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• DDK/WDM developing problem ... driver won't load on x64 windows platform

  - by user295975

  Hi there! I am a beginner at DDK/WDM driver developing field. I have a task which involves porting a virtual device driver from x86 to x64 (intel). I got the source code, I modified it a bit and compiled it succesfuly with DDK (build environments). But when I tried to load it on a ia64 Windows7 machine it didn't want to load. Then I tried some simple examples of device drivers from --http://www.codeproject.com/KB/system/driverdev.aspx (I put '--' to be able to post the hyperlink) and from other links but still the same problem. I hear on a forum that some libraries that you use to link are not compatible with the new machines and suggested to link to another similar libraries...but still didn't worked. When I build I use "-cefw" command line parameters as suggested. I do not have an *.inf file asociated but I'm copying it in system32/drivers and I'm using WinObj to see if next restart it's loaded into the memory. I also tried this program ( http://www.codeproject.com/KB/system/tdriver.aspx ) to load the driver into the memory but still didn't worked for me. Please please help me...I'm stuck on this and my deadline already passed. I feel I'driving nuts in here trying to discover what am I doing wrong.

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• Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

  - by Bart

  I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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• NTLM Authentication fails when behind Proxy server

  - by Jan Petersen

  Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. I have sniffed the traffic, and noticed the following: Behind Proxy # Result Protocol Host URL 1 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Authentication.asmx 2 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 3 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 4 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 5 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx Without Proxy # Result Protocol Host URL 1 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Authentication.asmx 2 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 3 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 4 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 5 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 6 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx When running the code from a network without a proxy server, I successfully Authentication with the server, but when I'm behind the proxy server, the traffic is cut-off at the 5th message, and thus don't succeed. I know from the Java docs that On Microsoft Windows platforms, NTLM authentication attempts to acquire the user credentials from the system without prompting the user's authenticator object. If these credentials are not accepted by the server then the user's authenticator will be called. Given that my Authentication code is called only ones, and only as the 5th attempt, it appears as if the connection is dropped when behind the proxy server before my Authentication object is used. Is there any way I can control the behavior of Authentication module, to not have it use the system credentials? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text Br Jan

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• What key on a keyboard can be detected in the browser but won't show up in a text input?

  - by Brady

  I know this one is going to sound weird but hear me out. I have a heart rate monitor that is hooked up like a keyboard to the computer. Each time the heart rate monitor detects a pulse it sends a key stroke. This keystroke is then detected by a web based game running in the browser. Currently I'm sending the following keystroke: (`) In the browser base game I'm detecting the following key fine and if when the user is on any data input screens the (`) character is ignored using a bit of JavaScript. The problem comes when I leave the browser and go back to using the Operating system in other ways the (`) starts appearing everywhere. So my question is: Is there a key that can be sent via the keyboard that is detectable in the browser but wont have any notable output on the screen if I switch to other applications. I'm kind of looking for a null key. A key that is detectable in the browser but has no effect to the browser or any other system application if pressed.

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• Problem mapping HttpHandler --> HTTP Error 404 Not Found

  - by JohnIdol

  I am having problems trying to map an HttpHandler in the web.config. This is the relevant config bit: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false" /> </httpHandlers> When I navigate to http://localhost/myApp/whatever.hndlr I am getting a server error 404 (not found). It's the 1st time I am hooking up an HttpHandler so I might be missing something - any help appreciated! UPDATE: I managed to get it working using both answers so far - who's able to exaplin why it works gets the answer marked! This is my config (won't work if Don't have both - I am running IIS7 in classic mode) System.web: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*MyHandler.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyAssemblyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false"/> </httpHandlers> System.webserver: <handlers> <add name="MyHandler" verb="*" path="*MyHandler.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyAssemblyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false"/> </handlers>

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• What are the reasons to store documents into DBMS when using Alfresco DMS

  - by Julia

  Hello guys! I have interview for an internship with company that wants to implement document management system and they are considering on the first place open source solutions, their top choice being Alfresco, but decision is still not final, part of my work there would be to investigate is Alfresco the best solution. What I have seen from project description, is that they would implement Alfresco with MySQL database, and not to use DBMS just for document metadata and indexing, but they actually want to store documents inside. By company profile, type of documents would be mostly PDF and .doc, not images. I have researched a bit, and I have read all the topics here related to storing files into the database, not to duplicate a question. So from what I understand, storing BLOBS is generally not recomendable, and by the profile of the company and their legal obligations with archiving, I see they will have to store larger amount of docs. I would like to be ready as much as I can for the interview and that is why I would like your opinion on these questions: 1) What will be your reasons for deciding to store documents into the DBMS, (especially having in mind that you are installing Alfresco, which stores files in the FS)??? 2) Do you have any experiences with storing documents into the MySQL database specifically??? All the help is very much appreciated, I am really excited about interview and really want this internship, so this is one of things i really want to understand before!! Thank you!!!!

