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• Strong Naming an assembly using command line compile

  - by David

  I am trying to use NAnt in order to compile and sign an assembly using the vbc compiler. I have a project set up and am able to successfully sign the assembly compiling with VS2010. When I try to sign it using the command line I get this error: vbc : error BC30140: Error creating assembly manifest: Error signing assembly -- The parameter is incorrect. I even created a trivially simple app (just an assemblyinfo.vb file) that will not compile and sign using vbc.exe What am I doing wrong? here is my assemblyinfo.vb: Option Strict Off Option Explicit On Imports System Imports System.Reflection <Assembly: AssemblyVersionAttribute("2010.05.18.0918"), _ Assembly: AssemblyCopyrightAttribute("Copyright © Patient First 2007"), _ Assembly: AssemblyCompanyAttribute("Patient First, Inc."), _ Assembly: AssemblyProductAttribute("Patient First Framework"), _ Assembly: AssemblyDelaySign(false), _ Assembly: AssemblyKeyFile("test.pfx"), _ Assembly: AssemblyTitleAttribute("PatientFirst.Framework")> test.pfx is located in the same folder as assemblyinfo.vb Here is how I am trying to compile it: vbc /target:library /verbose assemblyinfo.vb I also tried using vbc /target:library /verbose assemblyinfo.vb /keyfile:test.pfx and tried using /keyfile parameter without the AssemblyDelaySign and AssemblyKeyFile attributes If I remove the AssemblyDelaySign and AssemblyKeyFile attributes and leave off the /keyfile command line parameter it compiles fine. What is the correct way to do this with vbc? --EDIT: I have found that MSBuild also does not like having the AssemblyKeyFile attribute as I have defined it in the AssemblyInfo.vb, it gives the same failure message. So the only way I can currently get this to build correctly is to set properties on the project to tell it which key file to use and to sign the assembly.

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• ASP.Net MVC2 (RTM) breaks response filtering - "Filtering is not allowed"

  - by womp

  I've just done a test run of upgrading a project to ASP.Net MVC 2 (RTM) in anticipation of the full official .Net 4.0 release coming later this month. Our application is using a minimizer for our CSS and javascript. To do so, it is making use of the HttpResponse.Filter property to set a custom filter. With the upgrade, the setter for this property is throwing an HttpException saying "Filtering is not allowed." Looking that the HttpResponse.Filter property in reflector shows this: set { if (!this.UsingHttpWriter) { throw new HttpException(SR.GetString("Filtering_not_allowed")); } ... private bool UsingHttpWriter { get { return ((this._httpWriter != null) && (this._writer == this._httpWriter)); } } Clearly something has changed in the way the HttpResponse is writing to the output stream in MVC2. Does anyone know what the change is, or at least a workaround for this? EDIT: This seems pretty radical. Some further investigation shows that ASP.Net MVC 2 RTM is using a System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage.SwitchWriter as the Output property of an HttpResponse, whereas MVC 1 was using a plain old HttpWriter. That explains why the exception is being thrown. But that doesn't explain why they've chosen to completely break this functionality. This thread seems to indicate that this is just temporary... but this makes me pretty nervous... this is the RTM after all. Any further comments appreciated on this.

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• wpf 4.0 datagrid template column two-way binding problem

  - by rouwlee

  Hello all! I'm using the datagrid from wpf 4.0. This has a TemplateColumn containing a checkbox. The IsChecked property of the checkbox is set via binding. The problem is that even if I specify the binding mode explicitly to be TwoWay, it works only in one direction. I have to mention that the same code works perfectly in .net 3.5 with the datagrid from the wpf toolkit. Please take a look at the .xaml and .cs contents. Thanks in advance, Roland <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="IsSelectedColumnTemplate"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsSelected, Mode=TwoWay}" /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <DataGrid x:Name="dataGrid" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CanUserAddRows="False" CanUserDeleteRows="False" HeadersVisibility="Column" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Preselected" x:Name="myIsSelectedColumn" CellTemplate="{StaticResource IsSelectedColumnTemplate}" CanUserSort="True" SortMemberPath="Orientation" Width="Auto" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> and the related .cs content: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); ObservableCollection<DataObject> DataSource = new ObservableCollection<DataObject>(); DataSource.Add(new DataObject()); dataGrid.ItemsSource = DataSource; } } public class DataObject : DependencyObject { public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for IsSelected. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(DataObject), new UIPropertyMetadata(false, OnIsSelectedChanged)); private static void OnIsSelectedChanged(DependencyObject obj, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { // this part is not reached } }

