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  • Jquery Double clicking on link removing div content

    - by ram
    I wrote this code to load the content of a DIV ,when some one clicks on a link. Now,if you click on a link twice,it is removing the content. Here is the code $('a').click(function() { var id = $(this).attr('class'); if(id == 'first') { $('.active').removeClass('active'); $('a.first').addClass('active'); } else if(id == 'second') { $('.active').removeClass('active'); $('a.second').addClass('active'); } $('#first').toggle(id == 'first'); $('#second').toggle(id == 'second'); });? <a class="first">one</a> <a class="second">two</a> <div> <li id="first"> <h2>pen</h2> <div> <div>parker</div> </div> </li> <li id="second" style="display: none;"> <h2>car</h2> <div>Bugatti</div> </div> </li> </div>? .active { color: green; }

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  • supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result

    - by jasmine
    I have written a function: function selectWithPaging($where){ $pg = (int) (!isset($_GET["pg"]) ? 1 : $_GET["pg"]); $pg = ($pg == 0 ? 1 : $pg); $perpage = 10;//limit in each page $startpoint = ($pg * $perpage) - $perpage; $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM $where ORDER BY id ASC LIMIT $startpoint,$perpage"); return $result; } but when inserting in this function : function categories() { selectWithPaging('category') $text .='<h2 class="mainH">Categories</h2>'; $text .= '<table><tr class="cn"><td>ID</td><td class="name">Category</td> <td>Durum</td>'; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $home = $row['home']; $publish = $row['published']; $ID = $row['id']; $src = '<img src="'.ADMIN_IMG.'homec.png">'; ------------- } there is this error: supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result What is wrong in my first function? Thanks in advance

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  • Can foreground threads be aborted on application shutdown in C#.Net?

    - by Cartman
    I inherited a c# winforms app (.NET 2.0) which creates a thread upon startup in a singleton class. This thread handles messages from a messaging topic (Tibco EMS). When the app is shutdown, the thread doesn't remain the the background? How is this possible? Is there something else happening that can abort this thread? Code snippet: public class Startup { public static void main(string [] args) { MySingletonClass.Instance.Init(); // do other things below Application.Run(new MainForm()); } public class MySingletonClass { // singleton code //.. //.. private Thread t; public void Init() { t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(poll)); } private void poll() { while(true} { // listen for messages and process but there is no break clause // exceptions are also handled within to ensure control doesnt go out } } Pls. don't write to tell me this is bad code. I know it and i was going to refactor it when i realised that the app actually shutdowns correctly inspite of this aberration. So i want to understand how this is possible. Thanks for your help

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  • Prevent duplicate entries in arraylist

    - by timyh
    Say I create some object class like so public class thing { private String name; private Integer num; public oDetails (String a, Integer b) { name = a; num = b; } ...gets/ sets/ etc Now I want to create an arraylist to hold a number of this object class like so. ArrayList<thing> myList = new ArrayList<thing>; thing first = new thing("Star Wars", 3); thing second = new thing("Star Wars", 1); myList.add(first); myList.add(second); I would like to include some sort of logic so that in this case...when we try and add object "second" rather than add a new object to the arrayList, we add second.getNum() to first.getNum(). So if you were to iterate through the ArrayList it would be "Star Wars", 4 I am having trouble coming up with an elegant way of handling this. And as the arraylist grows, searching through it to determine if there are duplicate name items becomes cumbersome. Can anyone provide some guidance on this?

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  • are there requirements for Struts setters beyond variable name matching?

    - by slk
    I have a model-driven Struts Web action: public class ModelDrivenAction<T extends Object> implements ModelDriven<T>, Preparable { protected Long id; protected T model; @Override public void prepare() {} public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Override public T getModel() { return model; } public void setModel(T model) { this.model = model; } } I have another action which is not currently model-driven: public class OtherAction implements Preparable { private ModelObj modelObj; private Long modelId; @Override public void prepare() { modelObj = repoService.retrieveModelById(modelId); } public void setModelId(Long modelId) { this.modelId = modelId; } } I wish to make it so, and would like to avoid having to track down all the instances in JavaScript where the action is passed a "modelId" parameter instead of "id" if at all possible. I thought this might work, so either modelId or id could be passed in: public class OtherAction extends ModelDrivenAction<ModelObj> { @Override public void prepare() { model = repoService.retrieveModelById(id); } public void setModelId(Long modelId) { this.id = modelId; } } However, server/path/to/other!method?modelId=123 is failing to set id. I thought so long as a setter matched a parameter name the Struts interceptor would call it on action invocation. Am I missing something here?

