Search Results

Search found 22300 results on 892 pages for 'half bit'.

Page 736/892 | < Previous Page | 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743  | Next Page >

  • Is Perl's flip-flop operator bugged? It has global state, how can I reset it?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I'm dismayed. Ok, so this was probably the most fun perl bug I've ever found. Even today I'm learning new stuff about perl. Essentially, the flip-flop operator .. which returns false until the left-hand-side returns true, and then true until the right-hand-side returns false keep global state (or that is what I assume.) My question is can I reset it, (perhaps this would be a good addition to perl4-esque hardly ever used reset())? Or, is there no way to use this operator safely? I also don't see this (the global context bit) documented anywhere in perldoc perlop is this a mistake? Code use feature ':5.10'; use strict; use warnings; sub search { my $arr = shift; grep { !( /start/ .. /never_exist/ ) } @$arr; } my @foo = qw/foo bar start baz end quz quz/; my @bar = qw/foo bar start baz end quz quz/; say 'first shot - foo'; say for search \@foo; say 'second shot - bar'; say for search \@bar; Spoiler $ perl test.pl first shot foo bar second shot

    Read the article

  • How to force the build to be out of date, when a text file is modified?

    - by demoncodemonkey
    The Scenario My project has a post-build phase set up to run a batch file, which reads a text file "version.txt". The batch file uses the information in version.txt to inject the DLL with a version block using this tool. The version.txt is included in my project to make it easy to modify. It looks a bit like this: @set #Description="TankFace Utility Library" @set #FileVersion="0.1.2.0" @set #Comments="" Basically the batch file renames this file to version.bat, calls it, then renames it back to version.txt afterwards. The Problem When I modify version.txt (e.g. to increment the file version), and then press F7, the build is not seen as out-of-date, so the post-build step is not executed, so the DLL's version doesn't get updated. I really want to include the .txt file as an input to the build, but without anything actually trying to use it. If I #include the .txt file from a CPP file in the project, the compiler fails because it obviously doesn't understand what "@set" means. If I add /* ... */ comments around the @set commands, then the batch file has some syntax errors but eventually succeeds. But this is a poor solution I think. So... how would you do it?

    Read the article

  • rpy2: Converting a data.frame to a numpy array

    - by Mike Dewar
    I have a data.frame in R. It contains a lot of data : gene expression levels from many (125) arrays. I'd like the data in Python, due mostly to my incompetence in R and the fact that this was supposed to be a 30 minute job. I would like the following code to work. To understand this code, know that the variable path contains the full path to my data set which, when loaded, gives me a variable called immgen. Know that immgen is an object (a Bioconductor ExpressionSet object) and that exprs(immgen) returns a data frame with 125 columns (experiments) and tens of thousands of rows (named genes). robjects.r("load('%s')"%path) # loads immgen e = robjects.r['data.frame']("exprs(immgen)") expression_data = np.array(e) This code runs, but expression_data is simply array([[1]]). I'm pretty sure that e doesn't represent the data frame generated by exprs() due to things like: In [40]: e._get_ncol() Out[40]: 1 In [41]: e._get_nrow() Out[41]: 1 But then again who knows? Even if e did represent my data.frame, that it doesn't convert straight to an array would be fair enough - a data frame has more in it than an array (rownames and colnames) and so maybe life shouldn't be this easy. However I still can't work out how to perform the conversion. The documentation is a bit too terse for me, though my limited understanding of the headings in the docs implies that this should be possible. Anyone any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Munging non-printable characters to dots using string.translate()