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• Visual Studio 2010 64-bit COM Interop Issue

  - by Adam Driscoll

  I am trying to add a VC6 COM DLL to our VS2010RC C# solution. The DLL was compiled with the VC6 tools to create an x86 version and was compiled with the VC7 Cross-platform tools to generate a VC7 DLL. The x86 version of the assembly works fine as long as the consuming C# project's platform is set to x86. It doesn't matter whether the x64 or the x86 version of the DLL is actually registered. It works with both. If the platform is set to 'Any CPU' I receive a BadImageFormatException on the load of the Interop.<name>.dll. As for the x64 version, I cannot even get the project to build. I receive the tlbimp error: TlbImp : error TI0000: A single valid machine type compatible with the input type library must be specified. Has anyone seen this issue? EDIT: I've done a lot more digging into this issue and think this may be a Visual Studio bug. I have a clean solution. I bring in my COM assembly with language agnostic 'Any CPU' selected. The process architecture of the resulting Interop DLL is x86 rather than MSIL. May have to make the Interop by hand for now to get this to work. If anyone has another suggestion let me know.

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• Windows Azure : Storage Client Exception Unhandled

  - by veda

  I am writing a code for upload large files into the blobs using blocks... When I tested it, it gave me an StorageClientException It stated: One of the request inputs is out of range. I got this exception in this line of the code: blob.PutBlock(block, ms, null); Here is my code: protected void ButUploadBlocks_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // store upladed file as a blob storage if (uplFileUpload.HasFile) { name = uplFileUpload.FileName; byte[] byteArray = uplFileUpload.FileBytes; Int64 contentLength = byteArray.Length; int numBytesPerBlock = 250 *1024; // 250KB per block int blocksCount = (int)Math.Ceiling((double)contentLength / numBytesPerBlock); // number of blocks MemoryStream ms ; List<string>BlockIds = new List<string>(); string block; int offset = 0; // get refernce to the cloud blob container CloudBlobContainer blobContainer = cloudBlobClient.GetContainerReference("documents"); // set the name for the uploading files string UploadDocName = name; // get the blob reference and set the metadata properties CloudBlockBlob blob = blobContainer.GetBlockBlobReference(UploadDocName); blob.Properties.ContentType = uplFileUpload.PostedFile.ContentType; for (int i = 0; i < blocksCount; i++, offset = offset + numBytesPerBlock) { block = Convert.ToBase64String(BitConverter.GetBytes(i)); ms = new MemoryStream(); ms.Write(byteArray, offset, numBytesPerBlock); blob.PutBlock(block, ms, null); BlockIds.Add(block); } blob.PutBlockList(BlockIds); blob.Metadata["FILETYPE"] = "text"; } } Can anyone tell me how to solve it...