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  • Passing data to a jQuery click() function

    - by jakenoble
    Hi I have a simple span like so <span class="action removeAction">Remove</span> This span is within a table, each row has a remove span. And then I call a URL using AJAX when that span is clicked. The AJAX event needs to know the ID of the object for that row? What is the best way of getting that ID into the click function? I thought I could do something like this <span class="action removeAction" id="1">Remove</span> But an ID should not start with a number? Right? Then I thought I could do <span class="action removeAction" id="my1">Remove</span> Then just strip the 'my' part from the ID, but that just seems Yuk! Below is my click event and where my AJAX event is. <script type="text/javascript" language="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".removeAction").click(function() { //AJAX here that needs to know the ID } }); </script> I am sure there is a nice way of doing this? Thanks. Jake.

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  • In RoR, is there an easy way to prevent the view from outputting <p> tags?

    - by dt
    I'm new to Ruby and Rails and I have a simple controller that shows an item from the database in a default view. When it is displaying in HTML it is outputting <p> tags along with the text content. Is there a way to prevent this from happening? I suppose if there isn't, is there at least a way to set the default css class for the same output in a statement such as this: <% @Items.each do |i| %> <%= i.itemname %> <div class="menu_body"> <a href="#">Link-1</a> </div> <% end %> So the problem is with the <%= i.itemname %> part. Is there a way to stop it from wrapping it in its own <p> tags? Or set the css class for the output? Thanks!

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

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  • How to create a reference tables for collection classes using fluent nhibernate

    - by Akk
    How can i create a 3 table schema from the following model classes. public class Product { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public IList<Photo> Photos {get; set;} } public class Photo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Path {get; set;} } I want to create the following table structure in the database: Product ------- Id Name ProductPhotos ------------- ProductId (FK Products.Id) PhotoId (FK Photos.Id) Photos ------ Id Path How i can express the above Database Schema using Fluent NHibernate? I could only manage the following the Mapping but this does not get me the 3rd Photo ref table. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Table("Products"); HasMany(x => x.Photos).Table("ProductPhotos").KeyColumn("ProductId"); } }

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  • auto div height

    - by Geln
    <html><head><title>Test</title> <style> .main{width:600px;border:1px solid red; } .main .left{background:lightblue; width:100px;clear:both; float:left;} .main .right{margin-left:100px;background:lightyellow; } </style> </head><body> <div class="main"> <div class="left"> title </div> <div class="right"> <div id="item">item</div> <div id="item">item</div> <div id="item">item</div> <div id="item">item</div> <div id="item">item</div> <div id="item">item</div> <div id="item">item</div> </div> </div> </body></html> How to change the CSS to make the page display like the dialog shows? PS,I think it's a way that to make the "left" div's height auto expend when the height of the "right" div or parent div expend, but I don't know how.

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  • How do I deserialize a namespaced element to an object in .net?

    - by pc1oad1etter
    Given this XML snippet: ... <InSide:setHierarchyUpdates> <automaticUpdateInterval>5</automaticUpdateInterval> <shouldRunAutomaticUpdates>true<shouldRunAutomaticUpdates> </InSide:setHierarchyUpdates> ... I am attempting to serialize this object: Imports System.Xml.Serialization <XmlRoot(ElementName:="setHierarchyUpdates", namespace:="InSide")> _ Public Class HierarchyUpdate <XmlElement(ElementName:="shouldRunAutomaticUpdates")> _ Public shouldRunAutomaticUpdates As Boolean <XmlElement(ElementName:="automaticUpdateInterval")> _ Public automaticUpdateInterval As Integer End Class Like this: Dim hierarchyUpdater As New HierarchyUpdate Dim x As New XmlSerializer(hierarchyUpdater.GetType) Dim objReader As Xml.XmlNodeReader = New Xml.XmlNodeReader(myXMLNode) hierarchyUpdater = x.Deserialize(objReader) However, the object, after deserialization, has values of false and zero. If I switch the objReader to a streamreader and read this in as a file, with none of its parents and no namespaces, it works: <setHierarchyUpdates> <automaticUpdateInterval>5</automaticUpdateInterval> <shouldRunAutomaticUpdates>true<shouldRunAutomaticUpdates> </setHierarchyUpdates> What am I doing wrong? Should I use something other than XMLRoot in the class definition, because, as an XML node, it's not really the root? If so, what? Why are no errors returned when this fails?

