Search Results

Search found 22000 results on 880 pages for 'worker process'.

Page 741/880 | < Previous Page | 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748  | Next Page >

  • Looking for advice on importing large dataset in sqlite and Cocoa/Objective-C

    - by jluckyiv
    I have a fairly large hierarchical dataset I'm importing. The total size of the database after import is about 270MB in sqlite. My current method works, but I know I'm hogging memory as I do it. For instance, if I run with Zombies, my system freezes up (although it will execute just fine if I don't use that Instrument). I was hoping for some algorithm advice. I have three hierarchical tables comprising about 400,000 records. The highest level has about 30 records, the next has about 20,000, the last has the balance. Right now, I'm using nested for loops to import. I know I'm creating an unreasonably large object graph, but I'm also looking to serialize to JSON or XML because I want to break up the records into downloadable chunks for the end user to import a la carte. I have the code written to do the serialization, but I'm wondering if I can serialize the object graph if I only have pieces in memory. Here's pseudocode showing the basic process for sqlite import. I left out the unnecessary detail. [database open]; [database beginTransaction]; NSArray *firstLevels = [[FirstLevel fetchFromURL:url retain]; for (FirstLevel *firstLevel in firstLevels) { [firstLevel save]; int id1 = [firstLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *secondLevels = [[SecondLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (SecondLevel *secondLevel in secondLevels) { [secondLevel saveWithForeignKey:id1]; int id2 = [secondLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *thirdLevels = [[ThirdLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (ThirdLevel *thirdLevel in thirdLevels) { [thirdLevel saveWithForeignKey:id2]; } [database commit]; [database beginTransaction]; [thirdLevels release]; } [secondLevels release]; } [database commit]; [database release]; [firstLevels release];

    Read the article

  • Redirect to another action in an interceptor in struts 2

    - by user292662
    I am currently in the process of learning Struts 2 and I am currently building a simple application where unverified users are redirected to a login form. I have a login form and action functional which takes the users credentials, verifies them and stores a User object in the session however I am now trying to prevent access to pages before the login has taken place and I am trying to do this with an interceptor. My problem is that I have written an interceptor that checks whether the User object has been saved in the session but if it has not I want to redirect to the login page and can't find any way of doing this without bypassing struts and using the HttpServletResponse.sendRedirect method Configuration: <package name="mypackage" extends="struts-default" namespace="/admin"> <interceptors> <interceptor name="login" class="my.LoginInterceptor" /> </interceptors> <default-interceptor-ref name="login"/> <action name="login" class="my.LoginAction"> <result name="input">/admin/login.jsp</result> <result name="success" type="redirect">/admin</result> </action> <action name="private" class="my.PrivateAction"> <result>/admin/private.jsp</result> </action> </package> The interceptor code: @Override public String intercept(ActionInvocation inv) throws Exception { Map<String, Object> session = inv.getInvocationContext().getSession(); Object user = session.get("user"); if(user == null) { // redirect to the 'login' action here } else { return inv.invoke(); } }

    Read the article

  • Convert a Unit Vector to a Quaternion

    - by Hmm
    So I'm very new to quaternions, but I understand the basics of how to manipulate stuff with them. What I'm currently trying to do is compare a known quaternion to two absolute points in space. I'm hoping what I can do is simply convert the points into a second quaternion, giving me an easy way to compare the two. What I've done so far is to turn the two points into a unit vector. From there I was hoping I could directly plug in the i j k into the imaginary portion of the quaternion with a scalar of zero. From there I could multiply one quaternion by the other's conjugate, resulting in a third quaternion. This third quaternion could be converted into an axis angle, giving me the degree by which the original two quaternions differ by. Is this thought process correct? So it should just be [ 0 i j k ]. I may need to normalize the quaternion afterwards, but I'm not sure about that. I have a bad feeling that it's not a direct mapping from a vector to a quaternion. I tried looking at converting the unit vector to an axis angle, but I'm not sure this would work, since I don't know what angle to give as an input.

