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• Using jQuery to grab the content from CKEditor's iframe

  - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG

  Hey guys, I have this custom written CMS that uses CKEditor *(FCKEditor v3) for editing content. Along with that I'm using the jQuery Validation plugin to check all fields for error prior to ajax-based submission. For passing on the data to the PHP backend, I'm using the serialize() function. Problem is, serialize manages to grab all other fields correctly, except for the actual content typed in CKEditor. Like every other WYSIWYG editor, this one too overlays an iframe over an existing textbox. And serialize ignores the iframe and looks only into the textbox for content... which of course, it doesn't find - thus returning a blank content body. My approach to this is to create a hook onto the onchange event of CKEditor and concurrently update the textbox (CKEDITOR.instances.[textboxname].getData() returns the content) or some other hidden field with any changes made in the editor. However, since CKEditor is still in it's beta stage and severely lacks documentation, I cannot seem to find a suitable API call that'll enable me to do so. Does anyone have any idea on how to go about this? Or maybe suggest even a better method?

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• How do I make a jQuery POST function open the new page?

  - by ciclistadan

  I know that a submit button in HTML can submit a form which opens the target page, but how do I cause a jQuery ajax call POST information to a new page and display the new page. I am submitting information that is gathered by clicking elements (which toggle a new class) and then all items with this new class are added to an array and POSTed to a new page. I can get it to POST the data but it seems to be working functioning in an ajax non-refreshing manner, not submitting the page and redirecting to the new page. how might I go about doing this? here's the script section: //onload function $(function() { //toggles items to mark them for purchase //add event handler for selecting items $(".line").click(function() { //get the lines item number var item = $(this).toggleClass("select").attr("name"); }); $('#process').click(function() { var items = []; //place selected numbers in a string $('.line.select').each(function(index){ items.push($(this).attr('name')); }); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'additem.php', data: 'items='+items, success: function(){ $('#menu').hide(function(){ $('#success').fadeIn(); }); } }); }); return false; }); any pointers would be great!! thanks

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• Workaround for GNU Make 3.80 eval bug

  - by bengineerd

  I'm trying to create a generic build template for my Makefiles, kind of like they discuss in the eval documentation. I've run into a known bug with GNU Make 3.80. When $(eval) evaluates a line that is over 193 characters, Make crashes with a "Virtual Memory Exhausted" error. The code I have that causes the issue looks like this. SRC_DIR = ./src/ PROG_NAME = test define PROGRAM_template $(1)_SRC_DIR = $$(SRC_DIR)$(1)/ $(1)_SRC_FILES = $$(wildcard $$($(1)_SRC_DIR)*.c) $(1)_OBJ_FILES = $$($(1)_SRC_FILES):.c=.o) $$($(1)_OBJ_FILES) : $$($(1)_SRC_FILES) # This is the problem line endef $(eval $(call PROGRAM_template,$(PROG_NAME))) When I run this Makefile, I get gmake: *** virtual memory exhausted. Stop. The expected output is that all .c files in ./src/test/ get compiled into .o files (via an implicit rule). The problem is that $$($(1)_SRC_FILES) and $$($(1)_OBJ_FILES) are together over 193 characters long (if there are enough source files). I have tried running the make file on a directory where there is only 2 .c files, and it works fine. It's only when there are many .c files in the SRC directory that I get the error. I know that GNU Make 3.81 fixes this bug. Unfortunately I do not have the authority or ability to install the newer version on the system I'm working on. I'm stuck with 3.80. So, is there some workaround? Maybe split $$($(1)_SRC_FILES) up and declare each dependency individually within the eval?

