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  • CAML query soap SharePoint

    - by robScott
    I'm trying to access a SharePoint list and return the calendar dates for a custom webpart I made. It was working fine, then I decided to only retrieve the date selected rather than the whole calendar, so I wanted to add a where clause. I've tried 'yyyy-MM-dd', 'yyyy-MM-ddThh:mm:ssZ', and 'yyyy-MM-dd hh:mm:ssZ' as string formats I've also tried MM/dd/yyyy as a date format. I'm using jQuery, and I do have list items in the calendar. I'm assuming my date is not in the correct format. var date = $(this).attr('date'); var sharepointDate = Date.parse(date).toString('yyyy-mm-ddT00:00:01Z'); var soapEnv = "<soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv='http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/'> \ <soapenv:Body> \ <GetListItems xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/'> \ <listName>CorporateCalendar</listName> \ <viewFields> \ <ViewFields> \ <FieldRef Name='Title' /> \ </ViewFields> \ </viewFields> \ <query><Query><Where><Geq><FieldRef Name='EventDate' /><Value Type='DateTime'>" + sharepointDate + "</Value></Geq></Where></Query></query> \ <rowLimit>500</rowLimit> \ </GetListItems> \ </soapenv:Body> \ </soapenv:Envelope>"; If I take the where clause out I receive all the items in the calendar. If the query is in there, I receive no results. Thanks in advance

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  • Datastructure choices for highspeed and memory efficient detection of duplicate of strings

    - by Jonathan Holland
    I have a interesting problem that could be solved in a number of ways: I have a function that takes in a string. If this function has never seen this string before, it needs to perform some processing. If the function has seen the string before, it needs to skip processing. After a specified amount of time, the function should accept duplicate strings. This function may be called thousands of time per second, and the string data may be very large. This is a highly abstracted explanation of the real application, just trying to get down to the core concept for the purpose of the question. The function will need to store state in order to detect duplicates. It also will need to store an associated timestamp in order to expire duplicates. It does NOT need to store the strings, a unique hash of the string would be fine, providing there is no false positives due to collisions (Use a perfect hash?), and the hash function was performant enough. The naive implementation would be simply (in C#): Dictionary<String,DateTime> though in the interest of lowering memory footprint and potentially increasing performance I'm evaluating a custom data structures to handle this instead of a basic hashtable. So, given these constraints, what would you use? EDIT, some additional information that might change proposed implementations: 99% of the strings will not be duplicates. Almost all of the duplicates will arrive back to back, or nearly sequentially. In the real world, the function will be called from multiple worker threads, so state management will need to be synchronized.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Refer to a Spark view component in code

    - by David
    I'm building a mobile AIR app using Flash Builder 4.5. The initial view in my views package is TestHomeView.mxml. I want to refer to it in one of my .as classes elsewhere in the app, and I'm not sure how to do that. Theoretically I should be able to add an "id" attribute to TestHomeView.mxml, but FB gives me an error: "id is not allowed on the root tag of a component". The root tag is s:view. The reason I need to do this is that within another class I make various calculations and then need to pass an array of values to a component in my view class. So in SomeOtherActionScriptClass.as I first assemble the array, myArray, and then in that class I want to do this: myViewComponent.viewArray = myArray; If I'm going to do that, I also need to import the view class into the .as class, which strikes me as weird. So is there a simple way to do what I want, or do I have to dispatch a custom event which contains the array, and listen for it in the view class? Thanks.

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  • NHibernate : Root collection with an root object

    - by Daniel
    Hi, I want to track a list of root objects which are not contained by any element. I want the following pseudo code to work: IList<FavoriteItem> list = session.Linq<FavoriteItem>().ToList(); list.Add(item1); list.Add(item2); list.Remove(item3); list.Remove(item4); var item5 = list.First(i => i.Name = "Foo"); item5.Name = "Bar"; session.Save(list); This should automatically insert item1 and item2, delete item3 and item3 and update item5 (i.e. I don't want to call sesssion.SaveOrUpdate() for all items separately. Is it possible to define a pseudo entity that is not associated with a table? For example I want to define the class Favorites and map 2 collection properties of it and than I want to write code like this: var favs = session.Linq<Favorites>(); favs.FavoriteColors.Add(new FavoriteColor(...)); favs.FavoriteMovies.Add(new FavoriteMovie(...)); session.SaveOrUpdate(favs); FavoriteColors and FavoriteMovies are the only properties of the Favorites class and are of type IList and IList. I do only want to persist the these two collection properties but not the Favorites class. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to customize @synthesized properties?

