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  • Is Assert.Fail() considered bad practice?

    - by Mendelt
    I use Assert.Fail a lot when doing TDD. I'm usually working on one test at a time but when I get ideas for things I want to implement later I quickly write an empty test where the name of the test method indicates what I want to implement as sort of a todo-list. To make sure I don't forget I put an Assert.Fail() in the body. When trying out xUnit.Net I found they hadn't implemented Assert.Fail. Of course you can always Assert.IsTrue(false) but this doesn't communicate my intention as well. I got the impression Assert.Fail wasn't implemented on purpose. Is this considered bad practice? If so why? @Martin Meredith That's not exactly what I do. I do write a test first and then implement code to make it work. Usually I think of several tests at once. Or I think about a test to write when I'm working on something else. That's when I write an empty failing test to remember. By the time I get to writing the test I neatly work test-first. @Jimmeh That looks like a good idea. Ignored tests don't fail but they still show up in a separate list. Have to try that out. @Matt Howells Great Idea. NotImplementedException communicates intention better than assert.Fail() in this case @Mitch Wheat That's what I was looking for. It seems it was left out to prevent it being abused in another way I abuse it.

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  • Passing a paramter/object to a ruby unit/test before running it using TestRunner

    - by Nahir Khan
    I'm building a tool that automates a process then runs some tests on it's own results then goes to do some other stuff. In trying to clean up my code I have created a separate file that just has the test cases class. Now before I can run these tests, I have to pass the class a couple of parameters/objects before they can be run. Now the problem is that I can't seem to find a way to pass a parameter/object to the test class. Right now I am thinking to generate a Yaml file and read it in the test class but it feels "wrong" to use a temporary file for this. If anyone has a nicer solution that would be great! *********Edit******* Example Code of what I am doing right now: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'test/unit/ui/console/testrunner' require 'yaml' require 'TS_SampleTestSuite' automatingSomething() importantInfo = getImportantInfo() File.open('filename.yml', 'w') do |f| f.puts importantInfo.to_yaml end Test::Unit::UI::Console::TestRunner.run(TS_SampleTestSuite) Now in the example above TS_SampleTestSuite needs importantInfo, so the first "test case" is a method that just reads in the information from the Yaml file filname.yml. I hope that clears up some confusion.

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  • [C++][OpenMP] Proper use of "atomic directive" to lock STL container

    - by conradlee
    I have a large number of sets of integers, which I have, in turn, put into a vector of pointers. I need to be able to update these sets of integers in parallel without causing a race condition. More specifically. I am using OpenMP's "parallel for" construct. For dealing with shared resources, OpenMP offers a handy "atomic directive," which allows one to avoid a race condition on a specific piece of memory without using locks. It would be convenient if I could use the "atomic directive" to prevent simultaneous updating to my integer sets, however, I'm not sure whether this is possible. Basically, I want to know whether the following code could lead to a race condition vector< set<int>* > membershipDirectory(numSets, new set<int>); #pragma omp for schedule(guided,expandChunksize) for(int i=0; i<100; i++) { set<int>* sp = membershipDirectory[5]; #pragma omp atomic sp->insert(45); } (Apologies for any syntax errors in the code---I hope you get the point) I have seen a similar example of this for incrementing an integer, but I'm not sure whether it works when working with a pointer to a container as in my case.

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  • How can I programmatically determine if my workstation is locked?

    - by AgentConundrum
    I'm writing up some productivity/metrics tools for myself to help monitor my focus throughout the day. Recently, I've noticed that I tend to get off track more than usual and feel the need to get up and go for walks/drinks/etc and I'm concerned that I'm "wasting" too much time. Since I always lock my computer when I go anywhere, and I unlock it as soon as I return (even if I'm just reading at my desk, etc), I was wondering how I can determine, in code, how long the machine is locked. I'm writing this in C# if that helps, but I'm open to other ideas. I like the windows service idea (and have accepted it) for simplicity and cleanliness, but unfortunately I don't think it will work for me in this particular case. I wanted to run this on my workstation at work rather than home (or in addition to home, I suppose), but it's locked down pretty hard courtesy of the DoD. That's part of the reason I'm rolling my own, actually. I'll write it up anyway and see if it works. Thanks everyone!

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  • Grails - Removing an item from a hasMany association List on data bind?

    - by ecrane
    Grails offers the ability to automatically create and bind domain objects to a hasMany List, as described in the grails user guide. So, for example, if my domain object "Author" has a List of many "Book" objects, I could create and bind these using the following markup (from the user guide): <g:textField name="books[0].title" value="the Stand" /> <g:textField name="books[1].title" value="the Shining" /> <g:textField name="books[2].title" value="Red Madder" /> In this case, if any of the books specified don't already exist, Grails will create them and set their titles appropriately. If there are already books in the specified indices, their titles will be updated and they will be saved. My question is: is there some easy way to tell Grails to remove one of those books from the 'books' association on data bind? The most obvious way to do this would be to omit the form element that corresponds to the domain instance you want to delete; unfortunately, this does not work, as per the user guide: Then Grails will automatically create a new instance for you at the defined position. If you "skipped" a few elements in the middle ... Then Grails will automatically create instances in between. I realize that a specific solution could be engineered as part of a command object, or as part of a particular controller- however, the need for this functionality appears repeatedly throughout my application, across multiple domain objects and for associations of many different types of objects. A general solution, therefore, would be ideal. Does anyone know if there is something like this included in Grails?

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  • If I use Unicode on a ISO-8859-1 site, how will that be interpreted by a browser?