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• Intercepting method with Spring AOP using only annotations

  - by fish

  In my Spring context file I have something like this: <bean id="userCheck" class="a.b.c.UserExistsCheck"/> <aop:config> <aop:aspect ref="userCheck"> <aop:pointcut id="checkUser" expression="execution(* a.b.c.d.*.*(..)) &amp;&amp; args(a.b.c.d.RequestObject)"/> <aop:around pointcut-ref="checkUser" method="checkUser"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> a.b.c.UserExistsCheck looks like this: @Aspect public class UserExistsCheck { @Autowired private UserInformation userInformation; public Object checkUser(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { int userId = ... //get it from the RequestObject passed as a parameter if (userExists(userId)) { return pjp.proceed(); } else { return new ResponseObject("Invalid user); } } And the class that is being intercepted with this stuff looks like this: public class Klazz { public ResponseObject doSomething(RequestObject request) {...} } This works. UserExistCheck is executed as desired before the call is passed to Klazz. The problem is that this is the only way I got it working. To get this working by using annotations instead of the context file seems to be just too much for my small brain. So... how exactly should I annotate the methods in UserExistsCheck and Klazz? And do I still need something else too? Another class? Still something in the context file?

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• Apache Axis2 1.5.1 and NTLM Authentication

  - by arcticpenguin

  I've browsed all of the discussions here on StackOverflow regarding NTLM and Java, and I can't seem to find the answer. I'll try and be much more specific. Here's some code that returns a client stub that (I hope) is configured for NTLM authentication: ServiceStub getService() { try { ServiceStub stub = new ServiceStub( "http://myserver/some/path/to/webservices.asmx"); // this service is hosted on IIS List<String> ntlmPreferences = new ArrayList<String>(1); ntlmPreferences.add(HttpTransportProperties.Authenticator.NTLM); HttpTransportProperties.Authenticator ntlmAuthenticator = new HttpTransportProperties.Authenticator(); ntlmAuthenticator.setPreemptiveAuthentication(true); ntlmAuthenticator.setAuthSchemes(ntlmPreferences); ntlmAuthenticator.setUsername("me"); ntlmAuthenticator.setHost("localhost"); ntlmAuthenticator.setDomain("mydomain"); Options options = stub._getServiceClient().getOptions(); options.setProperty(HTTPConstants.AUTHENTICATE, ntlmAuthenticator); options.setProperty(HTTPConstants.REUSE_HTTP_CLIENT, "true"); stub._getServiceClient().setOptions(options); return stub; } catch (AxisFault e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } This returns a valid SerivceStub object. When I try to invoke a call on the stub, I see the following in my log: Jun 9, 2010 12:12:22 PM org.apache.commons.httpclient.auth.AuthChallengeProcessor selectAuthScheme INFO: NTLM authentication scheme selected Jun 9, 2010 12:12:22 PM org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodDirector authenticate SEVERE: Credentials cannot be used for NTLM authentication: org.apache.commons.httpclient.UsernamePasswordCredentials Does anyone have a solution to this issue?

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• Does HDC use alpha channel?

  - by Crend King

  Hello. Is there a way I can determine if an HDC uses alpha channel? I read Question 333559 and Question 685684, but their questions are about BITMAP. Apparently, some HDC has alpha channel (though they may not use it. Call this "Type 1") while others do not ("Type 2"). I know this by doing the following: Given a HDC, Create a compatible DC, and create a DIB section. Select the created HBITMAP into the compatible DC. BitBlt the source HDC to the compatible DC. Now examine the DIB section bits. For type 2 HDC, after every 3 bytes there is a byte always 0 (like 255 255 255 0); for type 1, these bytes are usualy 255 (like 250 240 230 255). To avoid false positive, I memset the bits to all 0x80 prior to the calls. Use GetDIBits directly on the source HDC, specify the HBITMAP as GetCurrentObject(hdc, OBJ_BITMAP). For both types of HDC, the 4th bytes are always 0. Change the DC bitmap by calling ExtTextOut. For type 2, ExtTextOut always set the 4th bytes to 0. For type 1, ExtTextOut always leave them untouched. I also noticed that the source HDC that are created by APIs (CreateCompatibleDC(), BeginPaint() ...) are always type 2. Type 1 HDC are from standard controls (like menu text). Even the HDC I CreateCompatibleDC from a type 1 becomes a type 2. So, on one hand, I'm frustrated that Microsoft does not provide equal information to developers (another example may be that you cannot know the direction of a HBITMAP after it is created), on the other hand, I'm still wondering is there a way to distinguish these HDC. Thanks for help.