    - by Dan K.
    I'm probably just being a bit lazy here, but bear with me. Here's my situation. I have a class with two nonatomic, retained properties. Let's say: @property (nonatomic, retain) UITextField *dateField; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDate *date; I synthesize them as expected in the implementation. What I want to happen is that whenever the setter on date is invoked, it also does something to the dateField (i.e. it sets the text property on the dateField to be a nicely formatted version of the date). I realize I can just manually override the setter for date in my implementation by doing the following: - (void) setDate:(NSDate *)newDate { if (date != newDate) { [date release]; date = [newDate retain]; // my code to touch the dateField goes here } } What would be awesome is if I could let Objective C handle the retain/release cycle, but still be able to "register" (for lack of a better term) a custom handler that would be invoked after the retain/release/set happens. My guess is that isn't possible. My google-fu didn't come up with any answer to this, though, so I thought I'd ask.

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  • breadth-first traversal of directory tree is not lazy

    - by user855443
    I try to traverse the diretory tree. A naive depth-first traversal seems not to produce the data in a lazy fashion and runs out of memory. I next tried a breadth first approach, which shows the same problem - it uses all the memory available and then crashes. the code i have is: getFilePathBreadtFirst :: FilePath -> IO [FilePath] getFilePathBreadtFirst fp = do fileinfo <- getInfo fp res :: [FilePath] <- if isReadableDirectory fileinfo then do children <- getChildren fp lower <- mapM getFilePathBreadtFirst children return (children ++ concat lower) return (children ++ concat () else return [fp] -- should only return the files? return res getChildren :: FilePath -> IO [FilePath] getChildren path = do names <- getUsefulContents path let namesfull = map (path </>) names return namesfull testBF fn = do -- crashes for /home/frank, does not go to swap fps <- getFilePathBreadtFirst fn putStrLn $ unlines fps I think all the code is either linear or tail recursive, and I would expect that the listing of filenames starts immediately, but in fact it does not. Where is the error in my code and my thinking? where have I lost lazy evaluation?

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  • WPF: How do I bind a Control to a formula composed of several dependency properties?

    - by Pablo
    Hi all, I'm working on Expression Blend and I'm currently designing a custom control which has a Grid with 5 rows inside, and also has two Dependency properties: "Value", and "Maximum". Three of the rows have fixed height, and what I'm trying to do is set the remaining rows height to "Value/Maximum" and "1-Value/Maximum" respectively. How do I go and do that? When I set the height to "Value" it seems to react, but when I go and set it to "Value/Maximum" it stops working. I'm still a bit new around WPF, so there must be another way to achieve what I'm intending, but after searching I couln't find my problem elsewhere. Code: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Width="Auto" Background="Transparent"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="32"/> <RowDefinition Height="{Binding Path=(Value/Maximum), ElementName=UserControl, Mode=Default}"/> <RowDefinition Height="16"/> <RowDefinition Height="{Binding Path=(1-Value/Maximum), ElementName=UserControl, Mode=Default}"/> <RowDefinition Height="32"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> (...) By the way, Value is always a not negative double less than or equal to Maximum; so the result of the division will be number between 0.0 a 1.0. I want a "star" instead of "pixel" row height.