    - by Jim Dennis
    So I've done this before and it's a surprising ugly bit of code for such a seemingly simple task. The goal is to translate any non-printable character into a . (dot). For my purposes "printable" does exclude the last few characters from string.printable (new-lines, tabs, and so on). This is for printing things like the old MS-DOS debug "hex dump" format ... or anything similar to that (where additional whitespace will mangle the intended dump layout). I know I can use string.translate() and, to use that, I need a translation table. So I use string.maketrans() for that. Here's the best I could come up with: filter = string.maketrans( string.translate(string.maketrans('',''), string.maketrans('',''),string.printable[:-5]), '.'*len(string.translate(string.maketrans('',''), string.maketrans('',''),string.printable[:-5]))) ... which is an unreadable mess (though it does work). From there you can call use something like: for each_line in sometext: print string.translate(each_line, filter) ... and be happy. (So long as you don't look under the hood). Now it is more readable if I break that horrid expression into separate statements: ascii = string.maketrans('','') # The whole ASCII character set nonprintable = string.translate(ascii, ascii, string.printable[:-5]) # Optional delchars argument filter = string.maketrans(nonprintable, '.' * len(nonprintable)) And it's tempting to do that just for legibility. However, I keep thinking there has to be a more elegant way to express this!

    Read the article

  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

    Read the article

  • cannot override a concrete member without a third member that's overridden by both

    - by huynhjl
    What does the following error message mean? cannot override a concrete member without a third member that's overridden by both (this rule is designed to prevent ``accidental overrides''); I was trying to do stackable trait modifications. It's a little bit after the fact since I already have a hierarchy in place and I'm trying to modify the behavior without having to rewrite a lot of code. I have a base class called AbstractProcessor that defines an abstract method sort of like this: class AbstractProcessor { def onPush(i:Info): Unit } I have a couple existing traits, to implement different onPush behaviors. trait Pass1 { def onPush(i:Info): Unit = { ... } } trait Pass2 { def onPush(i:Info): Unit = { ... } } So that allows me to use new AbstractProcessor with Pass1 or new AbstractProcessor with Pass2. Now I would like to do some processing before and after the onPush call in Pass1 and Pass2 while minimizing code changes to AbstractProcessor and Pass1 and Pass2. I thought of creating a trait that does something like this: trait Custom extends AbstractProcessor { abstract override def onPush(i:Info): Unit = { // do stuff before super.onPush(i) // do stuff after } And using it with new AbstractProcessor with Pass1 with Custom and I got that error message.

    Read the article

  • Adjust size of MPMediaPickerController's view ?

    - by Mr.Gando
    In my application I don't use the upper bar that displays Wi-Fi/Date/Time because it's a game. However I need to be able to let my user to pick his music, so I'm using a MPMediaPickerController. The problem is, that when I present my controller, the controller ends up leaving a 10 pixels ( aprox ) bar at the top of the screen, just in the place the Wi-Fi/Date/Time bar, should be present. Is there a way I could make my MPMediaPickerController bigger ? or to be presented upper in the screen ? // Configures and displays the media item picker. - (void) showMediaPicker: (id) sender { MPMediaPickerController *picker = [[MPMediaPickerController alloc] initWithMediaTypes: MPMediaTypeAnyAudio]; [[picker view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsPickingMultipleItems = YES; picker.prompt = NSLocalizedString (@"AddSongsPrompt", @"Prompt to user to choose some songs to play"); [self presentModalViewController:picker animated: YES]; [picker release]; } There I tried to set the size to 320x480 but no luck, the picker is still presented and leaves a space in the upper part of the screen, could anyone help me ? Btw, here's how it looks: I have asked a bit, and people told me this could indeed be a bug, what do you guys think ?

    Read the article

  • Generic object to object mapping with parametrized constructor

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I have a data access layer which returns an IDataRecord. I have a WCF service that serves DataContracts (dto's). These DataContracts are initiated by a parametrized constructor containing the IDataRecord as follows: [DataContract] public class DataContractItem { [DataMember] public int ID; [DataMember] public string Title; public DataContractItem(IDataRecord record) { this.ID = Convert.ToInt32(record["ID"]); this.Title = record["title"].ToString(); } } Unfortanately I can't change the DAL, so I'm obliged to work with the IDataRecord as input. But in generat this works very well. The mappings are pretty simple most of the time, sometimes they are a bit more complex, but no rocket science. However, now I'd like to be able to use generics to instantiate the different DataContracts to simplify the WCF service methods. I want to be able to do something like: public T DoSomething<T>(IDataRecord record) { ... return new T(record); } So I'd tried to following solutions: Use a generic typed interface with a constructor. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a constructor in an interface Use a static method to instantiate the DataContract and create a typed interface containing this static method. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a static method in an interface Use a generic typed interface containing the new() constraint doesn't work: new() constraint cannot contain a parameter (the IDataRecord) Using a factory object to perform the mapping based on the DataContract Type. does work, but: not very clean, because I now have a switch statement with all mappings in one file. I can't find a real clean solution for this. Can somebody shed a light on this for me? The project is too small for any complex mapping techniques and too large for a "switch-based" factory implementation.