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• Manually iterating over a selection of XML elements (C#, XDocument)

  - by user316117

  What is the “best practice” way of manually iterating (i.e., one at a time with a “next” button) over a set of XElements in my XDocument? Say I select the set of elements I want thusly: var elems = from XElement el in m_xDoc.Descendants() where (el.Name.LocalName.ToString() == "q_a") select el; I can use an IEnumerator to iterate over them, i.e., IEnumerator m_iter; But when I get to the end and I want to wrap around to the beginning if I call Reset() on it, it throws a NotSupportedException. That’s because, as the Microsoft C# 2.0 Specification under chapter 22 "Iterators" says "Note that enumerator objects do not support the IEnumerator.Reset method. Invoking this method causes a System.NotSupportedException to be thrown ." So what IS the right way of doing this? And what if I also want to have bidirectional iteration, i.e., a “back” button, too? Someone on a Microsoft discussion forum said I shouldn’t be using IEnumerable directly anyway. He said there was a way to do what I want with LINQ but I didn’t understand what. Someone else suggested dumping the XElements into a List with ToList(), which I think would work, but I wasn’t sure it was “best practice”. Thanks in advance for any suggestions!

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• How does [self.tableView reloadData] know what data to reload?

  - by Scott Pendleton

  It bugs me to death that my viewcontroller, which happens to be a tableViewController, knows without being told that its property that is an NSArray or an NSDictionary holds the data that is to be loaded into the table for display. Seems like I should explicitly say something like: [self.tableView useData:self.MyArray]; Because, THAT'S WHAT I WANT TO DO! I want to have more than one array inside my tableViewController, and switch between one and the other programmatically. Please do not give me an answer like: "Never mind what you want to do, just set up two different tableViewControllers." No. I want to do it my way. I notice that when a tableViewController makes use of a searchViewController, you can do this: if (tableView == self.searchDisplayController.searchResultsTableView) { YES! I have even been able to do this: self.tableView = self.searchDisplayController.searchResultsTableView; [self.tableView reloadData]; But nowhere can I find how to set self.tableView back to the main datasource! I'm so tired of sifting, sifting through code for incomplete nuggets of enlightenment. Allow me to understate that Apple's documentation is grossly inadequate. It's astounding that so many slick iPhone programs came to be created. People said that once I went Mac, I'd never go back to Windows. Well, I'm anything but a convert.

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• Rewind request body stream

  - by Despertar

  I am re-implementing a request logger as Owin Middleware which logs the request url and body of all incoming requests. I am able to read the body, but if I do the body parameter in my controller is null. I'm guessing it's null because the stream position is at the end so there is nothing left to read when it tries to deserialize the body. I had a similar issue in a previous version of Web API but was able to set the Stream position back to 0. This particular stream throws a This stream does not support seek operations exception. In the most recent version of Web API 2.0 I could call Request.HttpContent.ReadAsStringAsync()inside my request logger, and the body would still arrive to the controller in tact. How can I rewind the stream after reading it? or How can I read the request body without consuming it? public class RequestLoggerMiddleware : OwinMiddleware { public RequestLoggerMiddleware(OwinMiddleware next) : base(next) { } public override Task Invoke(IOwinContext context) { return Task.Run(() => { string body = new StreamReader(context.Request.Body).ReadToEnd(); // log body context.Request.Body.Position = 0; // cannot set stream position back to 0 Console.WriteLine(context.Request.Body.CanSeek); // prints false this.Next.Invoke(context); }); } } public class SampleController : ApiController { public void Post(ModelClass body) { // body is now null if the middleware reads it } }

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• Vimdiff with git mergetool error: "More than two buffers in diff mode"

  - by Elizabeth Buckwalter

  I've read Vimdiff and Viewing differences with Vimdiff plus doing various google searches using things like "vimdiff multiple", "vimdiff git", "vimdiff commands" etc. When using do or diffg I get the error "More than two buffers in diff mode, don't know which one to use". When using diffg v:fname_in I get "No matching buffer for v:fname_in". From the vimdiff documentation: :[range]diffg[et] [bufspec] Modify the current buffer to undo difference with another buffer. If [bufspec] is given, that buffer is used. If [bufspec] refers to the current buffer then nothing happens. Otherwise this only works if there is one other buffer in diff mode. and more: When 'diffexpr' is not empty, Vim evaluates to obtain a diff file in the format mentioned. These variables are set to the file names used: v:fname_in original file v:fname_new new version of the same file v:fname_out resulting diff file So, I need to get the name of bufspec, but the default variables (fname_in, fname_new, and fname_out) aren't set. I ran the command git mergetool on a linux box through a terminal.