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  • NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

    - by Rich
    I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

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  • How to change Hibernate´s auto persistance strategy

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    I just noted that my hibernate entities are automatically persisted to the database (or at least to cache) before I call any save() or update() method. To me this is a pretty strange default behavior but ok, as long as I can disable it, it´s fine. The problem I have is I want to update my entity´s state (from 1 to 2) only if the entity in the database still has the state it had when I retrieved [1] (this is to eliminate concurrency issues when another server is updating this same object). For this reason I have created a custom NamedQuery that will only update the entity if state is 1. So here is some pseudo-code: //Get the entity Entity item = dao.getEntity(); item.getState(); //==1 //Update the entity item.setState(2); //Here is the problem, this effectively changes the state of my entity braking my query that verifies that state is still == 1. dao.customUpdate(item); //Returns 0 rows changes since state != 1. So, how do I make sure the setters don´t change the state in cache/db? Thanks, Kristofer

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  • J2EE and alternatives

    - by Ilya K
    Hello, I am J2SE developer but I have rich web-background (php, perl/cgi and so on) and now I am starting new project. It will have web interface, spaghetti business logic, relational database as storage and connections to other services. I do it from the scratch. My colleagues told me to use spring, spring security and struts. I look briefly at J2EE spec and found that it covers almost all aspects of enterprise application. I asked my colleagues why do they need spring and struts, but looks like they use technologies simply because they are familiar with them and not familiar with classic J2EE stack. So, my question is: what is bad about J2EE? Why do I need spring if there are JNDI lookups? It will take a day or two to create fake InitialContext for unit-tests. And that is all: I stand with out of external tools like spring. Why do I need spring-security if there is a security built in Servlets spec? I can map any request to any servlet using web.xml, no struts.xml is needed. I can use servlet-filters instead of struts interceptors. There is RMI, so I do not need spring-remote. And so on.. Why should I bother my self with all that fancy stuff if there is J2EE? I really want to find situation when J2EE is not enough. Do you have any? Thanks!

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  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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  • Help! I'm a Haskell Newbie

    - by Darknight
    I've only just dipped my toe in the world of Haskell as part of my journey of programming enlightenment (moving on from, procedural to OOP to concurrent to now functional). I've been trying an online Haskell Evaluator. However I'm now stuck on a problem: Create a simple function that gives the total sum of an array of numbers. In a procedural language this for me is easy enough (using recursion) (c#) : private int sum(ArrayList x, int i) { if (!(x.Count < i + 1)) { int t = 0; t = x.Item(i); t = sum(x, i + 1) + t; return t; } } All very fine however my failed attempt at Haskell was thus: let sum x = x+sum in map sum [1..10] this resulted in the following error (from that above mentioned website): Occurs check: cannot construct the infinite type: a = a -> t Please bear in mind I've only used Haskell for the last 30 minutes! I'm not looking simply for an answer but a more explanation of it. Thanks in advanced.

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  • How to convert a rectangle to TRBL CSS rect value?

    - by VLostBoy
    I'm not quite sure how to put this, but here goes... The css clip attribute is defined like so: rect(top, right, bottom, left). However, I'm exploring the use of a custom Rectangle 'class' to encapsulate some operations. The rectangle class has the attributes height, width and x, y. The x and y values are encapsulated in a Point object, and the height and width are encapsulated in a Dimension object, the rectangle being a composite of a point (its top-left location) and a dimension (width and height). So far so good. I though it would be pretty simple on the basis of having the rectangles x, y, width and height values to define the css rect attribute in terms of top, right, bottom, left, but I've become hopelessly confused- I've been googling for a while, and I can't seem to find any documentation as to what the TRBL values actually are or what they represent. For example, should I be thinking in terms of co-ordinates, in which case, surely I can describe the rectangle as a css rect using the rectangles x position for Top, x position + width for Right, the rectangles height + y for Bottom and its y position for Left... but thats a load of BS, surely? Also, surely rect is actually an inset, or have I just inverted my understanding of clip? I'd appreciate some advice. What I want to be able to do is (i) Define a rectangle using x, y, width and height (ii)Express the rectangle in TRBL form so that I can manipulate a divs clipping behaviour (iii)Change x, y, width or height and recalculate in terms of TRBL and goto (ii) I appreciate there are some other factors here, and some intermediary transforms to be done, but I've confused myself pretty badly- Can anyone give me some pointers?