    Read the article

  • Issue Implementing Colorbox Correctly in IE (all versions)

    - by Andrew
    I've been pulling my hair out (and going way over allotted hours) to try and figure out why Colorbox isn't working properly on the following page: http://www.fiberforge.com I've set up a Colorbox test link on the very bottom right that says "Web Design By All Web Cafe", which should open up a small logo image. In Firefox, Safari, etc the modal behaves as it should, opening center center above all of the existing on-page content. In IE, not only is the modal not centered, but it appears as though it's not obeying absolute positioning and pushing all of the existing on-page content down below. Add to that the fact that it's not opening to the correct size and creating scrollbars next to the modal image, and we have ourselves one ugly modal. The scrollbars I can live with (by just resizing the min-height of the modal), but I can't figure out why it won't center. Let me say that I did not code this site initially and it was completed quite a few years ago, so there are quite probably numerous CSS hacks to get things to display properly, any number of which may be causing this problem. By contrast, Thickbox is also set up on this site (if you click on the "Play Video" callout in the dark blue area) and behaves correctly, though suffers from some weird sizing/padding issues, hence the desire to replace it with something a bit more modern and extensible. I can verify that there is no conflict having both of these modal scripts/CSS files concurrently as the problem still occurs with Colorbox even when Thickbox is removed entirely. Any thoughts or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Webstart omits cookie, resulting in EOFException in ObjectInputStream when accessing Servlets?!

    - by Houtman
    Hi, My app. is started from both the commandline and by using an JNLP file. Im running java version 1.6.0_14 First i had the problem that i created the Buffered input and output streams in incorrect order. Found the solution here at StackOverflow . So starting from the commandline works fine now. But when starting the app using Webstart, it ends here java.io.EOFException at java.io.ObjectInputStream$PeekInputStream.readFully(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream$BlockDataInputStream.readShort(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readStreamHeader(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.<init>(Unknown Source) at <..>remoting.thinclient.RemoteSocketChannel.<init>(RemoteSocketChannel.java:76) I found some posts regarding similar problems; at ibm.com - identifies cookies problem at bugs.sun.com - identifies problem as solved in 6u10(b12)? The first suggests that there is a problem in Webstart with cookies. It doesn't seem to be acknowledged as a proper java bug though.. Still i am a bit lost in the solution provided regarding the cookies.(ibm link) Can anyone expand on the cookie solution? I can't find information on how the cookie is generated in the first place. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

    Read the article

  • Flex 3: should I provide prepared data to my component or make it to process data before display?

    - by grapkulec
    I'm starting to learn a little Flex just for fun and maybe to prove that I still can learn something new :) I have some idea for a project and one of its parts is a tree component which could display data in different ways depending on configuration. The idea There is list of objects having properties like id, date, time, name, description. And sometimes list should be displayed like this: first level: date second level: time third level: name and sometimes like this: first level: year second level: month third level: day fourth level: time and name By level I mean level of nesting of course. So, we can have years, that have months, that have days, that have hours and so forth. The problem What could be the best way to do it? I mean, should I prepare data for different ways of nesting outside of component or even outside of flex? I can do it at web service level in C# where I plan to have database access layer and send to flex nice and ready to display XML or array of objects. But I wonder if that won't cause additional and maybe unneccessary network traffic. I tried to hack some code in my component to convert my data objects into XML or ArrayCollection but I don't know enough of Flex and got stuck on elimination of duplicates or getting specific data by some key value. Usually to do such things I have STL with maps, sets and vectors and I find Flex arrays and even Dictionary a little bit confusing (I've read language reference and googled without any significant luck). The question So, to sum things up: should I give my tree component data prepared just for chosen type of display or should I try to do it internally inside component (or some helper class written in ActionScript)?

