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  • Memory Bandwidth Performance for Modern Machines

    - by porgarmingduod
    I'm designing a real-time system that occasionally has to duplicate a large amount of memory. The memory consists of non-tiny regions, so I expect the copying performance will be fairly close to the maximum bandwidth the relevant components (CPU, RAM, MB) can do. This led me to wonder what kind of raw memory bandwidth modern commodity machine can muster? My aging Core2Duo gives me 1.5 GB/s if I use 1 thread to memcpy() (and understandably less if I memcpy() with both cores simultaneously.) While 1.5 GB is a fair amount of data, the real-time application I'm working on will have have something like 1/50th of a second, which means 30 MB. Basically, almost nothing. And perhaps worst of all, as I add multiple cores, I can process a lot more data without any increased performance for the needed duplication step. But a low-end Core2Due isn't exactly hot stuff these days. Are there any sites with information, such as actual benchmarks, on raw memory bandwidth on current and near-future hardware? Furthermore, for duplicating large amounts of data in memory, are there any shortcuts, or is memcpy() as good as it will get? Given a bunch of cores with nothing to do but duplicate as much memory as possible in a short amount of time, what's the best I can do?

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  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

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  • Autocomplete Error Question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a very simple blog application using Ruby on Rails. New to both Ruby and Rails so excuse the stupid questions. I currently have two tables that relate to this question. I have a Post table and a Tag table. Basically I set it up such that Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. I am using AJAX to process and display the tags in the show view of the post. I installed the auto_complete plugin and I am getting an error when I enter the letters in the text_field_with_auto_complete for tag creation. My suspicion is this is because the form is a remote_form_for or something I am doing wrong in the routes.rb. Here is the error and code: Error Processing PostsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-13 23:25:46) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"f"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Post Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Post with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/posts_controller.rb:22:in `show' Rendered rescues/_trace (26.0ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.2ms) Rendering rescues/layout (not_found) remote_form_for located in /views/posts/show.html.erb <% remote_form_for [@post, Tag.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :tag_name, "Tag" %><br/> <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :tag, :tag_name, {}, {:method => :get} %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> tags_controller.rb (I'll spare you all the actions but added the following here) auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name routes.rb map.resources :posts, :has_many => :comments map.resources :posts, :has_many => :tags map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get }

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  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

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  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

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  • ADO/SQL Server: What is the error code for "timeout expired"?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to trap a "timeout expired" error from ADO. When a timeout happens, ADO returns: Number: 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h) SQLState: HYT00 NativeError: 0 The NativeError of zero makes sense, since the timeout is not a function of the database engine (i.e. SQL Server), but of ADO's internal timeout mechanism. The Number (i.e. the COM hresult) looks useful, but the definition of DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h says: Execution stopped because a resource limit was reached. No results were returned. This error could apply to things besides "timeout expired" (some potentially server-side), such as a governor that limits: CPU usage I/O reads/writes network bandwidth and stops a query. The final useful piece is SQLState, which is a database-independent error code system. Unfortunately the only reference for SQLState error codes i can find have no mention of HYT00. What to do? What do do? Note: i can't trust 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED) to mean "timeout expired", anymore than i could trust 0x80004005 (E_UNSPECIFIED_ERROR) to mean "Transaction was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim". My pseudo-question becomes: does anyone have documentation on what the SQLState "HYT000" means? And my real question still remains: How can i specifically trap an ADO timeout expired exception thrown by ADO? Gotta love the questions where the developer is trying to "do the right thing", but nobody knows how to do the right thing. Also gotta love how googling for DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED and this question is #9, with MSDN nowhere to be found. Update 3 From the OLEdb ICommand.Execute reference: DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED Execution has been aborted because a resource limit has been reached. For example, a query timed out. No results have been returned. "For example", meaning not an exhaustive list.

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  • How can a program be detected as running?