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• Python - Code snippet not working on Python 2.5.6, using IDLE

  - by Francisco P.

  Hello, everyone I am using a piece of self-modifying code for a college project. Here it is: import datetime import inspect import re import sys def main(): # print the time it is last run lastrun = 'Mon Jun 8 16:31:27 2009' print "This program was last run at ", print lastrun # read in the source code of itself srcfile = inspect.getsourcefile(sys.modules[__name__]) f = open(srcfile, 'r') src = f.read() f.close() # modify the embedded timestamp timestamp = datetime.datetime.ctime(datetime.datetime.now()) match = re.search("lastrun = '(.*)'", src) if match: src = src[:match.start(1)] + timestamp + src[match.end(1):] # write the source code back f = open(srcfile, 'w') f.write(src) f.close() if __name__=='__main__': main() Unfortunately, it doesn't work. Error returned: # This is the script's output This program is last run at Mon Jun 8 16:31:27 2009 # This is the error message Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Users\Rui Gomes\Desktop\teste.py", line 30, in <module> main() File "C:\Users\Rui Gomes\Desktop\teste.py", line 13, in main srcfile = inspect.getsourcefile(sys.modules[__name__]) File "C:\Python31\lib\inspect.py", line 439, in getsourcefile filename = getfile(object) File "C:\Python31\lib\inspect.py", line 401, in getfile raise TypeError('{!r} is a built-in module'.format(object)) TypeError: <module '__main__' (built-in)> is a built-in module I'd be thankful for any solutions.

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• Setting up a button to trigger both modalPopupExtender and his Click Method

  - by Vitor Reis

  Hey guys, I have this modalPopupExtender, I want it to show a CheckBoxList with some data. I have set up a button to call both the method to fill the CheckBoxes and trigger the modalPopup (TargetControlID). they're all inside an UpdatePanel. with the right triggers. The problem is that when I click the button it shows the modalPopup but doesn't load the method to fill my CheckBoxes... Also, a linkButton inside the poup (linkButtonCheckAll) just closes the popup when clicked. When I remove the modalPopup the code works just fine and the list is loaded dinamically with the UpdatePanel. <asp:UpdatePanel ID="uppLote" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <ajaxToolkit:ModalPopupExtender ID="modalLote" runat="server" BehaviorID="popup" TargetControlID="buttonViewLote" PopupControlID="panelLote" /> <asp:Panel ID="panelLote" runat="server" CssClass="modalpopup"> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkButtonCheckAll" runat="server" Text="Check All Items" onclick="linkButtonCheckAll_Click"></asp:LinkButton> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="checkListLote" runat="server"> </asp:CheckBoxList> </asp:Panel> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="linkButtonViewLote" EventName="Click" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="linkButtonCheckAll" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> If I completely remove the modalPopupExtender, the code works fine, showing me the list I want with the method "linkButonViewLote_Click" (so, the problem is occurring due to the button triggering the modalPopupExtender is the same that I'm using to get my data, right? Any solutions?

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• How to change disclosure style when user enters in edit mode of a UITableView?

  - by R31n4ld0

  Hello, guys. I have a UITableView that in 'normal' mode, show a UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator meaning if the user taps the row, another list is showed, like HIG says: "Disclosure indicator. When this element is present, users know they can tap anywhere in the row to see the next level in the hierarchy or the choices associated with the list item. Use a disclosure indicator in a row when selecting the row results in the display of another list. Don’t use a disclosure indicator to reveal detailed information about the list item; instead, use a detail disclosure button for this purpose." When the user tap the edit button in the top bar of the UITableView, I think I have to change the disclosure because if the user tap it, a view for changing the information of the current row is showed (see the bold line above), again, like HIG says: "Detail disclosure button. Users tap this element to see detailed information about the list item. (Note that you can use this element in views other than table views, to reveal additional details about something; see “Detail Disclosure Buttons” for more information.) In a table view, use a detail disclosure button in a row to display details about the list item. Note that the detail disclosure button, unlike the disclosure indicator, can perform an action that is separate from the selection of the row. For example, in Phone Favorites, tapping the row initiates a call to the contact; tapping the detail disclosure button in the row reveals more information about the contact." Have I miss understood the HIG, or I really do have to change the disclosure style in edit mode of UITableView? If yes, how I can intercept the edit mode when the user taps the Edit button? Thanks in advance.