    Read the article

  • Straw Poll - K&R vs BSD

    - by Gordon Mackie JoanMiro
    No holy wars please - (ultimately a standardised and consistently-observed house-style on a project always wins out whatever is chosen), but I am genuinely interested in the preferences of people for K&R style formatting: public bool CompareObjects(object first, object second) { if (first == second) { return true; } else { return false; } } over BSD style: public bool CompareObjects(object first, object second) { if (first == second) { return true; } else { return false; } } K&R seems to be making a bit of a comeback recently (I'm an old programmer, so I've seen these things fluctuate); do people think K&R looks more professional, more cool, more readable, is compactness when viewing more important than extending the structure down the screen? Please use the 2 community wiki answers below to vote for K&R vs. BSD. Polls shouldn't earn rep for the first person that manages to type "BSD FTW!" My God! This question is nearly 2 years old and people are still down-voting it; ENOUGH!

    Read the article

  • Passing row from UIPickerView to integer CoreData attribute

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --EDIT 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the errors by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber?

    Read the article

  • Unexpected performance curve from CPython merge sort

    - by vkazanov
    I have implemented a naive merge sorting algorithm in Python. Algorithm and test code is below: import time import random import matplotlib.pyplot as plt import math from collections import deque def sort(unsorted): if len(unsorted) <= 1: return unsorted to_merge = deque(deque([elem]) for elem in unsorted) while len(to_merge) > 1: left = to_merge.popleft() right = to_merge.popleft() to_merge.append(merge(left, right)) return to_merge.pop() def merge(left, right): result = deque() while left or right: if left and right: elem = left.popleft() if left[0] > right[0] else right.popleft() elif not left and right: elem = right.popleft() elif not right and left: elem = left.popleft() result.append(elem) return result LOOP_COUNT = 100 START_N = 1 END_N = 1000 def test(fun, test_data): start = time.clock() for _ in xrange(LOOP_COUNT): fun(test_data) return time.clock() - start def run_test(): timings, elem_nums = [], [] test_data = random.sample(xrange(100000), END_N) for i in xrange(START_N, END_N): loop_test_data = test_data[:i] elapsed = test(sort, loop_test_data) timings.append(elapsed) elem_nums.append(len(loop_test_data)) print "%f s --- %d elems" % (elapsed, len(loop_test_data)) plt.plot(elem_nums, timings) plt.show() run_test() As much as I can see everything is OK and I should get a nice N*logN curve as a result. But the picture differs a bit: Things I've tried to investigate the issue: PyPy. The curve is ok. Disabled the GC using the gc module. Wrong guess. Debug output showed that it doesn't even run until the end of the test. Memory profiling using meliae - nothing special or suspicious. ` I had another implementation (a recursive one using the same merge function), it acts the similar way. The more full test cycles I create - the more "jumps" there are in the curve. So how can this behaviour be explained and - hopefully - fixed? UPD: changed lists to collections.deque UPD2: added the full test code UPD3: I use Python 2.7.1 on a Ubuntu 11.04 OS, using a quad-core 2Hz notebook. I tried to turn of most of all other processes: the number of spikes went down but at least one of them was still there.

    Read the article

  • Stop duplicate icmp echo replies when bridging to a dummy interface?