    - by ryeguy
    I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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  • "Priming" a whole database in MSSQL for first-hit speed

    - by David Spillett
    For a particular apps I have a set of queries that I run each time the database has been restarted for any reason (server reboot usually). These "prime" SQL Server's page cache with the common core working set of the data so that the app is not unusually slow the first time a user logs in afterwards. One instance of the app is running on an over-specced arrangement where the SQL box has more RAM than the size of the database (4Gb in the machine, the DB is under 1.5Gb currently and unlikely to grow too much relative to that in the near future). Is there a neat/easy way of telling SQL Server to go away and load everything into RAM? It could be done the hard way by having a script scan sysobjects & sysindexes and running SELECT * FROM <table> WITH(INDEX(<index_name>)) ORDER BY <index_fields> for every key and index found, which should cause every used page to be read at least once and so be in RAM, but is there a cleaner or more efficient way? All planned instances where the database server is stopped are out-of-normal-working-hours (all the users are at most one timezone away and unlike me none of them work at silly hours) so such a process (until complete) slowing down users more than the working set not being primed at all would is not an issue.

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  • What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms?

    - by Simon
    What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms? I'm tryin to better understand this 'simple' question in order to determine whether or not existing pages I have in a (very) simple site can be easily converted from ASP.NET WebForms. Either a 'conversion' of the process below, or an alternative lifecycle would be what I'm looking for. What I'm currently doing: (yes i know that anyone capable of answering my question already knows all this -- i'm just tryin to get a comparison of the 'lifecycle' so i thought i'd start by filling in what we already all know) Rendering the page: I have a master page which contains my basic template I have content pages that give me named regions from the master page into which I put content. In an event handler for each content page I load data from the database (mostly read-only). I bind this data to ASP.NET controls representing grids, dropdowns or repeaters. This data all 'lives' inside the HTML generated. Some of it gets into ViewState (but I wont go into that too much!) I set properties or bind data to certain items like Image or TextBox controls on the page. The page gets sent to the client rendered as non-reusable HTML. I try to avoid using ViewState other than what the page needs as a minimum. Client side (not using ASP.NET AJAX): I may use JQuery and some nasty tricks to find controls on the page and perform operations on them. If the user selects from a dropdown -- a postback is generated which triggers a C# event in my codebehind. This event may go to the database, but whatever it does a completely newly generated HTML page ends up getting sent back to the client. I may use Page.Session to store key value pairs I need to reuse later So with MVC how does this 'lifecycle' change?

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  • What are some programming techniques for converting SD images to HD images

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm taking programming class and instructor loves to work with images so most of our assignments involve manipulating raw RGB image data. One of our assignments is to implement a standard image converter that converts SD images to HD images and vice versa. I always take advantage of these types of assignments to go a little beyond what we were asked to do, so I added a basic anti-aliasing process that uses the average pixel color of the 3x3 surrounding pixels to improve the converted image. While it helps a bit, the resulting image still doesn't look good, which is ok because it's not expected to for the assignment. I've learned that converting an SD to HD images has shown to be much harder than down sampling to SD from HD just because SD to HD effectively involves increasing resolution when it is not there. Obviously, it is hard to create pixels from nothing, but I'd like enhance my anti-aliasing to something that provides better results when upscaling an image. Most of the techniques I find and read on the internet are far beyond my level of image processing and programming. Can anybody suggest any better methods or processes to create good HD content from SD content that may be within my programming skill level? I know that's a difficult thing to gauge since you don't know me, but perhaps knowing that I can write c++ code to read in raw RGB data and upscale/downscale it with simple average-anti-aliasing will give you an idea. Thanks in advance for all your help!