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  • Ajax return string links not working

    - by Andreas Lympouras
    I have this ajax function: function getSearchResults(e) { var searchString = e.value; /*var x = e.keyCode; var searchString = String.fromCharCode(x);*/ if (searchString == "") { document.getElementById("results").innerHTML = ""; return; } var xmlhttp; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function () { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { document.getElementById("results").innerHTML = xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("GET", "<%=Page.ResolveUrl("~/template/searchHelper.aspx?searchString=")%>"+searchString, true); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("If-Modified-Since", "Sat, 1 Jan 2000 00:00:00 GMT"); //solve any AJAX caching problem(not refreshing) xmlhttp.send(); } and here is when I call it: <input class="text-input" value="SEARCH" id="searchbox" onkeyup="javascript:getSearchResults(this);" maxlength="50" runat="server" /> and all my links in the searchHelper.aspx file(which retruns them as a string) are like this: <a class="item" href='../src/actors.aspx?id=77&name=dasdassss&type=a' > <span class="item">dasdassss</span></a> When I click this link I want my website to go to ../src/actors.aspx?id=77&name=dasdassss&type=a but nothing happens. When I hover over the link, it also shows me where the link is about to redirect! any help?

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  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

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  • Automatically converting an A* into a B*

    - by Xavier Nodet
    Hi, Suppose I'm given a class A. I would like to wrap pointers to it into a small class B, some kind of smart pointer, with the constraint that a B* is automatically converted to an A* so that I don't need to rewrite the code that already uses A*. I would therefore want to modify B so that the following compiles... struct A { void foo() {} }; template <class K> struct B { B(K* k) : _k(k) {} //operator K*() {return _k;} //K* operator->() {return _k;} private: K* _k; }; void doSomething(A*) {} void test() { A a; A* pointer_to_a (&a); B<A> b (pointer_to_a); //b->foo(); // I don't need those two... //doSomething(b); B<A>* pointer_to_b (&b); pointer_to_b->foo(); // 'foo' : is not a member of 'B<K>' doSomething(pointer_to_b); // 'doSomething' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'B<K> *' to 'A *' } Note that B inheriting from A is not an option (instances of A are created in factories out of my control)... Is it possible? Thanks.

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  • Adding cancel ability and exception handling to async code.

    - by Rob
    I have this sample code for async operations (copied from the interwebs) public class LongRunningTask { public LongRunningTask() { //do nowt } public int FetchInt() { Thread.Sleep(2000); return 5; } } public delegate TOutput SomeMethod<TOutput>(); public class GoodPerformance { public void BeginFetchInt() { LongRunningTask lr = new LongRunningTask(); SomeMethod<int> method = new SomeMethod<int>(lr.FetchInt); // method is state object used to transfer result //of long running operation method.BeginInvoke(EndFetchInt, method); } public void EndFetchInt(IAsyncResult result) { SomeMethod<int> method = result.AsyncState as SomeMethod<int>; Value = method.EndInvoke(result); } public int Value { get; set; } } Other async approaches I tried required the aysnc page attribute, they also seemed to cancel if other page elements where actioned on (a button clicked), this approach just seemed to work. I’d like to add a cancel ability and exception handling for the longRunningTask class, but don’t erm, really know how.

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  • Passing functor and function pointers interchangeably using a templated method in C++

    - by metroxylon
    I currently have a templated class, with a templated method. Works great with functors, but having trouble compiling for functions. Foo.h template <typename T> class Foo { public: // Constructor, destructor, etc... template <typename Func> void bar(T x, Func f); }; template <typename T> template <typename Func> Foo::bar(T x, Func f) { /* some code here */ } Main.cpp #include "Foo.h" template <typename T> class Functor { public: Functor() {} void operator()(T x) { /* ... */ } private: /* some attributes here */ }; void Function(T x) { /* ... */ } int main() { Foo<int> foo; foo.bar(2, Functor); // No problem foo.bar(2, Function); // <unresolved overloaded function type> return 0; }

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  • How to use Many to Many in Rails?