    Read the article

  • New NSData with range of old NSData maintaining bytes.

    - by umop
    I have a fairly large NSData (or NSMutableData if necessary) object which I want to take a small chunk out of and leave the rest. Since I'm working with large amounts of NSData bytes, I don't want to make a big copy, but instead just truncate the existing bytes. Basically: NSData *source: < a few bytes I want to discard + < big chunk of bytes I want to keep NSData *destination: < big chunk of bytes I want to keep There are truncation methods in NSMutableData, but they only truncate the end of it, whereas I want to truncate the beginning. My thoughts are to do this with the methods: - getBytes:range: and - initWithBytesNoCopy:length:freeWhenDone: However, I'm trying to figure out how to manage memory with these. I'm guessing the process will be like this (I've placed ????s where I don't know what to do): void *buffer // Get range of bytes [source getBytes:buffer range:NSMakeRange(myStart, myLength)]; // Somehow (m)alloc the memory which will be freed up in the following step ????? // Release the source, now that I've allocated the bytes [source release]; // Create a new data, recycling the bytes so they don't have to be copied NSData destination = [[NSData alloc] initWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:myLength freeWhenDone:YES]; Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Is there a disassembler + debugger for java (ala OllyDbg / SoftICE for assembler)?

    - by Ran Biron
    Is there a utility similar to OllyDbg / SoftICE for java? I.e. execute class (from jar / with class path) and, without source code, show the disassembly of the intermediate code with ability to step through / step over / search for references / edit specific intermediate code in memory / apply edit to file... If not, is it even possible to write something like this (assuming we're willing to live without hotspot for the debug duration)? Edit: I'm not talking about JAD or JD or Cavaj. These are fine decompilers, but I don't want a decompiler for several reasons, most notable is that their output is incorrect (at best, sometimes just plain wrong). I'm not looking for a magical "compiled bytes to java code" - I want to see the actual bytes that are about to be executed. Also, I'd like the ability to change those bytes (just like in an assembly debugger) and, hopefully, write the changed part back to the class file. Edit2: I know javap exists - but it does only one way (and without any sort of analysis). Example (code taken from the vmspec documentation): From java code, we use "javac" to compile this: void setIt(int value) { i = value; } int getIt() { return i; } to a java .class file. Using javap -c I can get this output: Method void setIt(int) 0 aload_0 1 iload_1 2 putfield #4 5 return Method int getIt() 0 aload_0 1 getfield #4 4 ireturn This is OK for the disassembly part (not really good without analysis - "field #4 is Example.i"), but I can't find the two other "tools": A debugger that goes over the instructions themselves (with stack, memory dumps, etc), allowing me to examine the actual code and environment. A way to reverse the process - edit the disassembled code and recreate the .class file (with the edited code).

    Read the article

  • Execute javascript on IIS server

    - by James Westgate
    I have the following situation. A customer uses JavaScript with jQuery to create a complex website. We would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server (IIS) for the following reasons: Skills transfer - we would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server and not have to use eg VB Script. / classic asp. .Net framework/Java etc is ruled out because of this. Improved options for search/accessibility. We would like to be able to use jQuery as a templating system, but this isn't viable for search engines and users with js turned off - unless we can selectively run this code on the server. There is significant investment in IIS and Windows Server, so changing that is not an option. I know you can run jScript on IIS using windows Script host, but am unsure of the scalability and the process surrounding this. I am also unsure whether this would have access to the DOM. Here is a diagram that hopefully explains the situation. I was wondering if anyone has done anything similar?