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• .net MVC RenderPartial renders information that is not in the model

  - by Andreas

  Hi, I have a usercontrol that is rendering a list of items. Each row contains a unique id in a hidden field, a text and a delete button. When clicking on the delete button I use jquery ajax to call the controller method DeleteCA (seen below). DeleteCA returns a new list of items that replaces the old list. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult DeleteCA(CAsViewModel CAs, Guid CAIdToDelete) { int indexToRemove = CAs.CAList.IndexOf(CAs.CAList.Single(m => m.Id == CAIdToDelete)); CAs.CAList.RemoveAt(indexToRemove); return PartialView("EditorTemplates/CAs", CAs); } I have checked that DeleteCA is really removing the correct item. The modified list of CAs passed to PartialView no longer contains the deleted item. Something weird happens when the partial view is rendered. The number of items in the list is reduced but it is always the last element that is removed from the list. The rendered items does not correspond to the items in the list/model sent to PartialView. In the usercontrol file (ascx) I'm using both Model.CAList and lambda expression m = m.CAList. How is it possible for the usercontrol to render stuff that is not in the model sent to PartialView? Thanx Andreas

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• c++ OpenCV CVCalibrateCamera2 is causing multiple errors

  - by tlayton

  I am making a simple calibration program in C++ using OpenCV. Everything goes fine until I actually try to call CVCalibrateCamera2. At this point, I get one of several errors: If the number of images which I am using is equal to 4 (which is the number of points being drawn from each image: OpenCV Error: Sizes of input arguments do not match (Both matrices must have the same number of points) in unknown function, file ......\src\cv\cvfundam.cpp, line 870 If the number of images is below 20: OpenCV Error: Bad argument (The total number of matrix elements is not divisible by the new number of rows) in unknown function, file ......\src\cxcore\cxarray.cpp, line 2749 Otherwise, if the number of image is 20 or above: OpenCV Error: Unsupported format or combination of formats (Invalid matrix type) in unknown function, file ......\src\cxcore\cxarray.cpp, line 117 I have checked the arguments for CVCalibrateCamera2 many times, and I am certain that they are of the correct dimensions relative to one another. It seems like somewhere the program is trying to reshape a matrix based on the number of images, but I can't figure out where or why. Any ideas? I am using Eclipse Galileo, MINGW 5.1.6, and OpenCV 2.1.

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• C# TCP Async EndReceive() throws InvalidOperationException ONLY on Windows XP 32-bit

  - by James Farmer

  I have a simple C# Async Client using a .NET socket that waits for timed messages from a local Java server used for automating commands. The messages come in asynchronously and is written to a ring buffer. This implementation seems to work fine on Windows Vista/7/8 and OSX, but will randomly throw this exception while it's receiving a message from the local Java server: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: EndReceive can only be called once for each asynchronous operation.     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult, SocketError& errorCode)     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult)     at SocketTest.Controller.RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar)     at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken)     ... I've looked online for this error, but have found nothing really helpful. This is the code where it seems to break: /// <summary> /// Callback to receive socket data /// </summary> /// <param name="ar">AsyncResult to pass to End</param> private void RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // The exception will randomly happen on this call int bytes = _socket.EndReceive(_recvAsyncResult); // check for connection closed if (bytes == 0) { return; } _ringBuffer.Write(_buffer, 0, bytes); // Checks buffer CheckBuffer(); _recvAsyncResult = _sock.BeginReceive(_buffer, 0, _buffer.Length, SocketFlags.None, RecvAsyncCallback, null); } The error doesn't happen on any particular moment except in the middle of receiving a message. The message itself can be any length for this to happen, and the exception can happen right away, or sometimes even up to a minute of perfect communication. I'm pretty new with sockets and network communication, and I feel I might be missing something here. I've tested on at least 8 different computers, and the only similarity with the computers that throw this exception is that their OS is Windows XP 32-bit.

