiinfo?

    - by Kyle Brandt
    I could use some guidance in interpreting the output of dfsutil /pktinfo. Using the following example: PS C:\Users\kbrandt dfsutil.exe /pktinfo ... Entry: \long.biz.foo\Images ShortEntry: \long.biz.foo\Images Expires in 4 seconds UseCount: 1 Type:0x81 ( REFERRAL_SVC DFS ) 0:[\OR-UTIL01\Images] ( TARGETSET ) 1:[\NY-FS01\Images] AccessStatus: 0xc00000be ( TARGETSET ) 2:[\NY-UTIL01\Images] AccessStatus: 0 ( ACTIVE ) Entry: \NY-UTIL01\Images ShortEntry: \NY-UTIL01\Images Expires in 65 seconds UseCount: 0 Type:0x81 ( REFERRAL_SVC DFS ) 0:[\or-util01\Images] ( TARGETSET ) 1:[\NY-FS01\Images] AccessStatus: 0xc00000be ( TARGETSET ) 2:[\NY-UTIL01\Images] AccessStatus: 0 ( ACTIVE ) Entry: \or-util01\Images ShortEntry: \or-util01\Images Expires in 0 seconds UseCount: 0 Type:0x81 ( REFERRAL_SVC DFS ) 0:[\OR-UTIL01\Images] AccessStatus: 0 ( ACTIVE TARGETSET ) 1:[\NY-UTIL01\Images] ( TARGETSET ) 2:[\NY-FS01\Images] Entry: \FOO\Images ShortEntry: \FOO\Images Expires in 108 seconds UseCount: 0 Type:0x81 ( REFERRAL_SVC DFS ) 0:[\OR-UTIL01\Images] AccessStatus: 0 ( ACTIVE TARGETSET ) 1:[\NY-UTIL01\Images] ( TARGETSET ) 2:[\NY-FS01\Images] What do the three states TARGETSET, ACTIVE TARGETSET, and ACTIVE mean exactly? In particular, why might OR-UTIL01 be ACTIVE for \long.biz.foo\Images but the shortname version FOO\Images have NY-UTIL01 as ACTIVE TARGETSET? I'd like to have a better understanding of this to know if it is normal or not. Once I understand it, I might be looking at and issue with IPv6 being disabled (http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2003961) if this isn't normal.

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  • Why Does DreamWeaver CS5 Discriminate between File Extensions, Even After Modding Mime Types!?

    - by Sam
    Hi folks, Even After I forced DreamWeaver CS5 to allow opening of .ast extensions as a MIME type of php5, which DreamWeaver now opens and colors correctly as described here, I still have trouble figuring out why it still discriminates between the two file extensions! Symptoms: External Files & Design View I have a file foo.php which php includes other files (e.g. the php-combined css.php and js.php). Now, when opening foo.php all functions work perfectly: the external (included) php files are all recognised correctly. However, when I change foo.php foo.ast, and open it again, It does not recognise the files extensions anymore in the top bar. Also, I lose the Design / Live View functionality.** When I change foo.ast to foo.php, all works again! Anyone any clues of why there remains a a difference between one and other extension? Note1: I have added the .ast extension to these four files, next to .php: 1 C:\Users\Sam\AppData\Local\VirtualStore\Program Files (x86)\Adobe\Adobe Dreamweaver CS5\configuration\DocumentTypes\MMDocumentTypes.xml 2 C:\Program Files (x86)\Adobe\Adobe Dreamweaver CS5\configuration\DocumentTypes\MMDocumentTypes.xml 3 C:\Users\Sam\AppData\Roaming\Adobe\Dreamweaver CS5\en_US\Configuration\Extensions.txt 4 C:\Program Files (x86)\Adobe\Adobe Dreamweaver CS5\configuration\Extensions.txt Note2: sometimes, even .php files do not want to show in design view or live view. Could this be caused by a corrupted installation?

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  • Under what conditions will sendmail try to immediately resend a message instead of waiting for the standard requeue interval?