    Read the article

  • Rails: constraint violation on create but not on update

    - by justinbach
    Note: This is a "railsier" (and more succinct) version of this question, which was getting a little long. I'm getting Rails behavior on a production server that I can't replicate on the development server. The codebases are identical save for credentials and caching settings, and both are powered by Oracle 10g databases with identical schema (but different data). My Rails application contains a user model, which has_one registration; registration in turn has_and_belongs_to_many company_ownerships through a registration_ownerships table. Upon registering, users fill out data pertinent to all three models, including a series of checkboxes indicating what registration_ownerships might apply to their account. On the dev server, the registration process is seamless, no matter what data is entered. On production, however, if users check off any of the company ownership fields before submitting their registration, Oracle complains about a constraint violation on the primary key of the company_ownerships table (which is a two-field key based on company_ownership_id and registration_id) and users get the standard Rails 500 error screen. In every case, I've verified that no conflicting record on these two fields exists in the production database, so I don't know why the constraint is getting violated. To further confuse things, if a user registers without listing any ownerships and later goes back and modifies their account to reflect ownership data (which is done through the same interface), the application happily complies with their request and Oracle is well-behaved (this is both on production and dev). I've spent the past couple days trying to figure out what might be causing this problem and am reaching the end of my wits. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 freeze after save

    - by Klay
    I recently added about a dozen classes from another solution into my current solution in Visual Studio. After adding these classes, Visual Studio started freezing for about 10 seconds whenever I Save. The cursor disappears and mouse clicks and keys do nothing. Some interesting points: Even after I removed the classes, the freezing behavior is still there. Freezing occurs whether I've made changes to the code or not. This behavior ONLY seems to affect this particular version of this solution. No other solutions exhibit this behavior. Older versions of this solution are not affected. In Sysinternals Process Explorer, whenever I save in Visual Studio, the I/O bytes graph jumps from 0 to 2MB for about 5 seconds, then drops to about 1 MB for a split second, then jumps back to 2MB for another 5 seconds. Processor use goes up to about 3-5% during this time. Here are the details of my setup: C# Silverlight project (maybe 20 classes), .NET version 3.5 SP1, Visual Studio 2008 v9.0.30729 SP1. EDIT: I edited this question extensively to reflect the more detailed information. I thought this might be preferable to starting a new question.

    Read the article

  • What is causing Apache2 to display PHP as plain text in this config file?

    - by rxgx
    I am trying to run PHP and Rails in the same virtual host, however, PHP is being displayed as plain/text. When I create a test host without all the rewrites and proxy-ing, Apache2 will process the PHP as desired. Where in my config file have I gone wrong? <VirtualHost *:80> #ServerName staging.domain.com #ServerAlias www.domain.com DocumentRoot /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> RewriteEngine On <Proxy balancer://thinservers> BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5000 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5001 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5002 </Proxy> # Redirect all non-static requests to thin RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}/%{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://thinservers%{REQUEST_URI} [P,QSA,L] ProxyPass / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPassReverse / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPreserveHost on <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> # Custom log file locations ErrorLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/error.log CustomLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/access.log combined </VirtualHost>

    Read the article

  • How to query two tables based on whether or not record exists in a third?

    - by Katherine
    I have three tables, the first two fairly standard: 1) PRODUCTS table: pid pname, etc 2) CART table: cart_id cart_pid cart_orderid etc The third is designed to let people save products they buy and keep notes on them. 3) MYPRODUCTS table: myprod_id myprod_pid PRODUCTS.prod_id = CART.cart_prodid = MYPRODUCTS.myprod_pid When a user orders, they are presented with a list of products on their order, and can optionally add that product to myproducts. I am getting the info necessary for them to do this, with a query something like this for each order: SELECT cart.pid, products.pname, products.pid FROM products, cart WHERE products.pid = cart_prodid AND cart_orderid=orderid This is fine the first time they order. However, if they subsequently reorder a product which they have already added to myproducts, then it should NOT be possible for them to add it to myproducts again - basically instead of 'Add to MyProducts' they need to see 'View in MyProducts'. I am thinking I can separate the products using two queries: Products never added to MyProducts By somehow identifying whether the user has the product in MyProducts already, and if so excluding it from the query above. Products already in MyProducts By reversing the process above. I need some pointers on how to do this though.

    Read the article

  • Getting entitlement warning while building an Ad Hoc Distribution Bundle for an Iphone App.