    - by mbrownnyc
    I recently configured a bridge br0 with members as eth0 (real if) and dummy0 (dummy.ko if). When I ping this machine, I receive duplicate replies as: # ping SERVERA PING SERVERA.domain.local (192.168.100.115) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from SERVERA.domain.local (192.168.100.115): icmp_seq=1 ttl=62 time=113 ms 64 bytes from SERVERA.domain.local (192.168.100.115): icmp_seq=1 ttl=62 time=114 ms (DUP!) 64 bytes from SERVERA.domain.local (192.168.100.115): icmp_seq=2 ttl=62 time=113 ms 64 bytes from SERVERA.domain.local (192.168.100.115): icmp_seq=2 ttl=62 time=113 ms (DUP!) Using tcpdump on SERVERA, I was able to see icmp echo replies being sent from eth0 and br0 itself as follows (oddly two echo request packets arrive "from" my Windows box myhost): 23:19:05.324192 IP myhost.domain.local > SERVERA.domain.local: ICMP echo request, id 512, seq 43781, length 40 23:19:05.324212 IP SERVERA.domain.local > myhost.domain.local: ICMP echo reply, id 512, seq 43781, length 40 23:19:05.324217 IP myhost.domain.local > SERVERA.domain.local: ICMP echo request, id 512, seq 43781, length 40 23:19:05.324221 IP SERVERA.domain.local > myhost.domain.local: ICMP echo reply, id 512, seq 43781, length 40 23:19:05.324264 IP SERVERA.domain.local > myhost.domain.local: ICMP echo reply, id 512, seq 43781, length 40 23:19:05.324272 IP SERVERA.domain.local > myhost.domain.local: ICMP echo reply, id 512, seq 43781, length 40 It's worth noting, testing reveals that hosts on the same physical switch do not see DUP icmp echo responses (a host on the same VLAN on another switch does see a dup icmp echo response). I've read that this could be due to the ARP table of a switch, but I can't find any info directly related to bridges, just bonds. I have a feeling my problem lay in the stack on linux, not the switch, but am opened to any suggestions. The system is running centos6/el6 kernel 2.6.32-71.29.1.el6.i686. How do I stop ICMP echo replies from being sent in duplicate when dealing with a bridge interface/bridged interfaces? Thanks, Matt [edit] Quick note: It was recommended in #linux to: [08:53] == mbrownnyc [gateway/web/freenode/] has joined ##linux [08:57] <lkeijser> mbrownnyc: what happens if you set arp_ignore to 1 for the dummy interface? [08:59] <lkeijser> also set arp_announce to 2 for that interface [09:24] <mbrownnyc> lkeijser: I set arp_annouce to 2, arp_ignore to 2 in /etc/sysctl.conf and rebooted the machine... verifying that the bits are set after boot... the problem is still present I did this and came up empty. Same dup problem. I will be moving away from including the dummy interface in the bridge as: [09:31] == mbrownnyc [gateway/web/freenode/] has joined #Netfilter [09:31] <mbrownnyc> Hello all... I'm wondering, is it correct that even with an interface in PROMISC that the kernel will drop /some/ packets before they reach applications? [09:31] <whaffle> What would you make think so? [09:32] <mbrownnyc> I ask because I am receiving ICMP echo replies after configuring a bridge with a dummy interface in order for ipt_netflow to see all packets, only as reported in it's documentation: http://ipt-netflow.git.sourceforge.net/git/gitweb.cgi?p=ipt-netflow/ipt-netflow;a=blob;f=README.promisc [09:32] <mbrownnyc> but I do not know if PROMISC will do the same job [09:33] <mbrownnyc> I was referred here from #linux. any assistance is appreciated [09:33] <whaffle> The following conditions need to be met: PROMISC is enabled (bridges and applications like tcpdump will do this automatically, otherwise they won't function). [09:34] <whaffle> If an interface is part of a bridge, then all packets that enter the bridge should already be visible in the raw table. [09:35] <mbrownnyc> thanks whaffle PROMISC must be set manually for ipt_netflow to function, but [09:36] <whaffle> promisc does not need to be set manually, because the bridge will do it for you. [09:36] <whaffle> When you do not have a bridge, you can easily create one, thereby rendering any kernel patches moot. [09:36] <mbrownnyc> whaffle: I speak without the bridge [09:36] <whaffle> It is perfectly valid to have a "half-bridge" with only a single interface in it. [09:36] <mbrownnyc> whaffle: I am unfamiliar with the raw table, does this mean that PROMISC allows the raw table to be populated with packets the same as if the interface was part of a bridge? [09:37] <whaffle> Promisc mode will cause packets with {a dst MAC address that does not equal the interface's MAC address} to be delivered from the NIC into the kernel nevertheless. [09:37] <mbrownnyc> whaffle: I suppose I mean to clearly ask: what benefit would creating a bridge have over setting an interface PROMISC? [09:38] <mbrownnyc> whaffle: from your last answer I feel that the answer to my question is "none," is this correct? [09:39] <whaffle> Furthermore, the linux kernel itself has a check for {packets with a non-local MAC address}, so that packets that will not enter a bridge will be discarded as well, even in the face of PROMISC. [09:46] <mbrownnyc> whaffle: so, this last bit of information is quite clearly why I would need and want a bridge in my situation [09:46] <mbrownnyc> okay, the ICMP echo reply duplicate issue is likely out of the realm of this channel, but I sincerely appreciate the info on the kernels inner-workings [09:52] <whaffle> mbrownnyc: either the kernel patch, or a bridge with an interface. Since the latter is quicker, yes [09:54] <mbrownnyc> thanks whaffle [edit2] After removing the bridge, and removing the dummy kernel module, I only had a single interface chilling out, lonely. I still received duplicate icmp echo replies... in fact I received a random amount: http://pastebin.com/2LNs0GM8 The same thing doesn't happen on a few other hosts on the same switch, so it has to do with the linux box itself. I'll likely end up rebuilding it next week. Then... you know... this same thing will occur again. [edit3] Guess what? I rebuilt the box, and I'm still receiving duplicate ICMP echo replies. Must be the network infrastructure, although the ARP tables do not contain multiple entries. [edit4] How ridiculous. The machine was a network probe, so I was (ingress and egress) mirroring an uplink port to a node that was the NIC. So, the flow (must have) gone like this: ICMP echo request comes in through the mirrored uplink port. (the real) ICMP echo request is received by the NIC (the mirrored) ICMP echo request is received by the NIC ICMP echo reply is sent for both. I'm ashamed of myself, but now I know. It was suggested on #networking to either isolate the mirrored traffic to an interface that does not have IP enabled, or tag the mirrored packets with dot1q.