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• Multiple Out-of-Browser Applications in One Application

  - by Otaku

  I'm looking at a scenario where I need to create a single "master" Silverlight application and then add "child" applications for an out-of-browser Silverlight application. The scenario is something like this. A user will visit a gameboard web site and choose a game to play. Let's call it Checkers. He likes it, so then he installs the out-of-browser app to his desktop. He then finds Chess, and installs that too. For both games, while played on the site, he has stats (games played, win/loss records, etc.). For each game on the site, he navigates to a different page. But now he wants to play offline and view his stats and other cross-games information. He wants to have a single app to launch to play either game. From his single out-of-browser app, he sees that Go is also available, and he places a checkmark against it to download on his next connection. Does anyone have any experience at developing multiple out-of-browser Silverlight apps that reside within a single master app? What considerations need to be had for this type of design? How would this work in terms of install experience from different web pages?

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• drupal_add_css not working

  - by hfidgen

  Hiya, I need to use drupal_add_css to call stylesheets onto single D6 pages. I don't want to edit the main theme stylesheet as there will be a set of individual pages which all need completely new styles - the main sheet would be massive if i put it all in there. My solution was to edit the page in PHP editor mode and do this: <?php drupal_add_css("/styles/file1.css", "theme"); ?> <div id="newPageContent">stuff here in html</div> But when i view source, there is nothing there! Not even a broken css link or anything, it's just refusing to add the css sheet to the css package put into the page head. Variations don't seem to work either: drupal_add_css($path = '/styles/file1.css', $type = 'module', $media = 'all', $preprocess = TRUE) My template header looks like this, i've not changed anything from the default other than adding a custom JS. <head> <?php print $head ?> <title><?php print $head_title ?></title> <?php print $styles ?> <?php print $scripts ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php print base_path() ?>misc/askme.js"></script> <!--[if lt IE 7]> <?php print phptemplate_get_ie_styles(); ?> <![endif]--> </head> Can anyone think of a reason why this function is not working? Thanks!

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• Loading a RSA private key from memory using libxmlsec

  - by ereOn

  Hello, I'm currently using libxmlsec into my C++ software and I try to load a RSA private key from memory. To do this, I searched trough the API and found this function. It takes binary data, a size, a format string and several PEM-callback related parameters. When I call the function, it just stucks, uses 100% of the CPU time and never returns. Quite annoying, because I have no way of finding out what is wrong. Here is my code: d_xmlsec_dsig_context->signKey = xmlSecCryptoAppKeyLoadMemory( reinterpret_cast<const xmlSecByte*>(data), static_cast<xmlSecSize>(datalen), xmlSecKeyDataFormatBinary, NULL, NULL, NULL ); data is a const char* pointing to the raw bytes of my RSA key (using i2d_RSAPrivateKey(), from OpenSSL) and datalen the size of data. My test private key doesn't have a passphrase so I decided not to use the callbacks for the time being. Has someone already done something similar ? Do you guys see anything that I could change/test to get forward on this problem ? I just discovered the library on yesterday, so I might miss something obvious here; I just can't see it. Thank you very much for your help.

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• Delegate within a delegate in VB.NET.