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• jerky animation using Core Animation

  - by Paul from Boston

  In my iPhone app, I am trying to get some red and white stripes that are scrolling across the screen to animate smoothly when the speed of the stripes gets high. In my app the user starts the animation and changes the scrolling speed by a finger swipe and changes the width of the stripes by a two finger pinch. Animation is stopped in response to a double tap. If the speed gets high or the stripes get narrow the animation is no longer smooth to the eye. The edges of the stripes seem to jump around. The animation is simple. I draw the stripes in a layer that's a bit larger than the screen. I then set up an animation that moves the layer position by exactly the distance from one red stripe to the next. The duration is set by the speed of the finger swipe and the repeat count is 1. When the animation stops the delegate checks a flag to see if the user wants to stop the scrolling. If not, the animation is restarted again for one cycle. Are there better ways of doing this so that the animation is smooth at high speeds or with narrow stripes? Thanks--

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• C# update GUI continuously from backgroundworker.

  - by Qrew

  I have created a GUI (winforms) and added a backgroundworker to run in a separate thread. The backgroundworker needs to update 2 labels continuously. The backgroundworker thread should start with button1 click and run forever. class EcuData { public int RPM { get; set; } public int MAP { get; set; } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { EcuData data = new EcuData { RPM = 0, MAP = 0 }; BackWorker1.RunWorkerAsync(data); } private void BackWorker1_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { EcuData argumentData = e.Argument as EcuData; int x = 0; while (x<=10) { // // Code for reading in data from hardware. // argumentData.RPM = x; //x is for testing only! argumentData.MAP = x * 2; //x is for testing only! e.Result = argumentData; Thread.Sleep(100); x++; } private void BackWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted_1(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { EcuData data = e.Result as EcuData; label1.Text = data.RPM.ToString(); label2.Text = data.MAP.ToString(); } } The above code just updated the GUI when backgroundworker is done with his job, and that's not what I'm looking for.

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• Asp.Net membership via ASP.NET Website Administrator Tool

  - by luppi

  I created a database with aspnet_regsql, the database was created in sql sever 2008 and not in data folder in my project (do I need to move it to the folder manually?). Next, in Web Site Administration Tool I went to provider section and clicked don Test button. I got an error: Could not establish a connection to the database. If you have not yet created the SQL Server database, exit the Web Site Administration tool, use the aspnet_regsql command-line utility to create and configure the database, and then return to this tool to set the provider. Maybe I need to set something in a web.config, like membership settings or connection strings (or ASP.NET Website Administrator Tool should create those settings for me)? Update: Maybe it happens because I am using SQL server 2008 full and not express? Update 2: After setting membership section and connection string to my aspnetdb database in Web Site Administration Tool I've opened security-Security Setup Wizard-Define Roles (stage 4) I got this error: An error was encountered. Please return to the previous page and try again. The following message may help in diagnosing the problem: Unable to connect to SQL Server database. at System.Web.Administration.WebAdminPage.CallWebAdminHelperMethod(Boolean isMembership, String methodName, Object[] parameters, Type[] paramTypes) at ASP.security_wizard_wizardpermission_ascx.OnInit(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) at System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) at System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) at System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) at System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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• Self-reference entity in Hibernate

  - by Marco

  Hi guys, I have an Action entity, that can have other Action objects as child in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. The problem is that Hibernate outputs the following exception: "Repeated column in mapping for collection: DbAction.childs column: actionId" Below the code of the mapping: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="DbAction" table="actions"> <id name="actionId" type="short" /> <property not-null="true" name="value" type="string" /> <set name="childs" table="action_action" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-many column="actionId" unique="true" class="DbAction" /> </set> <join table="action_action" inverse="true" optional="false"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-one name="parentAction" column="actionId" not-null="true" class="DbAction" /> </join> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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• Unable to Update Sharepoint Document Properties : Required Fields are Empty.

