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• Move iFrame in the DOM using jQuery

  - by Josh

  My overall aim is to create an editor which I can skin using jQuery UI (by creating a custom toolbar which uses integration calls), using TinyMCE. Lets say I have a TinyMCE editor on a page. The actual editor is an iFrame contained inside a lot of horrible table code, which is also where the current (to be scrapped) toolbar is. I want just the iframe inside a div - ideally get rid of the table code. So...I want to transform: <table> <tr> <td><iframe id="xyz"></iframe></td> </tr> </table> into <div id="test"> <iframe id="xyz"></iframe> </div> So far, I've tried using: $('#xyz').clone(true).appendTo('#test'); Which clones the iframe, but no content inside it. Is there a way to make this work? If not, can I somehow strip the table code from around the iFrame away? If I cant do that, I'll think I'll have to keep the table code.

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• How Best to Replace Ugly Queries and Dynamic PL/SQL with C#?

  - by Mike

  Hi, I write a lot of one-off Oracle SQL queries (in Toad), and sometimes they can get complex, involving lots of unions, joins, and subqueries, and sometimes requiring dynamic SQL. That is, sometimes SQL queries require set based processing along with significant procedural processing. This is what PL/SQL is custom made for, but as a language it does not begin to compare to C#. Now and then I convert a PL/SQL procedure to C#, and am always amazed at how much cleaner and easier to both read and write the C# version is. The C# program might for example construct a SQL query string piece by piece and/or run several queries and process them as needed. The C# version is usually much faster as well, which must mean that I'm not very good at PL/SQL either. I do not currently have access to LINQ. My question is, how best to package all these little C# programs, which are really just mini reports, that is, replacements for ugly SQL queries? Right now I'm actually using NUnit to hold them, and calling each report a [Test], even though they aren't really tests. NUnit just happens to provide a convenient packaging framework.

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• Setting Up a Wordpress Function in theme's function.php File

  - by user1609391

  I am trying to create the below function in my theme's function.php file and call it from my taxonomy.php file via query_brands_geo('dealers', 'publish', '1', $taxtype, $geo, $brands); all variables are set in taxonomy.php. The below query works perfect if I put it directly in my taxonomy.php file. What am I missing to make this work as a function? As a function I get this error statement for argument repeated for 2-6: Warning: Missing argument 2 for query_brands_geo() function query_brands_geo($posttype, $poststatus, $paidvalue, $taxtype, $geo, $brands) { /* Custom Query for a brand/geo combination to display dealers with a certain brand and geography */ //Query only for brands/geography combo and paid dealers $wp_query = new WP_Query(); $args = array( 'post_type' => '$posttype', 'post_status' => array($poststatus), 'orderby' => 'rand', 'posts_per_page' => 30, 'meta_query' => array( array( 'key' => 'wpcf-paid', 'value' => array($paidvalue), 'compare' => 'IN', ) ), 'tax_query' => array( 'relation' => 'AND', array( 'taxonomy' => $taxtype, 'field' => 'slug', 'terms' => $geo ), array( 'taxonomy' => 'brands', 'field' => 'slug', 'terms' => $brands ) ) ); $wp_query->query($args); } add_action( 'after_setup_theme', 'query_brands_geo' );

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• Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

  - by Thor84no

  I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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• Process data BEFORE a 301 Redirect?

  - by Jesse

  So, I've been working on a PHP link shortener (I know, just what the world needs). Basically when the page loads, php determines where it needs to go and sends a 301 Header to redirect the browser, like so... Header( "HTTP/1.1 301 Moved Permanently" ); header("Location: http://newsite.com"; Now, I'm trying to add some tracking to my redirects and insert some custom analytics data into a MySQL table before the redirect happen. It works perfectly if I don't specify the a redirect type and just use: header("Location: http://newsite.com"; But, of course as soon as you add in the 301 header, nothing else gets processed. Actually, on the first request, it sends the data to MySQL, but on any subsequent requests there's no communication with the database. I assume it's a browser caching issue, once it's seen the 301 it decides they're no reason to parse anything on future requests. But, does anyone know if there's any way to get around this? I'd really like to keep it as a 301 for SEO purposes (I believe if you don't specify it sends a 404 by default?). I thought about using .htaccess to prepend a file to the page that will do the MySQL work, but with the 301, wouldn't that just get ignored as well? Anyway, I'm not sure if there's any solution other than using a different type of redirect, but I'm ready to give up just yet. So, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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• A F# tail-recursive question