    - by Mike B
    CentOS 5.8 | Sendmail 8.14.4 I used to think that if SendMail experienced a temporary (400-class) error during delivery, it would place the message in a deferred queue (e.g. /var/spool/mqueue) and retry an hour later. For the most part, that appears to be the case. But every now and then, I'll notice log entries like this (email/domains renamed to protect the innocent :-) ) : Dec 5 01:43:03 foobox-out sendmail [11078]: qBE3l7js123022: to=<[email protected]>, delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=124588, relay=exbox.foo.com. [10.10.10.10], dsn=4.0.0, stat=Deferred: 421 4.3.2 The maximum number of concurrent connections has exceeded a limit, closing transmission channel Dec 5 01:53:34 foobox-out sendmail [12763]: qBE3l7js123022: to=<[email protected]>, delay=00:10:31, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=214588, relay=exbox.foo.com., dsn=4.0.0, stat=Deferred: 452 4.3.1 Insufficient system resources Dec 5 02:53:35 foobox-out sendmail [23255]: qBE3l7js123022: to=<[email protected]>, delay=01:10:32, xdelay=00:00:01, mailer=relay, pri=304588, relay=exbox.foo.com. [10.10.10.10], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (<[email protected]> Queued mail for delivery) Why did Sendmail try again just 10 minutes after the first attempt and then wait another hour before trying again? If this is expected behavior, what scenarios will cause this faster requeue interval to occur?

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  • vim does not preserve symlink over sshfs

    - by HighCommander4
    I'm having some trouble with symlinks and sshfs. I use the '-o follow_symlinks' option to follow symlinks on the server side, but whenever I edit a symlinked file on the client side with vim, a copy of it is made on the server side, i.e. it's no longer a symlink. Set up a symlink on the server side: me@machine1:~$ echo foo > test.txt me@machine1:~$ mkdir test me@machine1:~$ cd test me@machine1:~/test$ ln -s ../test.txt test.txt me@machine1:~/test$ ls -al test.txt lrwxrwxrwx 1 me me 11 Jan 5 21:13 test.txt -> ../test.txt me@machine1:~/test$ cat test.txt foo me@machine1:~/test$ cat ../test.txt foo So far so good. Now: me@machine2:~$ mkdir test me@machine2:~$ sshfs me@machine1:test test -o follow_symlinks me@machine2:~$ cd test me@machine2:~/test$ vim test.txt [in vim, add a new line "bar" to the file] me@machine2:~/test$ cat test.txt foo bar Now observe what this does to the file on the server side: me@machine1:~/test$ ls -al test.txt -rw-r--r-- 1 me me 19 Jan 5 21:24 test.txt me@machine1:~/test$ cat test.txt foo bar me@machine1:~/test$ cat ../test.txt foo As you can see, it made a copy and only edited the copy. How can I get it to work so it actually follows the symlink when editing the file?

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  • Multiple rack apps on nginx + passenger, one as root, the other not...config help

    - by cannikin
    So I've got two apps I want to run on a server. One app I would like to be the "default" app--that is, all URLs should be sent this app by default, except for a certain path, lets call it /foo: http://mydomain.com/ -> app1 http://mydomain.com/apples -> app1 http://mydomain.com/foo -> app2 My two rack apps are installed like so: /var /www /apps /app1 app.rb config.ru /public /app2 app.rb config.ru /public app1 -> apps/app1/public app2 -> apps/app2/public (app1 and app2 are symlinks to their respective apps' public directories). This is the Passenger setup for sub URIs described here: http://www.modrails.com/documentation/Users%20guide%20Nginx.html#deploying_rack_to_sub_uri With the following config I've got /foo going to app2: server { listen 80; server_name mydomain.com; root /var/www; passenger_enabled on; passenger_base_uri /app1; passenger_base_uri /app2; location /foo { rewrite ^.*$ /app2 last; } } Now, how do I get app1 to pick up everything else? I've tried the following (placed after the location /foo directive), but I get a 500 with an infinite internal redirect in error.log: location / { rewrite ^(.*)$ /app1$1 last; } I hoped that the last directive would prevent that infinite redirect, but I guess not. /foo gets the same error. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Limit access on Apache 2.4 to ldap group

