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Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

- by mare

I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

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Should we use p(..) or (*p)(..) when p is a function pointer?

- by q0987

Reference: [33.11] Can I convert a pointer-to-function to a void*? #include "stdafx.h" #include <iostream> int f(char x, int y) { return x; } int g(char x, int y) { return y; } typedef int(*FunctPtr)(char,int); int callit(FunctPtr p, char x, int y) // original { return p(x, y); } int callitB(FunctPtr p, char x, int y) // updated { return (*p)(x, y); } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { FunctPtr p = g; // original std::cout << p('c', 'a') << std::endl; FunctPtr pB = &g; // updated std::cout << (*pB)('c', 'a') << std::endl; return 0; } Question Which way, the original or updated, is the recommended method? Thank you Although I do see the following usage in the original post: void baz() { FredMemFn p = &Fred::f; ? declare a member-function pointer ... }

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Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

- by Endemic

In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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how to organize classes in ruby if they are literal subclasses

- by RetroNoodle

I know that title didn't make sense, Im sorry! Its hard to word what I am trying to ask. I had trouble googling it for the same reason. So this isn't even Ruby specific, but I am working in ruby and I am new to it, so bear with me. So you have a class that is a document. Inside each document, you have sentences, and each sentence has words. Words will have properties, like "noun" or a count of how many times they are used in the document, etc. I would like each of the elements, document, sentence, word be an object. Now, if you think literally - sentences are in documents, and words are in sentences. Should this be organized literally like this as well? Like inside the document class you will define and instantiate the sentence objects, and inside the sentence class you will define and instantiate the words? Or, should everything be separate and reference each other? Like the word class would sit outside the sentence class but the sentence class would be able to instantiate and work with words? This is a basic OOP question I guess, and I suppose you could argue to do it either way. What do you guys think? Each sentence in the document could be stored in a hash of sentence objects inside the document object, and each word in the sentence could be stored in a hash of word objects inside the sentence. I dont want to code myself into a corner here, thats why I am asking, plus I have wondered this before in other situations. Thank you!

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Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

- by chernevik

I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

- by Matt Rowles

I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

- by user359519

(Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

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Delphi static method of a class returning property value

- by mitko.berbatov

I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

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In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

- by Hamish Grubijan

The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

- by Scott Balmos

Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

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Combining two exe files

- by Sophia

Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

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Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

- by Nix

I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

- by Bob Spryn

So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

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How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

- by deeviate

I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

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Vectors or Java arrays for Tetris?

- by StackedCrooked

I'm trying to create a Tetris-like game with Clojure and I'm having some trouble deciding the data structure for the playing field. I want to define the playing field as a mutable grid. The individual blocks are also grids, but don't need to be mutable. My first attempt was to define a grid as a vector of vectors. For example an S-block looks like this: :s-block { :grids [ [ [ 0 1 1 ] [ 1 1 0 ] ] [ [ 1 0 ] [ 1 1 ] [ 0 1 ] ] ] } But that turns out to be rather tricky for simple things like iterating and painting (see the code below). For making the grid mutable my initial idea was to make each row a reference. But then I couldn't really figure out how to change the value of a specific cell in a row. One option would have been to create each individual cell a ref instead of each row. But that feels like an unclean approach. I'm considering using Java arrays now. Clojure's aget and aset functions will probably turn out to be much simpler. However before digging myself in a deeper mess I want to ask ideas/insights. How would you recommend implementing a mutable 2d grid? Feel free to share alternative approaches as well. Source code current state: Tetris.clj (rev452)

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Export to csv, string w/ comma in it, splits it up

- by Brad

This code exports data into a csv file, which is opened within Excel. When a string has a comma within it, it messes up the order of the data. I need help modifying my code below to resolve any data that contains a comma within it, to not to create a new column. I am assuming it will pass each string within double quotes, so any comma within those quotes, then it will make an exception. Any help is appreciated. $result = mysql_query("select lname, fname, email, dtelephone, etelephone, contactwhen, comments, thursday, friday, saturday, sunday, monday FROM volunteers_2010"); $csv_output .= "Last Name,First Name,Email,Telephone (Day),Telephone (Evening),Contact When,Comments,Thursday,Friday,Saturday,Sunday,Monday,Comments\n"; $i = 0; if (mysql_num_rows($result) > 0) { while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $csv_output .= $row['Field'].", "; $i++; } } $csv_output .= "\n"; $values = mysql_query("SELECT lname, fname, email, dtelephone, etelephone, contactwhen, comments, thursday, friday, saturday, sunday, monday FROM volunteers_2010 WHERE venue_id = $venue_id"); while ($rowr = mysql_fetch_row($values)) { for ($j=0;$j<$i;$j++) { $csv_output .= $rowr[$j].", "; } $csv_output .= "\n"; }