    - by nefsu
    I followed Apple's instructions on how to create an Ad Hoc Distrubution bundle but I keep getting what appears to be a fatal Warning during the build process. As per the instructions, I set the signing identity to my distribution profile at the target (instead of the project), created my Entitlement.plist file and unchecked get-task-allow, linked this file to my target and run the build in distribution for device mode. When I do that, the build completes successful but only after giving the following warning. [WARN]CodeSign warning: entitlements are not applicable for product type 'Application' in SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.1.2'; ignoring... The last step in the build is the CodeSign and I've noticed that although it ran without errors, it's missing the --entitlement command line option that is given on the official apple instruction guide. Here is my CodeSign line /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: My Name" --resource-rules=/Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app/ResourceRules.plist /Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app And here is apple's screen shot of what's expected. Can someone please help me figure out if this is something I'm doing wrong because much to my dismay even the dev forum at apple has very little information on this CodeSign warning.

    Read the article

  • Standardizing a Release/Tools group on a specific language

    - by grahzny
    I'm part of a six-member build and release team for an embedded software company. We also support a lot of developer tools, such as Atlassian's Fisheye, Jira, etc., Perforce, Bugzilla, AnthillPro, and a couple of homebrew tools (like my Django release notes generator). Most of the time, our team just writes little plugins for larger apps (ex: customize workflows in Anthill), long-term utility scripts (package up a release for QA), or things like Perforce triggers (don't let people check into a specific branch unless their change description includes a bug number; authenticate against Active Directory instead of Perforce's internal passwords). That's about the scale of our problems, although we sometimes tackle something slightly more sizable. My boss, who is reasonably technical, has asked us to standardize on one or two languages so we can more easily substitute for each other. He's advocating bash scripts and Perl, due to their universality and simplicity. I can see his point--we mostly do "glue", so why not use "glue" languages rather than saddle ourselves with something designed for much larger projects? Since some of the tools we work with are Java-based, we do need to use something that speaks JVM sometimes. (The path of least resistance for these projects is BeanShell and Groovy.) I feel a tremendous itch toward language advocacy, but I'm trying to avoid saying "We should use Python 'cause I like it and Perl is gross." Instead, I'm trying to come up with a good approach to defining our problem set: what problems do we solve with scripts? Would we benefit from a library of common functions by our team, or are most of our projects more isolated? What is it reasonable to expect my co-workers to learn? What languages give us the most ease of development and ease of modification? Can you folks suggest some useful ways to approach this problem, both for my own thinking process and to help me facilitate some brainstorming among my coworkers?

    Read the article

  • What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms?

    - by Simon
    What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms? I'm tryin to better understand this 'simple' question in order to determine whether or not existing pages I have in a (very) simple site can be easily converted from ASP.NET WebForms. Either a 'conversion' of the process below, or an alternative lifecycle would be what I'm looking for. What I'm currently doing: (yes i know that anyone capable of answering my question already knows all this -- i'm just tryin to get a comparison of the 'lifecycle' so i thought i'd start by filling in what we already all know) Rendering the page: I have a master page which contains my basic template I have content pages that give me named regions from the master page into which I put content. In an event handler for each content page I load data from the database (mostly read-only). I bind this data to ASP.NET controls representing grids, dropdowns or repeaters. This data all 'lives' inside the HTML generated. Some of it gets into ViewState (but I wont go into that too much!) I set properties or bind data to certain items like Image or TextBox controls on the page. The page gets sent to the client rendered as non-reusable HTML. I try to avoid using ViewState other than what the page needs as a minimum. Client side (not using ASP.NET AJAX): I may use JQuery and some nasty tricks to find controls on the page and perform operations on them. If the user selects from a dropdown -- a postback is generated which triggers a C# event in my codebehind. This event may go to the database, but whatever it does a completely newly generated HTML page ends up getting sent back to the client. I may use Page.Session to store key value pairs I need to reuse later So with MVC how does this 'lifecycle' change?