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  • Simple search form passing the searched string through GET

    - by Brian Roisentul
    Hi, I'd like my Search form to return the following url after submit: /anuncios/buscar/the_text_I_searched My form is the following: <% form_for :announcement, :url => search_path(:txtSearch) do |f| %> <div class="searchBox" id="basic"> <%= text_field_tag :txtSearch, params[:str_search].blank? ? "Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil." : params[:str_search], :maxlength=> 100, :class => "basicSearch_inputField", :onfocus => "if (this.value=='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.') this.value=''", :onblur => "if(this.value=='') { this.value='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.'; return false; }" %> <div class="basicSearch_button"> <input type="submit" value="BUSCAR" class="basicSearch_buttonButton" /> <br /><a href="#" onclick="javascript:jQuery('#advance').modal({opacity:60});">Busqueda avanzada</a> </div> </div> <% end %> My routes' line for search_path is this: map.search '/anuncios/buscar/:str_search', :controller => 'announcements', :action => 'search' Well, this will work if I manually type the url I want in the brower, but definitely, if you look at the form's url, you'll find a ":txtSearch" parameter, which is not giving me the actual value of the text field when the form is submitted. And that's what I'd like to get! Could anybody help me on this?

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  • Databinding to the DataGridView (Enums + Collections)

    - by Ian
    I'm after a little help with the techniques to use for Databinding. It's been quite a while since I used any proper data binding and want to try and do something with the DataGridView. I'm trying to configure as much as possible so that I can simply designed the DatagridView through the form editor, and then use a custom class that exposes all my information. The sort of information I've got is as follows: public class Result { public String Name { get; set; } public Boolean PK { get; set; } public MyEnum EnumValue { get; set; } public IList<ResultInfos> { get; set; } } public class ResultInfos { get; set; } { public class Name { get; set; } public Int Value { get; set; } public override String ToString() { return Name + " : " Value.ToString(); } } I can bind to the simple information without any problem. I want to bind to the EnumValue with a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn, but when I set the DataPropertyName I get exceptions saying the enum values aren't valid. Then comes the ResultInfo collection. Currently I can't figure out how to bind to this and display my items, again really I want this to be a combobox, where the 1st Item is selected. Anyone any suggestions on what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Java side scrolling game on android

    - by hanesjw
    I'm trying to make an easy side scrolling game just to learn the ropes of game programming on android. I came up with a solution of how to make it but I don't really think it is the most elegant solution. I wanted to get some different ideas on how to implement my game, as I really have no other solution right now. Here is a quick explanation of how it works.. I basically have blocks or objects fall from the top of the screen. The blocks are defined from a pre-defined string I create using a custom 'map-editor'. I create all the blocks at compile time, position them on or off the screen and simply increment their coordinates with each iteration of the gameloop. It is actually done a little bit better then that, but that gives a short easy explanation on the basic idea. I heard from a few people that instead of incrementing each block position, have the blocks stay there and simply change the viewable area. That makes sense, but I have no idea how to do it. Can anyone share some ideas or links on how I can implement something like this? I know my current solution isn't the greatest. Thanks!

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  • Restore and preserve UIViewController pushed from UINavigationController, no storyboard

    - by user2908112
    I try to restore a simple UIViewController that I pushed from my initial view controller. The first one is preserved, but the second one just disappear when relaunched. I don't use storyboard. I implement the protocol in every view controller and add the restorationIdentifier and restorationClass to each one of them. The second viewController inherit from a third viewController and is initialized from a xib file. I'm not sure if I need to implement the UIViewControllerRestoration to this third since I don't use it directly. My code looks like typically like this: - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.restorationIdentifier = @"EditNotificationViewController"; self.restorationClass = [self class]; } return self; } -(void)encodeRestorableStateWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { } -(void)decodeRestorableStateWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { } +(UIViewController *)viewControllerWithRestorationIdentifierPath:(NSArray *)identifierComponents coder:(NSCoder *)coder { EditNotificationViewController* envc = [[EditNotificationViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SearchFormViewController" bundle:nil]; return envc; } Should perhaps the navigationController be subclassed so it too can inherit from UIViewControllerRestoration?