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An issue on object orientation in php

- by rabidmachine9

Hello people, I have come up to issues while I'm trying to write some classes, here is an example: I have this class called TwitterGrub and I cant call it like that: $c = new TwitterGrub(); $c->twitterDisplay(); here is the class itself: <?php class TwitterGrub{ function twitterCapture($user = 'username',$password = 'pass') { $ch = curl_init("https://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline.xml"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 1); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_USERPWD,$user . ":" . $password); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); $result=curl_exec ($ch); $data = strstr($result, '<?'); $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($data); return $xml; } function twitterDisplay($twitNum = 2){ $xml = $this::twitterCapture(); for($i= 0; $i<$twitNum; $i++){ echo "<div class= 'curvebox'>".$xml->status[$i]->text."</div>"; } } } ?> The problem is that everytime I want to change the username or password I have to jump back to class definition and that makes things not modular... and in many ways it feels wrong. So the question is what would be the proper way to chance my username and password through the objects interface and then call twitterDisplay() method with the new data?Hope that makes sense. Thanks in advance

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How to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers

- by droidsites

Doing a web site using spring mvc. I added a SignupController to handle all the sign up related requests. Once user signup I am adding that to a session using @Scope("session"). Below is the SignupController code, SignupController.java @Controller @Scope("session") public class SignupController { @Autowired SignupServiceInter signUpService; private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(SignupController.class); private String sessionUser; @RequestMapping("/SignupService") public ModelAndView signUp(@RequestParam("userid") String userId, @RequestParam("password") String password,@RequestParam("mailid") String emailId){ logger.debug(" userId:"+userId+"::Password::"+password+"::"); String signupResult; try { signUpService.registerUser(userId, password,emailId); sessionUser = userId; //adding the sign up user to the session return new ModelAndView("userHomePage","loginResult","Success"); //Navigate to user Home page if everything goes right } catch (UserExistsException e) { signupResult = e.toString(); return new ModelAndView("signUp","loginResult", signupResult); //Navigate to signUp page back if user does not exist } } } I am using "sessionUser" variable to store the signed up User Id. My understanding is that when I use @Scope("session") for the controller all the instance variables will added to HttpSession. So by that understanding I tried to access this "SessionUser" in userHomePage.jsp as, userHomepage.jsp Welcome to <%=session.getAttribute("sessionUser")%> But it throws null. So my question is how to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers. Note: My work around is that pass that signed User Id to jsp page through ModelAndView, but it seems passing the value like these among the pages takes me back to managing state among pages using QueryStrings days.

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Display last image taken in Media.Images

- by steve

Hi I'm inserting an image from the camera (Taking a picture) into the MediaStore.Images.Media datastore. Does anyone know how I can go about displaying the last picture taken? I used Uri image = ContentUris.withAppendedId(externalContentUri, 45); to display an image from the datastore but obviously 45 is not the correct image. I try to pass the information from the previous activity (Camera) to the display activity but I'm assuming due to the photo call back being its own thread the value never gets set. Photo code is as follows Camera.PictureCallback photoCallback = new Camera.PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub FileOutputStream fos; try { Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(data, 0, data.length); fileUrl = MediaStore.Images.Media.insertImage(getContentResolver(), bm, "LastTaken", "Picture"); if(fileUrl == null) { Log.d("Still", "Image Insert Failed"); return; } else { picUri = Uri.parse(fileUrl); sendBroadcast(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_MEDIA_SCANNER_SCAN_FILE, picUri)); } } catch(Exception e) { Log.d("Picture", "Error Picture: ", e); } camera.startPreview(); } };

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Event-based interaction between two custom classes

- by Antenka

Hello everybody. I have such problem: I have 2 custom components, which have their own nesting hierarchy ... One is container for another. I have to "familiarize them" with each other. The way I'm trying to achieve that is using global events (one side is firing and the other one is catching): Application.application.addEventListener("Hello", function (data:Event):void{ // .. some actions }); //and Application.application.dispatchEvent(new Event(Hello)); Everything is pretty good, but there's one thingy .. when I'm trying to catch the event, I can't access the class, who is catching it. E.g.: Container fires the event. Child caughts it. Then should be created the connection between container and it's child. BUT, the only thing I could acheive is passing a reference to the Container in the DynamicEvent. Is there any chance that I could access the child at the event-handler function. Or maybe there's more elegant way to solve this problem ... Any help would be greately appreciated :)