    - by Newbie
    Hello! In my project, I have users and quests. One User can join multiple quests and one quest can have multiple users. So I created a table called questing, containing the user_id and the quest_id. In my user.rb I did following: require 'digest/sha1' class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questings has_many :quests ,:through =>:questings ... My Quest.rb: class Quest < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questings has_many :users ,:through =>:questings ... My Questing.rb: class Questing < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :quest belongs_to :user end Now I want to create a link or button on my /quests/show.html.erb, calling an action in my controller, which will create the relationship between user and quest. So, in my quest_controller I did: def join_quest @quest = Quest.find(params[:id]) puts '************************' puts 'join quest:' + @quest.id puts '************************' respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@quest) } format.xml { head :ok } end end and in my show.html.erb I did: <%= link_to 'join this quest!!!', :action => :join_quest %> Now, clicking on this link will cause an error like: Couldn't find Quest with ID=join_quest and the url points to */quests/join_quest* instead of */quests/1/join_quest* Now my questions: Is my quests_controller the right place for my join_quest action, or should I move it to my users_controller? Why do I get this error? How to solve it? What do I have to write in my join_quest action for saving the relationship? On my /users/show.html.erb I want to output all quests the user joined. How to do this? I have to get all this quests from my relationship table, right? How? I hope you can help me! THX!

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  • Write-Only Reference in C++?

    - by Robert Mason
    Is there a way to code a write-only reference to an object? For example, suppose there was a mutex class: template <class T> class mutex { protected: T _data; public: mutex(); void lock(); //locks the mutex void unlock(); //unlocks the mutex T& data(); //returns a reference to the data, or throws an exception if lock is unowned }; Is there a way to guarantee that one couldn't do this: mutex<type> foo; T& ref; foo.lock(); ref = foo.data(); foo.unlock(); //I have a unguarded reference to foo now On the other hand, is it even worth it? I know that some people assume that programmers won't deliberately clobber the system, but then, why do we have private variables in the first place, eh? It'd be nice to just say it's "Undefined Behavior", but that just seems a little bit too insecure.

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  • Proper structure for dependency injection (using Guice)

    - by David B.
    I would like some suggestions and feedback on the best way to structure dependency injection for a system with the structure described below. I'm using Guice and thus would prefer solutions centered around it's annotation-based declarations, not XML-heavy Spring-style configuration. Consider a set of similar objects, Ball, Box, and Tube, each dependent on a Logger, supplied via the constructor. (This might not be important, but all four classes happen to be singletons --- of the application, not Gang-of-Four, variety.) A ToyChest class is responsible for creating and managing the three shape objects. ToyChest itself is not dependent on Logger, aside from creating the shape objects which are. The ToyChest class is instantiated as an application singleton in a Main class. I'm confused about the best way to construct the shapes in ToyChest. I either (1) need access to a Guice Injector instance already attached to a Module binding Logger to an implementation or (2) need to create a new Injector attached to the right Module. (1) is accomplished by adding an @Inject Injector injectorfield to ToyChest, but this feels weird because ToyChest doesn't actually have any direct dependencies --- only those of the children it instantiates. For (2), I'm not sure how to pass in the appropriate Module. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to structure this? The answers to this question mention passing in a Provider instead of using the Injector directly, but I'm not sure how that is supposed to work. EDIT: Perhaps a more simple question is: when using Guice, where is the proper place to construct the shapes objects? ToyChest will do some configuration with them, but I suppose they could be constructed elsewhere. ToyChest (as the container managing them), and not Main, just seems to me like the appropriate place to construct them.

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  • Building a structure/object in a place other than the constructor

    - by Vishal Naidu
    I have different types of objects representing the same business entity. UIObject, PowershellObject, DevCodeModelObject, WMIObject all are different representation to the same entity. So say if the entity is Animal then I have AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject, AnimalWMIObject, etc. Now the implementations of AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject are all in separate assemblies. Now my scenario is I want to verify the contents of business entity Animal irrespective of the assembly it came from. So I created a GenericAnimal class to represent the Animal entity. Now in GenericAnimal I added the following constructors: GenericAnimal(AnimalUIObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalPSObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalModelObject) Basically I made GenericAnimal depend on all the underlying assemblies so that while verifying I deal with this abstraction. Now the other approach to do this is have GenericAnimal with an empty constructor an allow these underlying assemblies to have a Transform() method which would build the GenericAnimal. Both approaches have some pros and cons: The 1st approach: Pros: All construction logic is in one place in one class GenericAnimal Cons: GenericAnimal class must be touched every-time there is a new representation form. The 2nd approach: Pros: construction responsibility is delegated to the underlying assembly. Cons: As construction logic is spread accross assemblies, tomorrow if I need to add a property X in GenericAnimal then I have to touch all the assemblies to change the Transform method. Which approach looks better ? or Which would you consider a lesser evil ? Is there any alternative way better than the above two ?