  - by ksharp

  Recently, I'm learning F#. I try to solve problem in different ways. Like this: (* [0;1;2;3;4;5;6;7;8] -> [(0,1,2);(3,4,5);(6,7,8)] *) //head-recursive let rec toTriplet_v1 list= match list with | a::b::c::t -> (a,b,c)::(toTriplet_v1 t) | _ -> [] //tail-recursive let toTriplet_v2 list= let rec loop lst acc= match lst with | a::b::c::t -> loop t ((a,b,c)::acc) | _ -> acc loop list [] //tail-recursive(???) let toTriplet_v3 list= let rec loop lst accfun= match lst with | a::b::c::t -> loop t (fun ls -> accfun ((a,b,c)::ls)) | _ -> accfun [] loop list (fun x -> x) let funs = [toTriplet_v1; toTriplet_v2; toTriplet_v3]; funs |> List.map (fun x -> x [0..8]) |> List.iteri (fun i x -> printfn "V%d : %A" (i+1) x) I thought the results of V2 and V3 should be the same. But, I get the result below: V1 : [(0, 1, 2); (3, 4, 5); (6, 7, 8)] V2 : [(6, 7, 8); (3, 4, 5); (0, 1, 2)] V3 : [(0, 1, 2); (3, 4, 5); (6, 7, 8)] Why the results of V2 and V3 are different?

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• Using Visual Studio 2010 Express to create a surface I can draw to

  - by Joel

  I'm coming from a Java background and trying to port a simple version of Conway's Game of Life that I wrote to C# in order to learn the language. In Java, I drew my output by inheriting from JComponent and overriding paint(). My new canvas class then had an instance of the simulation's backend which it could read/manipulate. I was then able to get the WYSIWYG GUI editor (Matisse, from NetBeans) to allow me to visually place the canvas. In C#, I've gathered that I need to override OnPaint() to draw things, which (as far as I know) requires me to inherit from something (I chose Panel). I can't figure out how to get the Windows forms editor to let me place my custom class. I'm also uncertain about where in the generated code I need to place my class. How can I do this, and is putting all my drawing code into a subclass really how I should be going about this? The lack of easy answers on Google suggests I'm missing something important here. If anyone wants to suggest a method for doing this in WPF as well, I'm curious to hear it. Thanks

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• Any one point me how to customize facebook share

  - by Venkat

  I am trying to share my own custom url, image, title and description using Facebook and twitter. I am having lot of images and videos in my website. So i want to make my content viral on social websites. I am trying to keep share options for both facebook and twitter for everything individually. If some one share one image i want that image in the sharing thumbnail and url will be the page url with my own title, description. Based on the url i will point the user to that pic in my website. I tried in the below way. Facebook share: <a href="javascript:;" onclick="window.open('http://www.facebook.com/share.php?u=your_page_url','facebook share','resizable=yes,width=700,height=500,scrollbars=yes,status=yes')"><img alt="facebook" src="yourimage.jpg" /></a> Twitter share: <a href="javascript:;" onclick="window.open('https://twitter.com/share','twitter share','resizable=yes,width=700,height=500,scrollbars=yes,status=yes')"><img alt="twitter" src="yourimage.jpg" /></a>

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• My program is spending most of its time in objc_msgSend. Does that mean that Objective-C has bad per

  - by Paperflyer

  Hello Stackoverflow. I have written an application that has a number of custom views and generally draws a lot of lines and bitmaps. Since performance is somewhat critical for the application, I spent a good amount of time optimizing draw performance. Now, activity monitor tells me that my application is usually using about 12% CPU and Instrument (the profiler) says that a whopping 10% CPU is spent in objc_msgSend (mostly in drawing related system calls). On the one hand, I am glad about this since it means that my drawing is about as fast as it gets and my optimizations where a huge success. On the other hand, it seems to imply that the only thing that is still using my CPU is the Objective-C overhead for messages (objc_msgSend). Hence, that if I had written the application in, say, Carbon, its performance would be drastically better. Now I am tempted to conclude that Objective-C is a language with bad performance, even though Cocoa seems to be awfully efficient since it can apparently draw faster than Objective-C can send messages. So, is Objective-C really a language with bad performance? What do you think about that?

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• Omit Properties from WebControl Serialization

  - by Laramie

  I have to serialize several objects inheriting from WebControl for database storage. These include several unecessary (to me) properties that I would prefer to omit from serialization. For example BackColor, BorderColor, etc. Here is an example of an XML serialization of one of my controls inheriting from WebControl. <Control xsi:type="SerializePanel"> <ID>grCont</ID> <Controls /> <BackColor /> <BorderColor /> <BorderWidth /> <CssClass>grActVid bwText</CssClass> <ForeColor /> <Height /> <Width /> ... </Control> I have been trying to create a common base class for my controls that inherits from WebControl and uses the "xxxSpecified" trick to selectively choose not to serialize certain properties. For example to ignore an empty BorderColor property, I'd expect [XmlIgnore] public bool BorderColorSpecified() { return !base.BorderColor.IsEmpty; } to work, but it's never called during serialization. I've also tried it in the class to be serialized as well as the base class. Since the classes themselves might change, I'd prefer not to have to create a custom serializer. Any ideas?