  - by Pari

  Hi, I am updating Documents on Sharepoint using List.asmx web service. But problem i am facing is: Fields are not getting Updated as some of required fields are not added. But to fill required fields i have to again Update. "ID" field is compulsary at the time of Update. Which we get only after uploading Document.( we get this id by "ows_id" attriute value) Edit : As said by "Janis Veinbergs" We can't get this ID untill document is actualy saved. So how will i update document as ID field is must for Update. If i don't Put ID Field : Error : 0x8102000aInvalid URL Parameter The URL provided contains an invalid Command or Value. Please check the URL again. If i put Null Value to it: Error :0x81020016Item does not exist The page you selected contains an item that does not exist. It may have been deleted by another user. Is there any way to set document properties at the time of uploaidng files on Sharepoint. *Note : i am uploading file in Chunck.And Not using Microsoft.sharepoint.dll * Language : C# I tried this code But here again properties are being set after uploading file.

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• Autorotate works for iOS 6 but gives weird behavior in iOS 5

  - by Jeanne

  I seem to be having the opposite problem from this post: Autorotate in iOS 6 has strange behaviour When I submitted my paid app to Apple, XCode made me update to iOS 6 on my test devices. I used the GUI in XCode to set my app to display only in portrait mode on the iPhone and only in landscape mode on the iPad. This works great on my iOS 6 iPhone and iPad. In iOS 5, however, the iPad is allowing the app to rotate to portrait, displaying my buttons in a letterbox-like black area that shouldn't be there, and crashing repeatedly. I am using a Navigation Controller and storyboards. I know shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation is deprecated in iOS 6, but figuring it should still be called in iOS 5, I tried this: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { if ((UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft))||(UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight))) { return YES; } else return NO; } else { if ((UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationPortrait))||(UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown))) { return YES; } else return NO; } // Return YES for supported orientations } The above code seems to have done nothing. I am putting it in each of my view controllers; it seems I should really be putting it in my navigation controller, but because I set that up graphically, I'm not sure how to do that. Do I have to subclass my navigation controller and do everything in code? There must be a way to use the storyboard settings for this! (Note: I am not using AutoLayout and apparently can't because of some older components I am including my software that just plain don't like it.) What might be causing this? I'd like to fix it before too many people buy the app and complain! Thanks in advance...

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• Silverlight MergedDictionary - Attribute Value out of Range

  - by Wonko the Sane

  Hello All, I have a Silverlight-3 solution that contains a few different projects. I want to have one "common" project for holding controls and resources that will be used by multiple other projects. Within the common project, there is a folder called Resources, which holds a ResourceDictionary (CommonColors.xaml). This is set to be built as a Resource, Do Not Copy. I add a reference to the common project in another project (call it UncommonControls), and attempt to add the ResourceDictionary as a MergedDictionary: <UserControl.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="/Common;component/Resources/CommonColors.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="/UncommonControls;component/Resources/UncommonStyles.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </UserControl.Resources> When I try to run, I get an exception: Attribute /Common;component/Resources/CommonColors.xaml value is out of range. [Line: 14 Position: 44] --- Inner Exception --- The given key was not present in the dictionary. However, if I reference a ResourceDictionary local to Uncommon (such as the UncommonStyles.xaml, above) project, which is set up with the same Build properties, it works fine. I haven't seen anything that says SL3 can't reference an external ResourceDictionary (on the contrary, I've seen an example of using one, albeit with no downloadable project to verify the behavior). Thanks, Wonko

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• Using initParams in Silverlight 4 project