    Read the article

  • Using MSBuild 4 command line to publish ASP.NET web application

    - by meandmycode
    In previous msbuild we used the target '_CopyWebApplication' in order to build and convert the source of a project into a published site, this worked OK, but wasn't ideal. In .NET 4, the publishing process is somewhat more sophisticated and additionally seems a bit of a black box to understand. Whilst packages look great, I cannot fully understand how they can be harnessed by a build server, the build server would not get any manifest information, and equally, something (msbuild?) is CREATING this manifest information FROM the project file. In our build server, I ideally want to say, here is my csproj file, deploy it by the package configuration 'x'. I'm trying to understand the workflow I need to make this happen. Right now when I use _CopyWebApplication, the result is different to doing a publish from visual studio 2010, primarily that web.config transforms aren't processed, and obviously msdeploy isn't involved at all. Can somebody point me in the right direction, I believe I need to get msbuild to do the equiv of 'Build Deployment Package', and then use msdeploy to deploy this from our build server to our CI testing environments. I know this is a very vague post, but I hope somebody can give me some hints, I'll be continuing research also, so if I make any progress, I'll post my findings here. Thanks in advance, Stephen.

    Read the article

  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

    Read the article

  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • No right-click event Firefox 3.6

    - by cdmckay
    I'm in the process of porting an app to JavaScript/CSS and it uses right-click. For some reason Firefox 3.6 for Windows isn't issuing a right-click event, but Chrome and IE do. Here's some test code. If you right-click #test then you get nothing in Firefox but you get an alert under Chrome and IE. <html> <head> <title>Hi</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("#test").get(0).oncontextmenu = function() { return false; }; $("#test").mousedown(function() { alert("hi"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="test" style="background: red;">Hi</div> </body> </html> Why isn't the right-click event being generated in Firefox?

    Read the article

  • How to set the build.xml for the Groovy Antbuilder?

    - by Jan
    I want to execute a build.xml (Ant buildfile) from using GMaven (Maven Plugin for inline executing of Groovy in a POM). Since I have to execute the buildfile several times using the maven-antrun-plugin is not an option at the moment. I take a list of properties (environment and machine names) from an xml file and want to execute ant builds for each of those machines. I found the executeTarget method in the javadocs but not how to set the location of the buildfile. How can I do that - and is this enough? What I have looks as follows: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.groovy.maven</groupId> <artifactId>gmaven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <id>some ant builds</id> <phase>process-sources</phase> <goals> <goal>execute</goal> </goals> <configuration> <source> def ant = new AntBuilder() def machines = new XmlParser().parse(new File(project.build.outputDirectory + '/MachineList.xml')); machines.children().each { log.info('Creating machine description for ' + it.Id.text() + ' / ' + it.Environment.text()); ant.project.setProperty('Environment',it.Environment.text()); ant.project.setProperty('Machine',it.Id.text()); // What's missing? ant.project.executeTarget('Tailoring'); } log.info('Ant has finished.') </source> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

    Read the article

  • Accessing an excel file throws OleDbException but keeps handle on file

    - by Jonn
    Really odd that I'd get an oledbexception but turns out that the file's handle is still with the original file. I've been searching through google and keep finding the same problem but no solutions. Connection String: "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + filePath + ";" + "Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;"; Note that it works on every other file except a particular excel file. Exception: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException: No error information available: E_UNEXPECTED(0x8000FFFF). And then I have exception handling like this: try { IEnumerable<string> worksheetNames = GetWorkbookWorksheetNames(connString); DataSet ds; foreach (string worksheetName in worksheetNames) { OleDbDataAdapter dataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM [" + worksheetName + "]", connString); ds = new DataSet(); dataAdapter.Fill(ds, "ExcelInfo"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["ExcelInfo"]; entityList.AddRange(GetDataFromDataTable(dt, worksheetName)); } } catch (OleDbException ex) { File.Move(filePath, filePath + ".invalidFormat.xls"); } Has anyone else encountered this behavior? And I'm not sure how to handle an error that keeps the handle on the file I'm supposed to process. It sort of freezes everything in place.

    Read the article

  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

    Read the article

  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

    Read the article

  • Why did this work with Visual C++, but not with gcc?