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• Where should test classes be stored in the project?

  - by limc

  I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

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• Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

  - by Justin

  I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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• c++ overloading delete, retrieve size

  - by user300713

  Hi, I am currently writing a small custom memory Allocator in c++, and want to use it together with operator overloading of new/delete. Anyways, my memory Allocator basicall checks if the requested memory is over a certain threshold, and if so uses malloc to allocate the requested memory chunk. Otherwise the memory will be provided by some fixedPool allocators. that generally works, but for my deallocation function looks like this: void MemoryManager::deallocate(void * _ptr, size_t _size){ if(_size heapThreshold) deallocHeap(_ptr); else deallocFixedPool(_ptr, _size); } so I need to provide the size of the chunk pointed to, to deallocate from the right place. No the problem is that the delete keyword does not provide any hint on the size of the deleted chunk, so I would need something like this: void operator delete(void * _ptr, size_t _size){ MemoryManager::deallocate(_ptr, _size); } But as far as I can see, there is no way to determine the size inside the delete operator.- If I want to keep things the way it is right now, would I have to save the size of the memory chunks myself? Any ideas on how to solve this are welcome! Thanks!

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• checking mongo database for data

  - by user1647484

  I'm playing around with this tutorial that uses Sinatra, backbone.js, and mongodb for the database. It's my first time using mongo. As far as I understand it the app uses both local storage and a database. it has these routes for the database. For example, it has these routes get '/api/:thing' do DB.collection(params[:thing]).find.to_a.map{|t| from_bson_id(t)}.to_json end get '/api/:thing/:id' do from_bson_id(DB.collection(params[:thing]).find_one(to_bson_id(params[:id]))).to_json end post '/api/:thing' do oid = DB.collection(params[:thing]).insert(JSON.parse(request.body.read.to_s)) "{\"_id\": \"#{oid.to_s}\"}" end After turning the server off and then on, I could see in the server getting data from the database routes 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Sep/2012 08:21:58] "GET /api/todos HTTP/1.1" 200 430 0.0033 My question is, how can I check from within the mongo shell whether the data's in the database? I started the mongo shell ./bin/mongo I selected the database 'use mydb' and then looking at the docs (http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Tutorial) I tried commands such as > var cursor = db.things.find(); > while (cursor.hasNext()) printjson(cursor.next()); but they didn't return anything.

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• Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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• Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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• Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

  - by NBrowne

  Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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• what patern is layerd architechture in asp.net ?

  - by haansi

  Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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• SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

  - by K-Bell

  Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

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• Refer to a Spark view component in code

  - by David

  I'm building a mobile AIR app using Flash Builder 4.5. The initial view in my views package is TestHomeView.mxml. I want to refer to it in one of my .as classes elsewhere in the app, and I'm not sure how to do that. Theoretically I should be able to add an "id" attribute to TestHomeView.mxml, but FB gives me an error: "id is not allowed on the root tag of a component". The root tag is s:view. The reason I need to do this is that within another class I make various calculations and then need to pass an array of values to a component in my view class. So in SomeOtherActionScriptClass.as I first assemble the array, myArray, and then in that class I want to do this: myViewComponent.viewArray = myArray; If I'm going to do that, I also need to import the view class into the .as class, which strikes me as weird. So is there a simple way to do what I want, or do I have to dispatch a custom event which contains the array, and listen for it in the view class? Thanks.

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• In AS3/Flex, how can I get from flat data to hierarchical data?

  - by Dave S

  I have some data that gets pulled out of a database and mapped to an arraycollection. This data has a field called parentid, and I would like to map the data into a new arraycollection with hierarchical information to then feed to an advanced data grid. I think I'm basically trying to take the parent object, add a new property/field/variable of type ArrayCollection called children and then remove the child object from the original list and clone it into the children array? Any help would be greatly appreciated, and I apologize ahead of time for this code: private function PutChildrenWithParents(accountData : ArrayCollection) : ArrayCollection{ var pos_inner:int = 0; var pos_outer:int = 0; while(pos_outer < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_outer].ParentId != null){ pos_inner = 0; while(pos_inner < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_inner].Id == accountData[pos_outer].ParentId){ accountData.addItemAt( accountData[pos_inner] + {children:new ArrayCollection(accountData[pos_outer])}, pos_inner ); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_outer); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_inner+1); } pos_inner++; } } pos_outer++; } return accountData; }