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Creating a assertClass() method in JUnit

- by Mike

Hi, I'm creating a test platform for a protocol project based on Apache MINA. In MINA when you receive packets the messageReceived() method gets an Object. Ideally I'd like to use a JUnit method assertClass(), however it doesn't exist. I'm playing around trying to work out what is the closest I can get. I'm trying to find something similar to instanceof. Currently I have: public void assertClass(String msg, Class expected, Object given) { if(!expected.isInstance(given)) Assert.fail(msg); } To call this: assertClass("Packet type is correct", SomePacket.class, receivedPacket); This works without issue, however in experimenting and playing with this my interest was peaked by the instanceof operator. if (receivedPacket instanceof SomePacket) { .. } How is instanceof able to use SomePacket to reference the object at hand? It's not an instance of an object, its not a class, what is it?! Once establishing what type SomePacket is at that point is it possible to extend my assertClass() to not have to include the SomePacket.class argument, instead favouring SomePacket?

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XNA, C# - Check if a Vector2 path crosses another Vector2 path.

- by Nick

Hello all, I have an XNA question for those with more experience in these matters than myself (maths). Background: I have a game that implements a boundary class, this simply hosts 2 Vector2 objects, a start and an end point. The current implementation crudely handles collision detection by assuming boundaries are always vertical or horizontal, i.e. if start.x and end.x are the same check I am not trying to pass x etc. Ideally what I would like to implement is a method that accepts two Vector2 parameters. The first being a current location, the second being a requested location (where I would like to move it to assuming no objections). The method would also accept a boundary object. What the method should then do is tell me if I am going to cross the boundry in this move. this could be a bool or ideally something representing how far I can actually move. This empty method might explain better than I can in words. /// <summary> /// Checks the move. /// </summary> /// <param name="current">The current.</param> /// <param name="requested">The requested.</param> /// <param name="boundry">The boundry.</param> /// <returns></returns> public bool CheckMove(Vector2 current, Vector2 requested, Boundry boundry) { //return a bool that indicated if the suggested move will cross the boundry. return true; }

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Does BeginReceive() get everything sent by BeginSend()?

- by IVlad

I'm writing a program that will have both a server side and a client side, and the client side will connect to a server hosted by the same program (but by another instance of it, and usually on another machine). So basically, I have control over both aspects of the protocol. I am using BeginReceive() and BeginSend() on both sides to send and receive data. My question is if these two statements are true: Using a call to BeginReceive() will give me the entire data that was sent by a single call to BeginSend() on the other end when the callback function is called. Using a call to BeginSend() will send the entire data I pass it to the other end, and it will all be received by a single call to BeginReceive() on the other end. The two are basically the same in fact. If the answer is no, which I'm guessing is the case based on what I've read about sockets, what is the best way to handle commands? I'm writing a game that will have commands such as PUT X Y. I was thinking of appending a special character (# for example) to the end of each command, and each time I receive data, I append it to a buffer, then parse it only after I encounter a #.

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cin.getline() equivalent when getting a char from a function.

- by Aaron

From what I understand cin.getLine gets the first char(which I think it a pointer) and then gets that the length. I have used it when cin for a char. I have a function that is returning a pointer to the first char in an array. Is there an equivalent to get the rest of the array into a char that I can use the entire array. I explained below what I am trying to do. The function works fine, but if it would help I could post the function. cmd_str[0]=infile();// get the pointer from a function cout<<"pp1>"; cout<< "test1"<<endl; // cin.getline(cmd_str,500);something like this with the array from the function cout<<cmd_str<<endl; this would print out the entire array cout<<"test2"<<endl; length=0; length= shell(cmd_str);// so I could pass it to this function

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Parsing an XML string containing " " (which must be preserved)

- by Zoodor

I have code that is passed a string containing XML. This XML may contain one or more instances of   (an entity reference for the blank space character). I have a requirement that these references should not be resolved (i.e. they should not be replaced with an actual space character). Is there any way for me to achieve this? Basically, given a string containing the XML: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9 ]" /> I do not want it to be converted to: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9 ]" /> (What I am actually trying to achieve is to simply take an XML string and write it to a "pretty-printed" file. This is having the side-effect of resolving occurrences of   in the string to a single space character, which need to be preserved. The reason for this requirement is that the written XML document must conform to an externally-defined specification.) I have tried creating a sub-class of XmlTextReader to read from the XML string and overriding the ResolveEntity() method, but this isn't called. I have also tried assigning a custom XmlResolver.

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