  - by Silverlight Beginner

  I'm trying to upgrade a project that uses Silverlight 2 to use Silverlight 4 but I have problem with initparam to set domain. The old Silverlight 2 project: <form id="form1" runat="server" style="height:100%;"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <div style="height:100%;"> <asp:Silverlight ID="Xaml1" runat="server" Source="~/ClientBin/EKAKC.xap" MinimumVersion="2.0.31005.0" Width="100%" Height="100%" /> </div> </form> And from Default.aspx.cs: Xaml1.InitParameters += "Domain=" + domain; The new Silverlight 4 project: <body style="height: 100%; margin: 0;"> <form id="form1" runat="server" style="height: 100%;"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object type="application/x-silverlight-2" data="data:application/x-silverlight," width="300" height="300"> <param name="source" value="EKAKC.xap"/> <param name="initParams" value="<%= string.Format("WCFReferenceURL={0}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["WCFReferenceURL"])%>" /> </object> </div> The Domain will not be set in my new Silverlight 4 project

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• ASP.NET MVC2 : How to use radiobuttons in a grid ?

  - by Stef

  Again a question about RadioButtons/ RadionButtonList I've the following Model: public class **SkillLevelModel** { public long? Id { get; set; } public int? SelectedLevel { get; set;} } I've the following Controller: public class SkillController : BaseController { public ActionResult Index() { var skills = new List<SkillLevelModel>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) skills.Add(new SkillLevelModel() { Id = i, SelectedLevel = new Random().Next(0,5) }); return View(skills); } I've the following code in the View: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td style="width: 30px" align="center"> <%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %> </td> <td> <% Html.RenderPartial("UCSkillLevel", item); %> </td> </tr> <% } %> I've the following code in the PartialView: <% for (int i = 0; i <= 5; i++) { %> <td align="center"> <%= Html.RadioButton("SelectedLevel", i, new { id = Model.Id + "_" + i })%> </td> <% } %> The problem is that no radiobutton is checked, althought they have a level. What's wrong here?

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• ValueProvider.GetValue Extension Method

  - by griegs

  I have a model like this; public class QuickQuote { [Required] public Enumerations.AUSTRALIA_STATES state { get; set; } [Required] public Enumerations.FAMILY_TYPE familyType { get; set; } As you can see the two proerties are enumerations. Now I want to employ my own model binder for reasons that I won't bother getting into at the moment. So I have; public class QuickQuoteBinder : DefaultModelBinder { public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { quickQuote = new QuickQuote(); try { quickQuote.state = (Enumerations.AUSTRALIA_STATES) Enum.Parse(typeof(Enumerations.AUSTRALIA_STATES), bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue(bindingContext.ModelName + ".state").AttemptedValue); } catch { ModelState modelState = new ModelState(); ModelError err = new ModelError("Required"); modelState.Errors.Add(err); bindingContext.ModelState.Add(bindingContext.ModelName + ".state", modelState); } The problem is that for each property, and there are heaps, I need to do the whole try catch block. What I thought I might do is create an extension method which would do the whole block for me and all i'd need to pass in is the model property and the enumeration. So I could do something like; quickQuote.state = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetModelValue("state", ...) etc. Is this possible?

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• CultureInfo on a IValueConverter implementation

  - by slugster

  When a ValueConverter is used as part of a binding, one of the parameters to the Convert function is a System.Globalization.CultureInfo object. Can anyone tell me where this culture object gets its info from? I have some code that formats a date based on that culture. When i access my silverlight control which is hosted on my machine, it formats the date correctly (using the d/MM/yyyy format, which is set as the short date format on my machine). When i access the same control hosted on a different server (from my client machine), the date is being formatted as MM/dd/yyyy hh:mm:ss - which is totally wrong. Coincidentally the regional settings on the server are set to the same as my client machine. This is the code for my value converter: public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (value is DateTime) { if (parameter != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(parameter.ToString())) return ((DateTime)value).ToString(parameter.ToString()); else return ((DateTime)value).ToString(culture.DateTimeFormat.ShortDatePattern); } return value; } basically, a specific format can be specified as the converter parameter, but if it isn't then the short date pattern of the culture object is used.

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• WCF, Metadata and BIGIP - Can I force the correct url for the WSDL items?