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• Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

  - by Martin Ongtangco

  hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

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• How do I find a source code position from an address given by a crash in Window CE

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a Windows mobile 4.0 application, written using EVC++ 4.0 SP4 with MFC, that is exhibiting a random occasional crash in the field. e.g. Exception ox800000002 at 00112584. It does not happen under various emulators and simulators, hence is very difficult to trace using a debugger. The crash throws up and address and exception type. Given that I have the PDB is there any way to track this address to the source. I can't recompile using VC++ 8 as it doesn't support the mobile 4 SDK. My guess is that without a stack trace I'm not going to have much joy, as the chances are that the exception may not be in my source. Worth a try all the same. Edit As suggested, I have looked at the address in the context of the .MAP file for the program. This reveals the following Address Publics by Value Rva+Base Lib:Object 0001:00000000 ?GetUnduValue@@YANMM@Z 00011000 f 7Par.obj ' ' ' 0001:001124b8 ?OnLButtonUp@CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp@@UAAHPAVCGXGridCore@@AAVCPoint@@AAI@Z 001234b8 f gxseldrg.obj 0001:001126d8 ?OnSelDragStart@CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp@@UAAHPAVCGXGridCore@@KK@Z 001236d8 f gxseldrg.obj Which suggests the error occured during CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp::OnLButtonUp(), which seems a bit odd as I don't think there was a mouse / keyboard / screen button pressed at the time. Could be the stack got fragged before the crash got reported, and I'm wasting my time. I'll recompile with assembler output to try to isolate it to a given line, but don't hold out much hope :( Does the fact that the map file reports segmented addresses e.g. 0001:xxxxxxxxx and the crash report unsegmented addresses mean I have to carry out some computation to get the map address from the crash address?

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• How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

  - by Caroline S.

  We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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• ASP.NET MVC intermittent slow response

  - by arehman

  Problem In our production environment, system occasionally delays the page response of an ASP.NET MVC application up to 30 seconds or so, even though same page renders in 2-3 seconds most of the times. This happens randomly with any arbitrary page, and GET or POST type requests. For example, log files indicates, system took 15 seconds to complete a request for jquery script file or for other small css file it took 10 secs. Similar Problems: Random Slow Downs Production Environment: Windows Server 2008 - Standard (32-bit) - App Pool running in integrated mode. ASP.NET MVC 1.0 We have tried followings/observations: Moved the application to a stand alone web server, but, it didn't help. We didn't ever notice same issue on the server for any 'ASP.NET' application. App Pool settings are fine. No abrupt recycles/shutdowns. No cpu spikes or memory problems. No delays due to SQL queries or so. It seems as something causing delay along HTTP Pipeline or worker processor seeing the request late. Looking for other suggestions. -- Thanks

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• Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

  - by Antoine Benkemoun

  Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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• SD card initialization using SPI interface

  - by Tobias

  I get invalid response Codes from my SD Card(CMD8, CMD55, CMD41) Init routine: SDCS = 1; // MMC deaktiviert SPI1CON1bits.SMP = 0; SPI1CON1bits.CKE = 1; SPI1CON1bits.MSTEN = 1; SPI1CON1bits.CKP = 0; SPI1STATbits.SPIEN = 1; for(i=0;i<10;i++) SPI(0xFF); // RESET unsigned char rr=Command(CMD0,0); SDCS=1; // MMC deactivated /*OK response == 1*/ r=Command(CMD8,0); // check voltage SDCS=1; /* response == 0xC1 ?!? */ r = Command(CMD58,0); // READ_OCR unsigned char ocr1 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr2 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr3 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr4 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr5 = SPI(0xFF); /* r = 0xF8; ?!? ocr1 = 0x0F; ocr2 = 0xFF; ocr3 = 0xFF; ocr4 = 0xFF; ocr5 = 0xFF; */ SDCS=1; // INIT unsigned char rrr = 0; i=10000; do { rrr=Command(55,0); // Next is APP CMD SDCS=1; if(r) break; }while(--i>0); /* OK response == 1 */ // APP CMD 41 with OCR = 0x0F?? You can read the response codes in the comments. Is it possible the response code to CMD8 is 0xC1? Bit 7 should be 0, right? Is it a hardware error?