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  • CSS/IE7: The Case of the Extending Background-Image

    - by dmr
    The situation: There a collapsible advanced search box. It is made up of a search box div that contains a boxhead div and a boxbody div. Inside the boxbody div, there is a searchToggle div. When the user clicks "Show/Hide", the display style property of the searchToggle div is toggled between block and none. (The search fields are hidden and the search boxbody gets much smaller). The 2 background-images for the body of the search box are set via the css of the searchBox div and the boxbody div. In IE7, when the searchToggle div is hidden, the background-image from the searchBox div extends on the left more than it should (see Here). It shows up correctly when the display of the searchToggle div is block (see Here). Everything show up correctly, in both cases, in IE8 and FF. The relevant HTML: <div class="searchBox"> <div class="boxhead"> <h2></h2> </div> <div class="boxbody"> <div id="searchToggle" name="searchToggle"> </div> </div> </div> The relevant CSS: .searchBox { margin: 0 auto; width: 700px; background: url(/images/myImageRight-r.gif) no-repeat bottom right; font-size: 100%; text-align: left; overflow: hidden; } .boxbody { margin: 0; padding: 5px 30px 31px; background-image: url(/images/myImageLeft.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: left bottom; }

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  • Guru of the Week 2 no match for the operator==

    - by Adam
    From Guru of the Week 2. We have the function: string FindAddr(const list<Employee> l, string name) { for( list<Employee>::const_iterator i = l.begin(); i != l.end(); i++) { if( *i == name ) // here will be compilation error { return (*i).addr; } } return ""; } I added dummy Employee class to that: class Employee { string n; public: string addr; Employee(string name) : n(name) {} Employee() {} string name() const { return n; } operator string() { return n; } }; And got compilation error: error: no match for ‘operator==’ in ‘i.std::_List_iterator<_Tp>::operator* [with _Tp = Employee]() == name’ It works only if add operator== to Employee. But, Herb Sutter wrote that: The Employee class isn't shown, but for this to work it must either have a conversion to string or a conversion ctor taking a string. But Employee has a conversion function and conversion constructor as well. GCC version 4.4.3. Compiled normally, g++ file.cpp without any flags. There should be implicit conversion and it should work, why it doesn't?

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  • throwing exception from APCProc crashes program

    - by lazy_banana
    I started to do some research on how terminate a multithreaded application properly and I found those 2 post(first, second) about how to use QueueUserAPC to signal other threads to terminate. I thought I should give it a try, and the application keeps crashing when I throw the exception from the APCProc. Code: #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> class ExitException { public: char *desc; DWORD exit_code; ExitException(char *desc,int exit_code): desc(desc), exit_code(exit_code) {} }; //I use this class to check if objects are deconstructed upon termination class Test { public: char *s; Test(char *s): s(s) { printf("%s ctor\n",s); } ~Test() { printf("%s dctor\n",s); } }; DWORD CALLBACK ThreadProc(void *useless) { try { Test t("thread_test"); SleepEx(INFINITE,true); return 0; } catch (ExitException &e) { printf("Thread exits\n%s %lu",e.desc,e.exit_code); return e.exit_code; } } void CALLBACK exit_apc_proc(ULONG_PTR param) { puts("In APCProc"); ExitException e("Application exit signal!",1); throw e; return; } int main() { HANDLE thread=CreateThread(NULL,0,ThreadProc,NULL,0,NULL); Sleep(1000); QueueUserAPC(exit_apc_proc,thread,0); WaitForSingleObject(thread,INFINITE); puts("main: bye"); return 0; } My question is why does this happen? I use mingw for compilation and my OS is 64bit. Can this be the reason?I read that you shouldn't call QueueApcProc from a 32bit app for a thread which runs in a 64bit process or vice versa, but this shouldn't be the case.

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  • A question about TBB/C++ code

    - by Jackie
    I am reading The thread building block book. I do not understand this piece of code: FibTask& a=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-1,&x); FibTask& b=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-2,&y); What do these directive mean? class object reference and new work together? Thanks for explanation. The following code is the defination of this class FibTask. class FibTask: public task { public: const long n; long* const sum; FibTask(long n_,long* sum_):n(n_),sum(sum_) {} task* execute() { if(n FibTask& a=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-1,&x); FibTask& b=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-2,&y); set_ref_count(3); spawn(b); spawn_and_wait_for_all(a); *sum=x+y; } return 0; } };

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