    - by Carlos Nunez
    I've been working on a senior project for the last several months now, and a major sticking point in our team's development process has been dealing wtih rifts between Visual-C++ and gcc. (Yes, I know we all should have had the same development environment.) Things are about finished up at this point, but I ran into a moderate bug just today that had me wondering whether Visual-C++ is easier on newbies (like me) by design. In one of my headers, there is a function that relies on strtok to chop up a string, do some comparisons and return a string with a similar format. It works a little something like the following: int main() { string a, b, c; //Do stuff with a and b. c = get_string(a,b); } string get_string(string a, string b) { const char * a_ch, b_ch; a_ch = strtok(a.c_str(),","); b_ch = strtok(b.c_str(),","); } strtok is infamous for being great at tokenizing, but equally great at destroying the original string to be tokenized. Thus, when I compiled this with gcc and tried to do anything with a or b, I got unexpected behavior, since the separator used was completely removed in the string. Here's an example in case I'm unclear; if I set a = "Jim,Bob,Mary" and b="Grace,Soo,Hyun", they would be defined as a="JimBobMary" and b="GraceSooHyun" instead of staying the same like I wanted. However, when I compiled this under Visual C++, I got back the original strings and the program executed fine. I tried dynamically allocating memory to the strings and copying them the "standard" way, but the only way that worked was using malloc() and free(), which I hear is discouraged in C++. While I'm curious about that, the real question I have is this: Why did the program work when compiled in VC++, but not with gcc? (This is one of many conflicts that I experienced while trying to make the code cross-platform.) Thanks in advance! -Carlos Nunez

    Read the article

  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

    Read the article

  • global variables in php not working as expected

    - by Josh Smeaton
    I'm having trouble with global variables in php. I have a $screen var set in one file, which requires another file that calls an initSession() defined in yet another file. The initSession() declares "global $screen" and then processes $screen further down using the value set in the very first script. How is this possible? To make things more confusing, if you try to set $screen again then call the initSession(), it uses the value first used once again. The following code will describe the process. Could someone have a go at explaining this? $screen = "list1.inc"; // From model.php require "controller.php"; // From model.php initSession(); // From controller.php global $screen; // From Include.Session.inc echo $screen; // prints "list1.inc" // From anywhere $screen = "delete1.inc"; // From model2.php require "controller2.php" initSession(); global $screen; echo $screen; // prints "list1.inc" Update: If I declare $screen global again just before requiring the second model, $screen is updated properly for the initSession() method. Strange.

    Read the article

  • Troubleshooting failover cluster problem in W2K8 / SQL05

    - by paulland
    I have an active/passive W2K8 (64) cluster pair, running SQL05 Standard. Shared storage is on a HP EVA SAN (FC). I recently expanded the filesystem on the active node for a database, adding a drive designation. The shared storage drives are designated as F:, I:, J:, L: and X:, with SQL filesystems on the first 4 and X: used for a backup destination. Last night, as part of a validation process (the passive node had been offline for maintenance), I moved the SQL instance to the other cluster node. The database in question immediately moved to Suspect status. Review of the system logs showed that the database would not load because the file "K:\SQLDATA\whatever.ndf" could not be found. (Note that we do not have a K: drive designation.) A review of the J: storage drive showed zero contents -- nothing -- this is where "whatever.ndf" should have been. Hmm, I thought. Problem with the server. I'll just move SQL back to the other server and figure out what's wrong.. Still no database. Suspect. Uh-oh. "Whatever.ndf" had gone into the bit bucket. I finally decided to just restore from the backup (which had been taken immediately before the validation test), so nothing was lost but a few hours of sleep. The question: (1) Why did the passive node think the whatever.ndf files were supposed to go to drive "K:", when this drive didn't exist as a resource on the active node? (2) How can I get the cluster nodes "re-syncd" so that failover can be accomplished? I don't know that there wasn't a "K:" drive as a cluster resource at some time in the past, but I do know that this drive did not exist on the original cluster at the time of resource move.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748  | Next Page >