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• Sending jQuery.ajax data simultaneous to a form submit

  - by dscher

  I have a bit of a conundrum. I have a form which has numerous fields. There is one field for links where you enter a link, click an add button, and the link(using jQuery) gets added to a link_array. I want this array to be sent via the jQuery.ajax method when the form is submitted. If I send the link_array using $.ajax like this: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "add_stock", dataType: "json", data: { "links": link_array } }); when the add link button is selected the data goes no problem to the correct place and gets put in the db correctly. If I bind the above function to the submit form button using $(#stock_form).submit(..... then the rest of the form data is sent but not the link_array. I can obviously pass the link array back into a hidden field in HTML but then I'd have to unpack the array into comma separate values and break the comma-separated string apart in PHP. It just seems 100X easier to unpack the Javascript array in PHP without an other fuss. So, how is it that you can send an array from javascript using $.ajax concurrent to the rest of the $_POST data in HTML? Please note that I'm using Kohana 3.0 framework but really that shouldn't make a difference, what I want to do is add this js array to the $_POST array that is already going. Thanks!

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• Makefile trickery using VPATH and include.

  - by roe

  Hi, I'm playing around with make files and the VPATH variable. Basically, I'm grabbing source files from a few different places (specified by the VPATH), and compile them into the current directory using simply a list of .o-files that I want. So far so good, now I'm generating dependency information into a file called '.depend' and including that. Gnumake will attempt to use the rules defined so far to create the included file if it doesn't exist, so that's ok. Basically, my makefile looks like this. VPATH=A/source:B/source:C/source objects=first.o second.o third.o executable: $(objects) .depend: $(objects:.o=.c) $(CC) -MM $^ > $@ include .depend Now for the real question, can I suppress the generation of the .depend file in any way? I'm currently working in a clearcase environment - sloooow, so I'd prefer to have it a bit more under control when to update the dependency information. It's more or less an academic exercise as I could just wrap the thing in a script which is touching the .depend file before executing make (thus making it more recent than any source file), but it'd interesting to know if I can somehow suppress it using 'pure' make. I cannot remove the dependency to the source files (i.e. using simply .depend:), as I'm depending on the $^ variable to do the VPATH resolution for me. If there'd be any way to only update dependencies as a result of updated #include directives, that'd be even better of course.. But I'm not holding my breath for that one.. :)

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• What would cause native gem extensions on OS X to build but fail to load?

  - by goodmike

  I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

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• Where does django look for sqlite3 installation/libraries?

  - by gath

  Am having a bit of a problem making my django application run in SUSE linux 9. I have Python2.5 installed well, Django 1.0 installed well. Am able to execute django command django-admin startproject fine But when i run the runserver command i get the error below. i have a folder with sqlite3, i can go in there and actually run the sqlite3* application, now am wondering where does Django look for the sqlite libraries? and how can i fix this? Validating models... Unhandled exception in thread started by <function inner_run at 0x2a96cb4f50> Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/core/management/commands/runserver.py", line 48, in inner_run self.validate(display_num_errors=True) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 122, in validate num_errors = get_validation_errors(s, app) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/core/management/validation.py", line 22, in get_validation_errors from django.db import models, connection File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/db/__init__.py", line 16, in <module> backend = __import__('%s%s.base' % (_import_path, settings.DATABASE_ENGINE), {}, {}, ['']) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/db/backends/sqlite3/base.py", line 27, in <module> raise ImproperlyConfigured, "Error loading %s module: %s" % (module, exc) django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured: Error loading sqlite3 module: No module named _sqlite3 Gath

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• jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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• How to checkout from SVN with an ANT task?