    Read the article

  • Troubleshooting failover cluster problem in W2K8 / SQL05

    - by paulland
    I have an active/passive W2K8 (64) cluster pair, running SQL05 Standard. Shared storage is on a HP EVA SAN (FC). I recently expanded the filesystem on the active node for a database, adding a drive designation. The shared storage drives are designated as F:, I:, J:, L: and X:, with SQL filesystems on the first 4 and X: used for a backup destination. Last night, as part of a validation process (the passive node had been offline for maintenance), I moved the SQL instance to the other cluster node. The database in question immediately moved to Suspect status. Review of the system logs showed that the database would not load because the file "K:\SQLDATA\whatever.ndf" could not be found. (Note that we do not have a K: drive designation.) A review of the J: storage drive showed zero contents -- nothing -- this is where "whatever.ndf" should have been. Hmm, I thought. Problem with the server. I'll just move SQL back to the other server and figure out what's wrong.. Still no database. Suspect. Uh-oh. "Whatever.ndf" had gone into the bit bucket. I finally decided to just restore from the backup (which had been taken immediately before the validation test), so nothing was lost but a few hours of sleep. The question: (1) Why did the passive node think the whatever.ndf files were supposed to go to drive "K:", when this drive didn't exist as a resource on the active node? (2) How can I get the cluster nodes "re-syncd" so that failover can be accomplished? I don't know that there wasn't a "K:" drive as a cluster resource at some time in the past, but I do know that this drive did not exist on the original cluster at the time of resource move.