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  • Using MSBuild 4 command line to publish ASP.NET web application

    - by meandmycode
    In previous msbuild we used the target '_CopyWebApplication' in order to build and convert the source of a project into a published site, this worked OK, but wasn't ideal. In .NET 4, the publishing process is somewhat more sophisticated and additionally seems a bit of a black box to understand. Whilst packages look great, I cannot fully understand how they can be harnessed by a build server, the build server would not get any manifest information, and equally, something (msbuild?) is CREATING this manifest information FROM the project file. In our build server, I ideally want to say, here is my csproj file, deploy it by the package configuration 'x'. I'm trying to understand the workflow I need to make this happen. Right now when I use _CopyWebApplication, the result is different to doing a publish from visual studio 2010, primarily that web.config transforms aren't processed, and obviously msdeploy isn't involved at all. Can somebody point me in the right direction, I believe I need to get msbuild to do the equiv of 'Build Deployment Package', and then use msdeploy to deploy this from our build server to our CI testing environments. I know this is a very vague post, but I hope somebody can give me some hints, I'll be continuing research also, so if I make any progress, I'll post my findings here. Thanks in advance, Stephen.

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  • Synchronizing files between Linux servers, through FTP

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I have the following configuration of servers: 1 central linux server, a VPS 8 satellite linux servers, "crappy shared hostings" I have a bunch of files that I need to have in all servers. Right now i'm copying them everywhere manually, but I want to be able to copy them to the central server, and then have a scheduled process that runs every now and then and synchronizes them (only outwardly, no need to try to find "new" files in the satellite servers). There are a couple of catches though: I can't have any custom software in the satellite servers, or do strange command line things that'll auto connect to them and send the files directly. I know this is the way these kinds of things are normally done, but the satellite servers are crappy shared hosting ones where I have absolutely no control over anything. I need to send the files over FTP I also need to have, in my central server, a list of the files that are available in each of the satellite servers, to make sure they are ready before I send traffic to them. If I were to do this manually, the steps would be: get the list of files in a satellite server compare to my own, and send the files that are missing get the list of files again, and store it in my central database. I'd like to know what tools are out there that can alleviate as much of this as possible, first the syncing, and then the "getting the list of files available in the other server". I'm going to be doing everything from PHP, not sure if there are good tools to "use FTP from PHP", which i'm pretty sure i'll have to do for step 3 at least. Thanks in advance for any ideas! Daniel

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  • Accessing an excel file throws OleDbException but keeps handle on file

    - by Jonn
    Really odd that I'd get an oledbexception but turns out that the file's handle is still with the original file. I've been searching through google and keep finding the same problem but no solutions. Connection String: "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + filePath + ";" + "Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;"; Note that it works on every other file except a particular excel file. Exception: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException: No error information available: E_UNEXPECTED(0x8000FFFF). And then I have exception handling like this: try { IEnumerable<string> worksheetNames = GetWorkbookWorksheetNames(connString); DataSet ds; foreach (string worksheetName in worksheetNames) { OleDbDataAdapter dataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM [" + worksheetName + "]", connString); ds = new DataSet(); dataAdapter.Fill(ds, "ExcelInfo"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["ExcelInfo"]; entityList.AddRange(GetDataFromDataTable(dt, worksheetName)); } } catch (OleDbException ex) { File.Move(filePath, filePath + ".invalidFormat.xls"); } Has anyone else encountered this behavior? And I'm not sure how to handle an error that keeps the handle on the file I'm supposed to process. It sort of freezes everything in place.

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  • Run AppleScript with Elevated Privileges from Objective C