    - by jakobbg
    I've upgraded from Ubuntu 12.04 LTS to 14.04 LTS, and suddenly, my Apache 2.4 (previous: Apache 2.2) now lets everybody in to my virtual host, which is unfortunate :-). What am I doing wrong? Anything with the Order/Allow lines? Any help is greatly appreciated! Here's my current config; <VirtualHost *:443> DavLockDB /etc/apache2/var/DavLock ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName foo.mydomain.com DocumentRoot /srv/www/foo Include ssl-vhosts.conf <Directory /srv/www/foo> Order allow,deny Allow from all Dav On Options FollowSymLinks Indexes AllowOverride None AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthType Basic AuthName "Domain foo" AuthLDAPURL "ldap://localhost:389/dc=mydomain,dc=com?uid" NONE AuthLDAPBindDN "cn=searchUser, dc=mydomain, dc=com" AuthLDAPBindPassword "ThisIsThePwd" require ldap-group cn=users,dc=mydomain,dc=com <FilesMatch '^\.[Dd][Ss]_[Ss]'> Order allow,deny Deny from all </FilesMatch> <FilesMatch '\.[Dd][Bb]'> Order allow,deny Deny from all </FilesMatch> </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error-foo.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access-foo.log combined </VirtualHost>

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • volatile keyword seems to be useless?

    - by Finbarr
    import java.util.concurrent.CountDownLatch; import java.util.concurrent.atomic.AtomicInteger; public class Main implements Runnable { private final CountDownLatch cdl1 = new CountDownLatch(NUM_THREADS); private volatile int bar = 0; private AtomicInteger count = new AtomicInteger(0); private static final int NUM_THREADS = 25; public static void main(String[] args) { Main main = new Main(); for(int i = 0; i < NUM_THREADS; i++) new Thread(main).start(); } public void run() { int i = count.incrementAndGet(); cdl1.countDown(); try { cdl1.await(); } catch (InterruptedException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } bar = i; if(bar != i) System.out.println("Bar not equal to i"); else System.out.println("Bar equal to i"); } } Each Thread enters the run method and acquires a unique, thread confined, int variable i by getting a value from the AtomicInteger called count. Each Thread then awaits the CountDownLatch called cdl1 (when the last Thread reaches the latch, all Threads are released). When the latch is released each thread attempts to assign their confined i value to the shared, volatile, int called bar. I would expect every Thread except one to print out "Bar not equal to i", but every Thread prints "Bar equal to i". Eh, wtf does volatile actually do if not this?

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  • c++ figuring out memory layout of members programatically

    - by anon
    Suppose in one program, I'm given: class Foo { int x; double y; char z; }; class Bar { Foo f1; int t; Foo f2; }; int main() { Bar b; bar.f1.z = 'h'; bar.f2.z = 'w'; ... some crap setting value of b; FILE *f = fopen("dump", "wb"); // c-style file fwrite(&b, sizeof(Bar), 1, f); } Suppose in another program, I have: int main() { File *f = fopen("dump", "rb"); std::string Foo = "int x; double y; char z;"; std::string Bar = "Foo f1; int t; Foo f2;"; // now, given this is it possible to read out // the value of bar.f1.z and bar.f2.z set earlier? } WHat I'm asking is: given I have the types of a class, can I figure out how C++ lays it out?

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  • Ruby on Rails: temporarily update an attribute into cache without saving it?

    - by randombits
    I have a bit of code that depicts this hypothetical setup below. A class Foo which contains many Bars. Bar belongs to one and only one Foo. At some point, Foo can do a finite loop that lapses 2+ iterations. In that loop, something like the following happens: bar = Bar.find_where_in_use_is_zero bar.in_use = 1 Basically what find_where_in_use_is_zero does something like this in as far as SQL goes: SELECT * from bars WHERE in_use = 0 Now the problem I'm facing is that I cannot run the following line of code after bar.in_use =1 is invoked: bar.save The reason is clear, I'm still looping and the new Foo hasn't been created, so we don't have a foo_id to put into bars.foo_id. Even if I set to allow foo_id to be NULL, we have a problem where one of the bars can fail validation and the existing one was saved to the database. In my application, that doesn't work. The entire request is atomic, either all succeeds or fails together. What happens next, is that in my loop, I have the potential to select the same exact bar that I did on a previous iteration of the loop since the in_use flag will not be set to 1 until @foo.save is called. Is there anyway to work around this condition and temporarily set the in_use attribute to 1 for subsequent iterations of the loop so that I retrieve an available bar instance?

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