    Read the article

  • Modelling problem - Networked devices with commands

    - by Schneider
    I encountered a head scratching modelling problem today: We are modelling a physical control system composed of Devices and NetworkDevices. Any example of a Device is a TV. An example of a NetworkDevice is an IR transceiver with Ethernet connection. As you can see, to be able to control the TV over the internet we must connect the Device to the NetworkDevice. There is a one to many relationship between Device and NetworkDevice i.e. TV only has one NetworkDevice (the IR transceiver), but the IR transceiver may control many Devices (e.g. many TVs). So far no problem. The complicated bit is that every Device has a collection of Commands. The type of the Command (e.g IrCommand, SerialCommand - N.B. not currently modelled) depends on the type of NetworkDevice that the Device is connected to. In the current legacy system the Device has a collection of generic Commands (no typing) where fields are "interpreted" depending on the NetworkDevice type. How do I go about modelling this in OOP such that: You can only ever add a Command of the appropriate type, given the NetworkDevice the Device is attached to? If I change the NetworkDevice the Commands collection changes to the appropriate type Make it so the API is simple/elegant/intuitive to use

    Read the article

  • Flash - Uploading to and Downloading from localhost

    - by Md Derf
    I have an online flash application that acts as a front end for a server application built in delphi. The server can be installed/used on a remote computer or a personal version can be downloaded and the Flash app pointed at localhost to use it. However, Flash has issues with using the POST and GET functions on the localhost, which makes uploading data files and downloading results files difficult. To get past the difficulty with downloading results files I'm planning to just have the server app serve the results file as an attachment and have the Flash app open the address of the file up in another browser window using external interface. First off, is this likely to cause similar security issues? I.E. Flash will see "localhost" in the external interface call and stop it from working the same as when I try to use POST/GET functions with localhost? Secondly, for upload this seems just a bit little trickier, I'm planning on doing something similar, having flash use external interface to open a php script for a file upload. Is this feasible and, again, will Flash still have security issues? Lastly, if anyone knows how to get flash to execute POST and GET functions with localhost addresses, I'd love to have that information to avoid all this jumping through hoops.

    Read the article

  • Need a code snippet for backward paging...

    - by Ali
    Hi guys I'm in a bit on a fix here. I know how easy it is to build simple pagination links for dynamic pages whereby you can navigate between partial sets of records from sql queries. However the situation I have is as below: COnsider that I wish to paginate between records listed in a flat file - I have no problem with the retrieval and even the pagination assuming that the flat file is a csv file with the first field as an id and new reocrds on new lines. However I need to make a pagination system which paginates backwards i.e I want the LAST entry in the file to appear as the first as so forth. Since I don't have the power of sql to help me here I'm kinda stuck - all I have is a fixed sequence which needs to be paginated, also note that the id mentioned as first field is not necessarily numeric so forget about sorting by numerics here. I basically need a way to loop through the file but backwards and paginate it as such. How can I do that - I'm working in php - I just need the code to loop through and paginate i.e how to tell which is the offset and which is the current page etc.

    Read the article

  • parameter error in my Facebook app

    - by Robert
    I have written a small app and put it on facebook. I got an application ID and secret. Then I wrote the following script to access my app (just as told on the facebook page). <?php require './src/facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxx', 'cookie' => true, // enable optional cookie support )); try { $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } if ($facebook->getSession()) { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLogoutUrl() . '">Logout</a>'; } else { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLoginUrl() . '">Login</a>'; } ?> Then I started running this script. It prompted me with the login link, then took me to the facebook login page. However, after I enter my facebook login details, I get this error page: Error. API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. Could anyone help me a little bit please, I am really confused here about what's going on.

    Read the article

  • why does b'(and sometimes b' ') show up when I split some HTML source[Python]

    - by Oliver
    I'm fairly new to Python and programming in general. I have done a few tutorials and am about 2/3 through a pretty good book. That being said I've been trying to get more comfortable with Python and proggramming by just trying things in the std lib out. that being said I have recently run into a wierd quirk that I'm sure is the result of my own incorrect or un-"pythonic" use of the urllib module(with Python 3.2.2) import urllib.request HTML_source = urllib.request.urlopen(www.somelink.com).read() print(HTML_source) when this bit is run through the active interpreter it returns the HTML source of somelink, however it prefixes it with b' for example b'<HTML>\r\n<HEAD> (etc). . . . if I split the string into a list by whitespace it prefixes every item with the b' I'm not really trying to accomplish something specific just trying to familiarize myself with the std lib. I would like to know why this b' is getting prefixed also bonus -- Is there a better way to get HTML source WITHOUT using a third party module. I know all that jazz about not reinventing the wheel and what not but I'm trying to learn by "building my own tools" Thanks in Advance!