    - by cygnl7
    I'm attempting to execute an uninstaller (written in AppleScript) through AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges. I'm setting up my rights after creating an empty auth ref like so: char *tool = "/usr/bin/osascript"; AuthorizationItem items = {kAuthorizationRightExecute, strlen(tool), tool, 0}; AuthorizationRights rights = {sizeof(items)/sizeof(AuthorizationItem), &items}; AuthorizationFlags flags = kAuthorizationFlagDefaults | kAuthorizationFlagExtendRights | kAuthorizationFlagPreAuthorize | kAuthorizationFlagInteractionAllowed; status = AuthorizationCopyRights(authorizationRef, &rights, NULL, flags, NULL); Later I call: status = AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges(authorizationRef, tool, kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, (char *const *)args, NULL); On Snow Leopard this works fine, but on Leopard I get the following in syslog.log: Apr 19 15:30:09 hostname /usr/bin/osascript[39226]: OpenScripting.framework - 'gdut' event blocked in process with mixed credentials (issetugid=0 uid=501 euid=0 gid=20 egid=20) Apr 19 15:30:12: --- last message repeated 1 time --- ... Apr 19 15:30:12 hostname [0x0-0x2e92e9].com.example.uninstaller[39219]: /var/folders/vm/vmkIi0nYG8mHMrllaXaTgk+++TI/-Tmp-/TestApp_tmpfiles/Uninstall.scpt: Apr 19 15:30:12 hostname [0x0-0x2e92e9].com.example.uninstaller[39219]: execution error: «constant afdmasup» doesn’t understand the «event earsffdr» message. (-1708) After researching this for a few hours my first guess is that Leopard somehow doesn't want to do what I'm doing because it knows it's in a setuid situation and blocks calls that ask about user-specific things in the applescript. Am I going about this all wrong? I just want to run the equivalent of "sudo /usr/bin/osascript ..." Edit: FWIW, the first line that causes the "execution error" is: set userAppSupportPath to (POSIX path of (path to application support folder from user domain)) However, even with an empty script (on run argv, end run and that's it) I still get the 'gdut' message.

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  • No right-click event Firefox 3.6

    - by cdmckay
    I'm in the process of porting an app to JavaScript/CSS and it uses right-click. For some reason Firefox 3.6 for Windows isn't issuing a right-click event, but Chrome and IE do. Here's some test code. If you right-click #test then you get nothing in Firefox but you get an alert under Chrome and IE. <html> <head> <title>Hi</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("#test").get(0).oncontextmenu = function() { return false; }; $("#test").mousedown(function() { alert("hi"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="test" style="background: red;">Hi</div> </body> </html> Why isn't the right-click event being generated in Firefox?

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  • grep 5 seconds of input from the serial port inside a shell-script

    - by pica
    I've got a device that I'm operating next to my PC and as it runs it's spitting log lines out it's serial port. I have this wired to my PC and I can see the log lines fine if I'm using either minicom or something like: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 I want to write 5 seconds of the device serial output to a temp file (or assign it to a variable) and then later grep that file for keywords that will let me know how the device is operating. I've already tried redirecting the output to a file while running the command in the background, and then sleeping 5 seconds and killing the process, but the log lines never get written to my temp file. Example: touch tempFile ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 >> tempFile & serialPID=$! sleep 5 #kill ${serialPID} #does not work, gets wrong PID killall ttylog cat tempFile The file gets created but never filled with any data. I can also replace the ttylog line with: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 |tee -a tempFile & In neither case do I ever see any log lines logged to stdout or the log file unless I have multiple versions of ttylog running by mistake (see commented out line, D'oh). I have no idea what's going on here. It seems to be a failure of redirection within my script. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to sample 5 seconds of the serial port?

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  • Looking for advice on importing large dataset in sqlite and Cocoa/Objective-C