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  • Show only div of the product hovering in category grid with jQuery

    - by Dane
    On Magento, I'm trying to get avalable attributes per product in a new div (show/ hide onmouseover) as soon as I hover a product. Unfortunately, my jQuery code opens every div with the same name. I think, I need to do it with jQuery(this) but I tried it in a 1000 different ways, and it won't work. Maybe, somebody here can help me with a better code. jQuery(function() { jQuery('.slideDiv').hide().data('over', false); jQuery('#hover').hover(function() { jQuery('.slideDiv').fadeIn(); }, function() { // Check if mouse did not go over .dialog before hiding it again var timeOut = setTimeout(function() { if (!jQuery('.slideDiv').data('over')) { jQuery('.slideDiv').fadeOut(); clearTimeout(timeOut); } }, 100); }); // Set data for filtering on mouse events for #hover-here jQuery('.slideDiv').hover(function() { jQuery(this).data('over', true); }, function() { jQuery(this).fadeOut().data('over', false); }); }); The PHP just prints the attributes needed. <a href="#" id="hover">Custom Attributes</a> <div class="slideDiv"> <?php $attrs = $_product->getTypeInstance(true)->getConfigurableAttributesAsArray($_product); foreach($attrs as $attr) { if(0 == strcmp("shoe_size", $attr['attribute_code'])) { $options = $attr['values']; print "Größen:<br />"; foreach($options as $option) { print "{$option['store_label']}<br />"; } } } ?> </div> I added the script to [new link] http://jsfiddle.net/xsxfr/47/ so you can see there, that it is not working like this right now :(.

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  • How do I change or add data to a data repeater and get it to display in ASP.NET

    - by CowKingDeluxe
    Here is my code-behind, this adds the "OakTreeName" to the datarepeater. There's about 200 of them. Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("OakTree_Load", New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConnStr)) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.Connection.Open() Dim datareader As SqlClient.SqlDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataSource = datareader OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataBind() cmd.Connection.Close() Here is essentially what I'd like to do with my markup: <ContentTemplate> <asp:Repeater ID="OakTree_Thumb_Repeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeName") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> <!-- Or I'd like to do it this way by adding a custom variable to the data repeater --> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeThumbURL") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ContentTemplate> I would like to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable before it gets placed into the item template. Basically I need to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable and then input it as the ImageURL for the imagebutton within the item template. How do I do this? Am I approaching this wrong? Is there a way to manipulate the item template from code-behind before it gets displayed for each round of variables in the data repeater?

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  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

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  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

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  • WPF app startup problems

    - by Dave
    My brain is all over the map trying to fully understand Unity right now. So I decided to just dive in and start adding it in a branch to see where it takes me. Surprisingly enough (or maybe not), I am stuck just getting my darn Application to load properly. It seems like the right way to do this is to override OnStartup in App.cs. I've removed my StartupUri from App.xaml so it doesn't create my GUI XAML. My App.cs now looks something like this: public partial class App : Application { private IUnityContainer container { get; set; } protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { container = new UnityContainer(); GUI gui = new GUI(); gui.Show(); } protected override void OnExit(ExitEventArgs e) { container.Dispose(); base.OnExit(e); } } The problem is that nothing happens when I start the app! I put a breakpoint at the container assignment, and it never gets hit. What am I missing? App.xaml is currently set to ApplicationDefinition, but I'd expect this to work because some sample Unity + WPF code I'm looking at (from Codeplex) does the exact same thing, except that it works! I've also started the app by single-stepping, and it eventually hits the first line in App.xaml. When I step into this line, that's when the app just starts "running", but I don't see anything (and my breakpoint isn't hit). If I do the exact same thing in the sample application, stepping into App.xaml puts me right into OnStartup, which is what I'd expect to happen. Argh! Is it a Bad Thing to just put the Unity construction in my GUI's Window_Loaded event handler? Does it really need to be at the App level?

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