  - by Josh

  I'm interested in any way that I can create an Ant task to checkout files from SubVersion. I "just" want to do the checkout from the command line. I've been using Eclipse with Ant and SubVersion for a while now, but my Ant and SubVersion knowledge is somewhat lacking as I relied on Eclipse to wire it all together. I've been looking at SvnAnt as one solution, which is part of Subclipse from Tigris at http://subclipse.tigris.org/svnant/svn.html. It may work fine, but all I get are NoClassDefFoundErrors. To the more experienced this probably looks like a simple Ant configuration problem, but I don't know about that. I copied the svnant.jar and svnclientadapter.jar into my Ant lib directory. Then I tried to run the following: <?xml version="1.0"?> <project name="blah"> <property environment="env"/> <path id="svnant.classpath"> <pathelement location="${env.ANT_HOME}/lib"/> <fileset dir="${env.ANT_HOME}/lib/"> <include name="svnant.jar"/> </fileset> </path> <typedef resource="org/tigris/subversion/svnant/svnantlib.xml" classpathref="svnant.classpath" /> <target name="checkout"> <svn username="abc" password="123"> <checkout url="svn://blah/blah/trunk" destPath="workingcopy"/> </svn> </target> </project> To which I get the following response: build.xml:17: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/tigris/subversion/javahl/SVNClientInterface I am running SVN 1.7 and SvnAnt 1.3 on Windows XP 32-bit. Thanks for any pointers!

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• TCP: Address already in use exception - possible causes for client port? NO PORT EXHAUSTION

  - by TomTom

  Hello, stupid problem. I get those from a client connecting to a server. Sadly, the setup is complicated making debugging complex - and we run out of options. The environment: *Client/Server system, both running on the same machine. The client is actually a service doing some database manipulation at specific times. * The cnonection comes from C# going through OleDb to an EasySoft JDBC driver to a custom written JDBC server that then hosts logic in C++. Yeah, compelx - but the third party supplier decided to expose the extension mechanisms for their server through a JDBC interface. Not a lot can be done here ;) The Symptom: At (ir)regular intervals we get a "Address already in use: connect" told from the JDBC driver. They seem to come from one particular service we run. Now, I did read all the stuff about port exhaustion. This is why we have a little tool running now that counts ports and their states every minute. Last time this happened, we had an astonishing 370 ports in use, with the count rising to about 900 AFTER the error. We aleady patched the registry (it is a windows machine) to allow more than the 5000 client ports standard, but even then, we are far far from that limit to start with. Which is why I am asking here. Ayneone an ide what ELSE could cause this? It is a Windows 2003 Server machine, 64 bit. The only other thing I can see that may cause it (but this functionality is supposedly disabled) is Symantec Endpoint Protection that is installed on the server - and being capable of actinc as a firewall, it could possibly intercept network traffic. I dont want to open a can of worms by pointing to Symantec prematurely (if pointing to Symantec can ever be seen as such). So, anyone an idea what else may be the cause? Thanks

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• Syntax Error with John Resig's Micro Templating.

  - by optician

  I'm having a bit of trouble with John Resig's Micro templating. Can anyone help me with why it isn't working? This is the template <script type="text/html" id="row_tmpl"> test content {%=id%} {%=name%} </script> And the modified section of the engine str .replace(/[\r\t\n]/g, " ") .split("{%").join("\t") .replace(/((^|%>)[^\t]*)'/g, "$1\r") .replace(/\t=(.*?)%>/g, "',$1,'") .split("\t").join("');") .split("%}").join("p.push('") .split("\r").join("\\'") + "');}return p.join('');"); and the javascript var dataObject = { "id": "27", "name": "some more content" }; var html = tmpl("row_tmpl", dataObject); and the result, as you can see =id and =name seem to be in the wrong place? Apart from changing the template syntax blocks from <% % to {% %} I haven't changed anything. This is from Firefox. Error: syntax error Line: 30, Column: 89 Source Code: var p=[],print=function(){p.push.apply(p,arguments);};with(obj){p.push(' test content ');=idp.push(' ');=namep.push(' ');}return p.join('');

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• Should I learn VB.NET or C#?