  - by Topdown

  I am trying to write a VB.NET alternative to a C# anonymous function. I wish to call Threading.SynchronizationContext.Current.Send which expects a delegate of type Threading.SendOrPostCallback to be passed to it. The background is here, but because I wish to both pass in a string to MessageBox.Show and also capture the DialogResult I need to define another delegate within. I am struggling with the VB.NET syntax, both from the traditional delegate style, and lambda functions. My go at the traditional syntax is below, but I have gut feeling it should be much simpler than this: Private Sub CollectMesssageBoxResultFromUserAsDelegate(ByVal messageToShow As String, ByRef wasCanceled As Boolean) wasCanceled = False If Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(String.Format("{0}{1}Please press [OK] to ignore this error and continue, or [Cancel] to stop here.", messageToShow), "Continue", Windows.Forms.MessageBoxButtons.OKCancel, Windows.Forms.MessageBoxIcon.Exclamation) = Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Then wasCanceled = True End If End Sub Private Delegate Sub ShowMessageBox(ByVal messageToShow As String, ByRef canceled As Boolean) Private Sub AskUserWhetherToCancel(ByVal message As String, ByVal args As CancelEventArgs) If args Is Nothing Then args = New System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs With {.Cancel = False} Dim wasCancelClicked As Boolean Dim firstDelegate As New ShowMessageBox(AddressOf CollectMesssageBoxResultFromUserAsDelegate) '…. Now what?? 'I can’t declare SendOrPostCallback as below: 'Dim myDelegate As New Threading.SendOrPostCallback(AddressOf firstDelegate) End Sub

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• Project Euler: Programmatic Optimization for Problem 7?

  - by bmucklow

  So I would call myself a fairly novice programmer as I focused mostly on hardware in my schooling and not a lot of Computer Science courses. So I solved Problem 7 of Project Euler: By listing the first six prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, and 13, we can see that the 6th prime is 13. What is the 10001st prime number? I managed to solve this without problem in Java, but when I ran my solution it took 8 and change seconds to run. I was wondering how this could be optimized from a programming standpoint, not a mathematical standpoint. Is the array looping and while statements the main things eating up processing time? And how could this be optimized? Again not looking for a fancy mathematical equation..there are plenty of those in the solution thread. SPOILER My solution is listed below. public class PrimeNumberList { private ArrayList<BigInteger> primesList = new ArrayList<BigInteger>(); public void fillList(int numberOfPrimes) { primesList.add(new BigInteger("2")); primesList.add(new BigInteger("3")); while (primesList.size() < numberOfPrimes){ getNextPrime(); } } private void getNextPrime() { BigInteger lastPrime = primesList.get(primesList.size()-1); BigInteger currentTestNumber = lastPrime; BigInteger modulusResult; boolean prime = false; while(!prime){ prime = true; currentTestNumber = currentTestNumber.add(new BigInteger("2")); for (BigInteger bi : primesList){ modulusResult = currentTestNumber.mod(bi); if (modulusResult.equals(BigInteger.ZERO)){ prime = false; break; } } if(prime){ primesList.add(currentTestNumber); } } } public BigInteger get(int primeTerm) { return primesList.get(primeTerm - 1); } }

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• Help with Custom Workflow that monitors an objects state

  - by zSysop

  I need to write a workflow that monitors the status of an object. (It could wait for days or hours for a state to change) I have the following states for the object (lets call it an Issue object): 1) Created 2) Unowned 3) Owned 4) UnAssigned 4) Assigned 6) In Progress 7) Signed Off 8) Closed I would also need to take some action on an object if the object was within a certain state for a defined period (not really sure on how this can be accomplished either). The object's owner/assignee can change at any point (i.e. Go from In Progress to UnOwned) so i am guessing that a state machine diagram is what i would need to use. If my thinking is incorrect then please let me know. My application is written in c# .net 3.5. I was thinking about having a service method called CreateIssue that would insert the ticket into the db and then begin an instance of a workflow (with the object or an id of the object as parameters). I wasn't sure of how the workflow would then know when a particular object has been updated, or if the object's state has changed. I've done some really simple "hello world" type of apps with windows workflow foundation 3.5 but have not yet grasped how to do go about implementing something like this. Any direction on this will be extremely helpful. Thanks in advance.