  - by Yossi Dahan

  We have a WCF service hosted on ServerA which is a server with no-direct Internet access and has a non-Internet routable IP address. The service is fronted by BIGIP which handles SSL encryption and decryption and forwards the unencrypted request to ServerA (at the moment it does NOT actually do any load balancing, but that is likely to be added in the future) on a specific port. What that means is that our clients would be calling the service through https://www.OurDomain.com/ServiceUrl and would get to our service on http://SeverA:85/ServiceUrl through the BIGIP device; When we browse to the WSDL published on https://www.OurDomain.com/ServiceUrl all the addresses contained in the WSDL are based on the http://SeverA:85/ServiceUrl base address We figured out that we could use the host headers setting to set the domain, but our problem is that while this would sort out the domain, we would still be using the wrong scheme – it would use http://www.OurDomain.com/ServiceUrl while we need it to be Https. Also – as we have other services (asmx based) hosted on that server we had some issues setting the host headers, and so we thought we could get away with creating another site on the server (using, say, port 82) and set the host header on that; now, on top of the http/https problem we have an issue as the WSDL contains the port number in all the urls, where BigIP works on port 443 (for the SSL) Is there a more flexible solution than implementing Host Headers? Ideally we need to retain flexibility and ease of supportability. Thanks for any help…

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• How to change the border color of a Grouped UITableView

  - by ctpenrose

  This concerns iPhoneOS-sdk-3.2 I am having difficulty changing the border color of a grouped UITableView. I can change the cell background color, separator color, text color, quite easily now, and the rounded corners clip correctly, even when highlighted with whatever colors I have chosen. However the surrounding border remains infuriatingly gray despite many different attempts. I have read all of the related posts I can find via Google, let alone stackoverflow. I have tried both a programmatic and xib-based solution and both provide the same results. I will share the programmatic version below: I have a UIViewController subclass rather than a UITableViewController subclass to act as a UITableView delegate -- I chose this route as I am coding on the iPad and UITableViewController reportedly takes over the whole screen. loadView method of my UIViewController subclass: - (void) loadView { self.view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]]; [self.view release]; self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor blackColor]; // add and configure UITableView CGRect tableViewRect = CGRectMake(0., 0., 256., 768.); myTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableViewRect style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; // set the tableview delegate to this object and the datasource to the datasource which has already been set myTableView.delegate = self; myTableView.dataSource = self; myTableView.sectionIndexMinimumDisplayRowCount=1; myTableView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; myTableView.separatorColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; myTableView.separatorStyle = UITableViewCellSeparatorStyleSingleLine; myTableView.opaque = NO; // add the table view to our background view [self.view addSubview:myTableView]; [myTableView release]; }

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• Android ViewFlipper + homescreen animation

  - by Tim

  I am trying to use a ViewFlipper and make it act like the home screen(The layout will move with your finger). Check out this for an example. I want to do this with a ViewFlipper that only contains two children so the opposite view should be shown on either side of the current view depending on which way the user moves their finger. This code works but only for 1 direction at a time. This is in onTouchEvent. case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: leftView.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); rightView.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); // move the current view to the left or right. currentView.layout((int) (touchEvent.getX() - oldTouchValue), currentView.getTop(), (int) (touchEvent.getX() - oldTouchValue) + 320, currentView.getBottom()); // place this view just left of the currentView leftView.layout(currentView.getLeft() - 320, leftView.getTop(), currentView.getLeft(), leftView.getBottom()); // place this view just right of the currentView rightView.layout(currentView.getRight(), rightView.getTop(), currentView.getRight() + 320, rightView.getBottom()); Which ever of the bottom two lines I put last that direction will work correctly but the other will not. Here is how I set the leftView and rightView: final View currentView = myFlipper.getCurrentView(); final View leftView, rightView; if (currentView == meView) { Log.d("current layout: ", "me"); leftView = youView; rightView = youView; } else if (currentView == youView) { Log.d("current layout: ", "you"); leftView = meView; rightView = meView; }else { leftView = null; rightView = null; } Is it going to be possible to set it up so that the same view is shown on both sides of the current view?