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• WPF app startup problems

  - by Dave

  My brain is all over the map trying to fully understand Unity right now. So I decided to just dive in and start adding it in a branch to see where it takes me. Surprisingly enough (or maybe not), I am stuck just getting my darn Application to load properly. It seems like the right way to do this is to override OnStartup in App.cs. I've removed my StartupUri from App.xaml so it doesn't create my GUI XAML. My App.cs now looks something like this: public partial class App : Application { private IUnityContainer container { get; set; } protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { container = new UnityContainer(); GUI gui = new GUI(); gui.Show(); } protected override void OnExit(ExitEventArgs e) { container.Dispose(); base.OnExit(e); } } The problem is that nothing happens when I start the app! I put a breakpoint at the container assignment, and it never gets hit. What am I missing? App.xaml is currently set to ApplicationDefinition, but I'd expect this to work because some sample Unity + WPF code I'm looking at (from Codeplex) does the exact same thing, except that it works! I've also started the app by single-stepping, and it eventually hits the first line in App.xaml. When I step into this line, that's when the app just starts "running", but I don't see anything (and my breakpoint isn't hit). If I do the exact same thing in the sample application, stepping into App.xaml puts me right into OnStartup, which is what I'd expect to happen. Argh! Is it a Bad Thing to just put the Unity construction in my GUI's Window_Loaded event handler? Does it really need to be at the App level?

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• Context problem while loading Assemblies via Structuremap

  - by Zebi

  I want to load plugins in a smiliar way as shown here however the loaded assemblies seem not to share the same context. Trying to solve the problem I just build a tiny spike containing two assemblies. One console app and one library. The console app contains the IPlugin interface and has no references to the Plugin dll. I am scanning the plugin dir using a custom Registration convention: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.Scan(s => { s.AssembliesFromPath(@"..\Plugin"); s.With(new PluginScanner()); })); public void Process(Type type, Registry registry) { if (!type.Name.StartsWith("P")) return; var instance = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(type); registry.For<IPlugin>().Add((IPlugin)instance); } Which thows an invalid cast exception saying he can not convert the plugin Type to IPlugin. public class P1 : IPlugin { public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("Hello from P1"); } } Further if I just construct the instance (which works fine by the way) and try to access ObjectFactory in the plugin ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() shows that they don't even share the same container instance. Experimenting around with MEF, Structuremap and loading the assembly manually whith Assembly.Load("Plugin") shows if loaded with Assembly.Load it works fine. Any ideas how I can fix this to work with StructureMaps assembly scanning?

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• WordPress website getting hung up for 10-15 seconds

  - by synergy989

  Problem I have a website (which loads fine): http://testupg.videve.com/ Go to the blog section (and it begins to load, gets hung up, then loads): http://testupg.videve.com/blog/ It's all one WordPress install. The only pages that are getting hung up are the blog page itself and any article page. The video pages load fine etc. What Have I done and noticed. If I disable all plugins, the blog page loads fine. I narrowed it down to DisplayBuddy plugins (Featured posts, Carousel, Slider)...as soon as I enable any single one of them, the site loads slow. The thing that doesn't make sense is, I disabled the sidebar (deleted it from the template) and the article page still loaded slow and it has ZERO instances of this plugin. I disable the plugin and the article page loads fine. How on earth can this be? I am hoping this case above can give just a little bit of insight! One other thing. The video pages use a custom taxonomy so I am wondering if its something to do with the default wordpress taxonomy. Any help is GREATLY appreciated, I have been at this thing for hours and it's time to call in some support. Cheers

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• Java side scrolling game on android

  - by hanesjw

  I'm trying to make an easy side scrolling game just to learn the ropes of game programming on android. I came up with a solution of how to make it but I don't really think it is the most elegant solution. I wanted to get some different ideas on how to implement my game, as I really have no other solution right now. Here is a quick explanation of how it works.. I basically have blocks or objects fall from the top of the screen. The blocks are defined from a pre-defined string I create using a custom 'map-editor'. I create all the blocks at compile time, position them on or off the screen and simply increment their coordinates with each iteration of the gameloop. It is actually done a little bit better then that, but that gives a short easy explanation on the basic idea. I heard from a few people that instead of incrementing each block position, have the blocks stay there and simply change the viewable area. That makes sense, but I have no idea how to do it. Can anyone share some ideas or links on how I can implement something like this? I know my current solution isn't the greatest. Thanks!

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