  - by Ravi

  Background I have decided to do my graduation project (yet to start) in .NET. Regarding it, I am bit confused about: what language should I learn: VB.NET or C#? What I have learnt from those who know it that both VB.NET and C# have: The same concepts VB.NET is simpler as it is more like English statements but also C# is simple too if you already know C (Which I do know) Question So considering some factors, e.g. career point of view, newness, challenging and beneficial, etc., what language should I choose? Please help me out. And clearly do justify your answer (whatever reason you have.) References (Extra) A little information about what project I am doing: It is a database file system. Technologies I'll be using are SQL Server, WPF, etc. I just love the concept of Database file system.So those who want to know more about Database file system, here are the links DBFS (This one is really good.Serves as primary reference for me) Towards A Single Folder Filesystem stackoverflow-What is a database file system? UPDATE1 : After some really good explained answers (actually all are good at their place), I have finally decided to go with C# for myself. Thank you all. Still, you are requested to put your opinion (Once it is reopened,of course) UPDATE2 : Question reopened and made community wiki.Thank you all.

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• How to convert an NSString to an unsigned int in Cocoa?

  - by Dave Gallagher

  My application gets handed an NSString containing an unsigned int. NSString doesn't have an [myString unsignedIntegerValue]; method. I'd like to be able to take the value out of the string without mangling it, and then place it inside an NSNumber. I'm trying to do it like so: NSString *myUnsignedIntString = [self someMethodReturningAString]; NSInteger myInteger = [myUnsignedIntString integerValue]; NSNumber *myNSNumber = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:myInteger]; // ...put |myNumber| in an NSDictionary, time passes, pull it out later on... unsigned int myUnsignedInt = [myNSNumber unsignedIntValue]; Will the above potentially "cut off" the end of a large unsigned int since I had to convert it to NSInteger first? Or does it look OK to use? If it'll cut off the end of it, how about the following (a bit of a kludge I think)? NSString *myUnsignedIntString = [self someMethodReturningAString]; long long myLongLong = [myUnsignedIntString longLongValue]; NSNumber *myNSNumber = [NSNumber numberWithLongLong:myLongLong]; // ...put |myNumber| in an NSDictionary, time passes, pull it out later on... unsigned int myUnsignedInt = [myNSNumber unsignedIntValue]; Thanks for any help you can offer! :)

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• Which language should I pick up: VB.Net or C#

  - by magius

  I'm looking to pick up either C# or VB.Net. I'd done a fair bit of VB6 programming in the past. I'm looking at getting the book, Visual Basic .NET or C#, Which to Choose? but I'm hoping that someone has read it, or used both languages and can offer advice. Should I just RTFB? Edit: Anders Sandvig raised a valid question. I'm intending to develop ActiveX applications that will be served through IE. Edit: Given that the functionality is pretty close and my favored approach to learning is to "just build it" and solve problems by looking it up on the internet, I've decided that the choice of language will be based on how easy it is to learn it. I looked around and found sites like C# Corner that supports my approach. Personal note: I wish I could also select Seb Nilsson's response as an accepted answer as well. Thanks guys for your input! Alright, then! I admit, theoretically, this topic is subjective; but a quick tally of answers seems to skew votes heavily in C#'s favor. Anyway, I'm really after experiences like what Keith's alluding to. I'm hoping he'll return to this topic and drop us a few more gems.

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• Algorithm to see if keywords exist inside a string

  - by rksprst

  Let's say I have a set of keywords in an array {"olympics", "sports tennis best", "tennis", "tennis rules"} I then have a large list (up to 50 at a time) of strings (or actually tweets), so they are a max of 140 characters. I want to look at each string and see what keywords are present there. In the case where a keyword is composed of multiple words like "sports tennis best", the words don't have to be together in the string, but all of them have to show up. I've having trouble figuring out an algorithm that does this efficiently. Do you guys have suggestions on a way to do this? Thanks! Edit: To explain a bit better each keyword has an id associated with it, so {1:"olympics", 2:"sports tennis best", 3:"tennis", 4:"tennis rules"} I want to go through the list of strings/tweets and see which group of keywords match. The output should be, this tweet belongs with keyword #4. (multiple matches may be made, so anything that matches keyword 2, would also match 3 -since they both contain tennis). When there are multiple words in the keyword, e.g. "sports tennis best" they don't have to appear together but have to all appear. e.g. this will correctly match: "i just played tennis, i love sports, its the best"... since this string contains "sports tennis best" it will match and be associated with the keywordID (which is 2 for this example).

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• Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

  - by hleinone

  It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

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