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• Running job in the background from Perl WITHOUT waiting for return

  - by Rafael Almeida

  The Disclaimer First of all, I know this question (or close variations) have been asked a thousand times. I really spent a few hours looking in the obvious and the not-so-obvious places, but there may be something small I'm missing. The Context Let me define the problem more clearly: I'm writing a newsletter app in which I want the actual sending process to be async. As in, user clicks "send", request returns immediately and then they can check the progress in a specific page (via AJAX, for example). It's written in your traditional LAMP stack. In the particular host I'm using, PHP's exec() and system() are disabled for security reasons, but Perl's system functions (exec, system and backticks) aren't. So my workaround solution was to create a "trigger" script in Perl that calls the actual sender via the PHP CLI, and redirects to the progress page. Where I'm Stuck The very line the calls the sender is, as of now: system("php -q sender.php &"); Problem being, it's not returning immediately, but waiting for the script to finish. I want it to run in the background but the system call itself returns right away. I also tried running a similar script in my Linux terminal, and in fact the prompt doesn't show until after the script has finished, even though my test output doesn't run, indicating it's really running in the background. What I already tried Perl's exec() function - same result of system(). Changing the command to: "php -q sender.php | at now"), hoping that the "at" daemon would return and that the PHP process itself wouldn't be attached to Perl. What should I try now?

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• Getting value from href using jQuery

  - by bateman_ap

  Hi, I wonder if anyone can help with a jQuery problem I am having. I am using the tooltips from the Jquery Tools library to create a popup window when mousing over an hrefed image, this I want to use to cusomise the call to change the content in the DIV. The links I am using are in the form: <a href="/venue/1313.htm" class="quickView"><img src="/images/site/quickView83.png" alt="Quick View" width="83" height="20" /></a> The code I am using to trigger the tip is: $(".quickView").live('mouseover', function() { if (!$(this).data('init')) { $(this).data('init', true); ajax_quickView(); $(this).tooltip ({ /* tooltip configuration goes here */ tip: "#quickViewWindow", position: "right", offset: [0, -300], effect: 'slide' }); $(this).trigger('mouseover'); } }); I have tried the following function to grab the ID (in the example above, 1313) from the link: function ajax_quickView(){ var pageNum = $("a.quickView").attr("href").match(/venue/([0-9]+)/).htm[1]; $("#quickViewWindow").load("/quick-view/", function(){}) } However I think this is where it falls down, I think my regex is prob to blame... Once I get the var pageNum I presume I can just pass it into the .load as: $("#quickViewWindow").load("/quick-view/", {id : pageNum }, function(){}) Many thanks

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• What is the correct way to pass an object to WebApi RC controller

  - by Diver Dan

  I have a webapi project running rc I have a very basic controlller like [System.Web.Http.HttpPost] public void Update(Business business) { //if (business.Id == Guid.Empty) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business ID not provided", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); //} _repository.Update(business); //if (!isUpdated) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business not found", HttpStatusCode.NotFound); //} } I found an example using HttpClient however it doesnt work with rc using (var client = new HttpClient()) { try { string url = string.Format("{0}{1}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiBaseUrl"].ToString(),apiMethod); HttpRequestMessage request = new HttpRequestMessage(); MediaTypeFormatter[] formatter = new MediaTypeFormatter[] { new JsonMediaTypeFormatter() }; var content = request.CreateContent<Business>( business, MediaTypeHeaderValue.Parse("application/json"), formatter, new FormatterSelector()); HttpResponseMessage response = client.PostAsync(url, content).Result; return response.Content.ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } I get an error Method not found: 'Void System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpHeaders.AddWithoutValidation(System.String, System.String)'. Passing the data from jquery is a piece of cake however I need call the api from code behind vs client side. Can someone point me in the right direction for calling the webapi? Thank you

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• Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does setting a DependencyProperty to a COM object using SetValue() t

  - by stakx

  Assume that I have a .NET Workflow Foundation (WF) SequenceActivity class with the following property: public IWorkspace Workspace { get; set; } // ^^^^^^^^^^ // important: this is a COM interface type! public static DependencyProperty WorkspaceProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Workspace", typeof(IWorkspace), typeof(FoobarActivity)); // <-- this activity class This activity executes some code that sets both of the above like this: this.Workspace = ...; // exact code not relevant; property set to a COM object SetValue(WorkspaceProperty, this.Workspace); The last line (which makes the call to SetValue) results in an ArgumentException for the second parameter (having the value of this.Workspace): Type […].IWorkspace of dependency property Workspace does not match the value's type System.__ComObject.                                           (translated from German, the English exception text might differ slightly) As soon as I register the dependency property with typeof(object) instead of typeof(IWorkspace) as the second parameter, the code executes just fine. However, that would result in the possibility to assign just about any value to the dependency property, and I do not want that. It seems to me that WF dependency properties don't work for COM interop objects.Does anyone have a solution to this?