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• Error Handling in T-SQL Scalar Function

  - by hydroparadise

  Ok.. this question could easily take multiple paths, so I will hit the more specific path first. While working with SQL Server 2005, I'm trying to create a scalar funtion that acts as a 'TryCast' from varchar to int. Where I encounter a problem is when I add a TRY block in the function; CREATE FUNCTION u_TryCastInt ( @Value as VARCHAR(MAX) ) RETURNS Int AS BEGIN DECLARE @Output AS Int BEGIN TRY SET @Output = CONVERT(Int, @Value) END TRY BEGIN CATCH SET @Output = 0 END CATCH RETURN @Output END Turns out theres all sorts of things wrong with this statement including "Invalid use of side-effecting or time-dependent operator in 'BEGIN TRY' within a function" and "Invalid use of side-effecting or time-dependent operator in 'END TRY' within a function". I can't seem to find any examples of using try statements within a scalar function, which got me thinking, is error handling in a function is possible? The goal here is to make a robust version of the Convert or Cast functions to allow a SELECT statement carry through depsite conversion errors. For example, take the following; CREATE TABLE tblTest ( f1 VARCHAR(50) ) GO INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('1') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('2') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('3') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('f') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('5') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('1.1') SELECT CONVERT(int,f1) AS f1_num FROM tblTest DROP TABLE tblTest It never reaches point of dropping the table because the execution gets hung on trying to convert 'f' to an integer. I want to be able to do something like this; SELECT u_TryCastInt(f1) AS f1_num FROM tblTest fi_num __________ 1 2 3 0 5 0 Any thoughts on this? Is there anything that exists that handles this? Also, I would like to try and expand the conversation to support SQL Server 2000 since Try blocks are not an option in that scenario. Thanks in advance.

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• ASP.Net FormsAuthentication Redirect Loses the cookie between Redirect and Application_AuthenticateR

  - by Joel Etherton

  I have a FormsAuthentication cookie that is persistent and works independently in a development, test, and production environment. I have a user that can authenticate, the user object is created, the authentication cookie is added to the response: 'Custom object to grab the TLD from the url authCookie.Domain = myTicketModule.GetTopLevelDomain(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_HOST")) FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(authTicket.Name, False) Response.SetCookie(authCookie) The user gets processed a little bit to check for a first time login, security questions, etc, and is then redirected with the following tidbit: Session.Add("ForceRedirect", "/FirstTimeLogin.aspx") Response.Redirect("~/FirstTimeLogin.aspx", True) With a debug break, I can verify that the cookie collection holds both a cookie not related to authentication that I set for a different purpose and the formsauthentication cookie. Then the next step in the process occurs at the ApplicationAuthenticateRequest in the global.asax: Sub Application_AuthenticateRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim formsCookieName As String = myConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FormsCookieName") Dim authCookie As HttpCookie = Request.Cookies(formsCookieName) At this point, for this ONE user authCookie is nothing. I have 15,000 other users who are not impacted in this manner. However, for one user the cookie just vanishes without a trace. I've seen this before with w3wp.exe exceptions, state server exceptions and other IIS process related exceptions, but I'm getting no exceptions in the event log. w3wp.exe is not crashing, the state server has some timeouts but they appear unrelated (as verified by timestamps) and it only happens to this one user on this one domain (this code is used across 2 different TLDs with approximately 10 other subdomains). One avenue I'm investigating is that the cookie might just be too large. I would think that there would be a check for the size of the cookie going into the response, and I wouldn't think it would impact it this way. Any ideas why the request might dumping the cookie? NOTE: The secondary cookie I mentioned that I set also gets dumped (and it's very tiny). EDIT-NOTE: The session token is NOT lost when this happens. However, since the authentication cookie is lost, it is ignored and replaced on a subsequent login.

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