    - by jluckyiv
    I have a fairly large hierarchical dataset I'm importing. The total size of the database after import is about 270MB in sqlite. My current method works, but I know I'm hogging memory as I do it. For instance, if I run with Zombies, my system freezes up (although it will execute just fine if I don't use that Instrument). I was hoping for some algorithm advice. I have three hierarchical tables comprising about 400,000 records. The highest level has about 30 records, the next has about 20,000, the last has the balance. Right now, I'm using nested for loops to import. I know I'm creating an unreasonably large object graph, but I'm also looking to serialize to JSON or XML because I want to break up the records into downloadable chunks for the end user to import a la carte. I have the code written to do the serialization, but I'm wondering if I can serialize the object graph if I only have pieces in memory. Here's pseudocode showing the basic process for sqlite import. I left out the unnecessary detail. [database open]; [database beginTransaction]; NSArray *firstLevels = [[FirstLevel fetchFromURL:url retain]; for (FirstLevel *firstLevel in firstLevels) { [firstLevel save]; int id1 = [firstLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *secondLevels = [[SecondLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (SecondLevel *secondLevel in secondLevels) { [secondLevel saveWithForeignKey:id1]; int id2 = [secondLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *thirdLevels = [[ThirdLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (ThirdLevel *thirdLevel in thirdLevels) { [thirdLevel saveWithForeignKey:id2]; } [database commit]; [database beginTransaction]; [thirdLevels release]; } [secondLevels release]; } [database commit]; [database release]; [firstLevels release];

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  • MySql Query lag time / deadlock?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • Dispatch request to an Async Servlet from managed bean generate exception

    - by Thang Pham
    when a button click, I need to have stuff running in my background, so I have a async Servlet. From my managed bean, if I do redirect, it works great (meaning that it execute my run() method inside my class that extends Runnable correctly). Like this String url = externalContext.getRequestContextPath() + "/ReportExecutionServlet"; externalContext.redirect(url); But if I switch to dispatch, like this externalContext.redirect("/ReportExecutionServlet"); it fail when I try to obtain the AsyncContext AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); The error is below Caused By: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The async-support is disabled on this request: weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl Any idea how to fix this please? NOTE: This is how to execute my async servlet, just in case: AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); //delegate long running process to an "async" thread aCtx.addListener(new AsyncListener() { @Override public void onComplete(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onComplete"); } @Override public void onTimeout(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.WARNING, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onTimeout"); } @Override public void onError(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onError"); } @Override public void onStartAsync(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onStartAsync"); } }); // Start another service ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor executor = new ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor(10); executor.execute(new AsyncRequestReportProcessor(aCtx));

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  • Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

    - by Hirvox
    I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

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  • Dragging an UIView inside UIScrollView

    - by Sergey Mikhanov
    Hello community! I am trying to solve a basic problem with drag and drop on iPhone. Here's my setup: I have a UIScrollView which has one large content subview (I'm able to scroll and zoom it) Content subview has several small tiles as subviews that should be dragged around inside it. My UIScrollView subclass has this method: - (UIView *)hitTest:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UIView *tile = [contentView pointInsideTiles:[self convertPoint:point toView:contentView] withEvent:event]; if (tile) { return tile; } else { return [super hitTest:point withEvent:event]; } } Content subview has this method: - (UIView *)pointInsideTiles:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (TileView *tile in tiles) { if ([tile pointInside:[self convertPoint:point toView:tile] withEvent:event]) return tile; } return nil; } And tile view has this method: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:self.superview]; self.center = location; } This works, but not fully correct: the tile sometimes "falls down" during the drag process. More precisely, it stops receiving touchesMoved: invocations, and scroll view starts scrolling instead. I noticed that this depends on the drag speed: the faster I drag, the quicker the tile "falls". Any ideas on how to keep the tile glued to the dragging finger? Thanks in advance!

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  • Execute javascript on IIS server

    - by James Westgate
    I have the following situation. A customer uses JavaScript with jQuery to create a complex website. We would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server (IIS) for the following reasons: Skills transfer - we would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server and not have to use eg VB Script. / classic asp. .Net framework/Java etc is ruled out because of this. Improved options for search/accessibility. We would like to be able to use jQuery as a templating system, but this isn't viable for search engines and users with js turned off - unless we can selectively run this code on the server. There is significant investment in IIS and Windows Server, so changing that is not an option. I know you can run jScript on IIS using windows Script host, but am unsure of the scalability and the process surrounding this. I am also unsure whether this would have access to the DOM. Here is a diagram that hopefully explains the situation. I was wondering if anyone has done anything similar?

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  • instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

    - by gwk
    My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

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