    Read the article

  • How is conversion of float/double to int handled in printf?

    - by Sandip
    Consider this program int main() { float f = 11.22; double d = 44.55; int i,j; i = f; //cast float to int j = d; //cast double to int printf("i = %d, j = %d, f = %d, d = %d", i,j,f,d); //This prints the following: // i = 11, j = 44, f = -536870912, d = 1076261027 return 0; } Can someone explain why the casting from double/float to int works correctly in the first case, and does not work when done in printf? This program was compiled on gcc-4.1.2 on 32-bit linux machine. EDIT: Zach's answer seems logical, i.e. use of format specifiers to figure out what to pop off the stack. However then consider this follow up question: int main() { char c = 'd'; // sizeof c is 1, however sizeof character literal // 'd' is equal to sizeof(int) in ANSI C printf("lit = %c, lit = %d , c = %c, c = %d", 'd', 'd', c, c); //this prints: lit = d, lit = 100 , c = d, c = 100 //how does printf here pop off the right number of bytes even when //the size represented by format specifiers doesn't actually match //the size of the passed arguments(char(1 byte) & char_literal(4 bytes)) return 0; } How does this work?

    Read the article

  • What is the header of an array in .NET

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I have a little bit seen the representation of an array in memory with Windbg and SOS plugin. Here it is the c# : class myobj{ public int[] arr; } class Program{ static void Main(string[] args){ myobj o = new myobj(); o.arr = new int[7]; o.arr[0] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[1] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[2] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[3] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[4] = 0xFFFFFF; } } I break at final of Main, and I observ : 0:000> !clrstack -l OS Thread Id: 0xc3c (0) ESP EIP 0015f0cc 0043d1cf test.Program.Main(System.String[]) LOCALS: 0x0015f0d8 = 0x018a2f58 0:000 !do 0x018a2f58 Name: test.myobj MethodTable: 0026309c EEClass: 00261380 Size: 12(0xc) bytes (C:\Users\admin\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\test\test\bin\Debug\test.exe) Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 01324530 4000001 4 System.Int32[] 0 instance 018a2f64 tab 0:000 dd 018a2f64 018a2f64 01324530 00000007 00ffffff 00ffffff 018a2f74 00ffffff 00ffffff 00ffffff 00000000 018a2f84 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2f94 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fa4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fb4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fc4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fd4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 I can see that the header contains the size of the array (00000007) but my question is : what is the value 01324530 ? Thanks !

    Read the article

  • How to gray out HTML form inputs?

    - by typoknig
    What is the best way to gray out text inputs on an HTML form? I need the inputs to be grayed out when a user checks a check box. Do I have to use JavaScript for this (not very familiar with JScript) or can I use PHP (which I am more familiar with)? EDIT: After some reading I have got a little bit of code, but it is giving me problems. For some reason I cannot get my script to work based on the state of the form input (enabled or disabled) or the state of my checkbox (checked or unchecked), but my script works fine when I base it on the values of the form inputs. I have written my code exactly like several examples online (mainly this one) but to no avail. None of the stuff that is commented out will work. What am I doing wrong here? <label>Mailing address same as residental address</label> <input name="checkbox" onclick="disable_enable() "type="checkbox" style="width:15px"/><br/><br/> <script type="text/javascript"> function disable_enable(){ if (document.form.mail_street_address.value==1) document.form.mail_street_address.value=0; //document.form.mail_street_address.disabled=true; //document.form.mail_city.disabled=true; //document.form.mail_state.disabled=true; //document.form.mail_zip.disabled=true; else document.form.mail_street_address.value=1; //document.form.mail_street.disabled=false; //document.form.mail_city.disabled=false; //document.form.mail_state.disabled=false; //document.form.mail_zip.disabled=false; } </script>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743  | Next Page >