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• multithreading in c#

  - by Lalit Dhake

  Hi, I have console application. In that i have some process that fetch the data from database through different layers ( business and Data access). stores the fetched data in respective objects. Like if data is fetched for student then this data will store (assigned ) to Student object. same for school. and them a delegate call the certain method that generates outputs as per requirement. This process will execute many times say 10 times. Ok? I want to run simultaneously this process. not one will start, it will finish and then second will start. I want after starting 1'st process, just 2'nd , 3rd....10'th must be start. Means it should be multithreading. how can i achieve this ? is that will give me error while connection with data base open and close ? I have tried this concept . but when thread 1'st is starting then data will fetched for thread 1 will stored in its respective (student , school) objects. ok? when simultaneous 2'nd thread starts , but the data is changing of 1'st object ,while control flowing in program. What have to do?

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• ASP.NET MVC and WCF

  - by Michael Stum

  I'm working my way into MVC at the moment, but on my "To learn at some point" list, I also have WCF. I just wonder if WCF is something that should/could be used in an MVC Application or not? The Background is that I want a Desktop Application (.NET 3.5, WPF) interact with my MVC Web Site, and I wonder what the best way to transfer data between the two is. Should I just use special Views/have the controllers return JSON or XML (using the ContentResult)? And maybe even more important, for the other way round, could I just call special controllers? Not sure how Authorization would work in such a context. I can either use Windows Authentication or (if the Site is running forms authentication) have the user store his/her credentials in the application, but I would then essentially create a HTTP Client in my Application. So while MVC = Application seems really easy, Application = MVC does seem to be somewhat tricky and a possible use for WCF? I'm not trying to brute-force WCF in this, but I just wonder if there is indeed a good use case for WCF in an MVC application.

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• WinForms Load Event / Static Initialization Strangeness

  - by Eric J.

  Background I'm troubleshooting an WinForms 2.0 program that's already been burned to CD for distribution to an internet-challenged target audience. Some users are experiencing a fatal error that I can reproduce locally. Reproducing the Error I get the fatal error when I log into my Vista box using a standard user that I just created, even if I run the program as administrator. I do not get the fatal error when I log in as local administrator. I'm not sure that being administrator is necessarily the trigger (since runas did not help). I have reproduced this half a dozen times under each account with consistent results. The faulty code Base.cs (base class for several user controls, only one of which is shown on first screen) private void BaseWindow_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // This message shown once in both cases MessageBox.Show("BaseWindow_Load for " + this.GetType().FullName); SkinManager.ApplySkin(this); } SkinManager.cs private static Skin skin = null; public static void ApplySkin(UserControl applyTo) { if (skin == null) { skin = new Skin(SkinsDirectory, "Default"); } } Skin.cs internal Skin(string skinPath, string skinName) { config = SkinConfig.Load(path); } SkinConfig.cs public static SkinConfig Load(string path) { // This message shown only once running as Admin but twice running as standard user System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("@1"); // !!! LOCK path HERE !!! } A user control loads on the first form, which triggers a call to SkinManager.ApplySkin, which checks if skin is null and, if so assigns it (without thread synchronization or recursion protection), which ultimately causes a file to be opened. When logged in as local admin, that sequence completes just fine. When logged in as my test standard user, ApplySkin is always called a second time while skin is still null, causing a second attempt to load, causing the file to be locked on the second attempt. The error handling is draconian at this point and the program terminates. The Question While this code can be easily fixed, I would like to understand why the error is happening only in some cases.

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