    - by grg-n-sox
    So I got a site that uses ISO-8859-1 encoding and I can't change that. I want to be sure that the content I enter into the web app on the site gets parsed correctly. The parser works on a character by character basis. I also cannot change the parser, I am just writing files for it to handle. The content in my file I am telling the app to display after parsing contains Unicode characters (or at least I assume so, even if they were produced by Windows Alt Codes mapped to CP437). Using entities is not an option due to the character by character operation of the parser. The only characters that the parser escapes upon output are markup sensitive ones like ampersand, less than, and greater than symbols. I would just go ahead and put this through to see what it looks like, but output can only be seen on a publishing, which has to spend a couple days getting approved and such, and that would be asking too much for just a test case. So, long story short, if I told a site to output ?ÇÑ¥?? on a site with a meta tag stating it is supposed to use ISO-8859-1, will a browser auto-detect the Unicode and display it or will it literally translate it as ISO-8859-1 and get a different set of characters?

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  • setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

    - by Scott B
    I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

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  • Argument type deduction, references and rvalues

    - by uj2
    Consider the situation where a function template needs to forward an argument while keeping it's lvalue-ness in case it's a non-const lvalue, but is itself agnostic to what the argument actually is, as in: template <typename T> void target(T&) { cout << "non-const lvalue"; } template <typename T> void target(const T&) { cout << "const lvalue or rvalue"; } template <typename T> void forward(T& x) { target(x); } When x is an rvalue, instead of T being deduced to a constant type, it gives an error: int x = 0; const int y = 0; forward(x); // T = int forward(y); // T = const int forward(0); // Hopefully, T = const int, but actually an error forward<const int>(0); // Works, T = const int It seems that for forward to handle rvalues (without calling for explicit template arguments) there needs to be an forward(const T&) overload, even though it's body would be an exact duplicate. Is there any way to avoid this duplication?

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  • Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

    - by Tom Castle
    Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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  • Codeigniter - change url at method call

    - by NemoPS
    I was wondering if the following can be done in codeigniter. Let's assume I have a file, called Post.php, used to manage posts in an admin interface. It has several methods, such as index (lists all posts), add, update, delete... Now, I access the add method, so that the url becomes /posts/add And I add some data. I click "save" to add the new post. It calls the same method with an if statement like "if "this-input-post('addnew')"" is passed, call the model, add it to the database Here follows the problem: If everything worked fine, it goes to the index with the list of all posts, and displays a confirmation BUT No the url would still be posts/add, since I called the function like $this-index() after verifying data was added. I cannot redirect it to "posts/" since in that case no confirmation message would be shown! So my question is: can i call a method from anther one in the same class, and have the url set to that method (/posts/index instead of /posts/add)? It's kinda confusing, but i hope i gave you enough info to spot the problem Cheers!

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  • Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

    - by Andree
    Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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  • How to detect .NET WPF memory leak or GC long run?

    - by Néstor Sánchez A.
    I have the next very strange situation and problem: .NET 4.0 application for diagram editing (WPF). Runs ok in my PC: 8GM RAM, 3.0GHz, i7 quad-core. While creating objects (mostly diagram nodes and connectors, plus all the undo/redo information) the TaskManager show, as expected, some memory usage "jumps" (up and down). These mem-usage "jumps" also remains executing AFTER user interaction ended. Maybe this is the GC cleaning/regorganizing memory? To see what is going on, I've used the Ants mem profiler, but somewhat it prevents those "jumps" to happen after user interaction. PROBLEM: It Freezes/Hangs after seconds or minutes of usage in some slow/weak laptos/netbooks of my beta testers (under 2GHz of speed and under 2GB of RAM). I was thinking of a memory leak, but... EDIT: Also, there is the case that the memory usage grows and grows until collapse (only in slow machines). In a Windows XP Mode machine (VM in Win 7) with only 512MB of RAM Assigned it works fine without mem-usage "jumps" after user interaction (no GC cleaning?!). So, I really have a big trouble because I cannot reproduce the error, only see these strange behaviour (mem jumps), and the tool supposed to show me what is happening is hiding the problem (like the "observer's paradox"). Any ideas on what's happening and how to solve it?

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  • MS SQL - Multi-Column substring matching

    - by hamlin11
    One of my clients is hooked on multi-column substring matching. I understand that Contains and FreeText search for words (and at least in the case of Contains, word prefixes). However, based upon my understanding of this MSDN book, neither of these nor their variants are capable of searching substrings. I have used LIKE rather extensively (Select * from A where A.B Like '%substr%') Sample table A: ID | Col1 | Col2 | Col3 | ------------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma | colorado | Utah | 2 | arkansas | colorado | oklahoma | 3 | florida | michigan | florida | ------------------------------------- The following code will give us row 1 and row 2: select * from A where Col1 like '%klah%' or Col2 like '%klah%' or Col3 like '%klah%' This is rather ugly, probably slow, and I just don't like it very much. Probably because the implementations that I'm dealing with have 10+ columns that need searched. The following may be a slight improvement as code readability goes, but as far as performance, we're still in the same ball park. select * from A where (Col1 + ' ' + Col2 + ' ' + Col3) like '%klah%' I have thought about simply adding insert, update, and delete triggers that simply add the concatenated version of the above columns into a separate table that shadows this table. Sample Shadow_Table: ID | searchtext | --------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma colorado Utah | 2 | arkansas colorado oklahoma | 3 | florida michigan florida | --------------------------------- This would allow us to perform the following query to search for '%klah%' select * from Shadow_Table where searchtext like '%klah%' I really don't like having to remember that this shadow table exists and that I'm supposed to use it when I am performing multi-column substring matching, but it probably yields pretty quick reads at the expense of write and storage space. My gut feeling tells me there there is an existing solution built into SQL Server 2008. However, I don't seem to be able to find anything other than research papers on the subject. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Create JTable in a JPanel and add row

    - by DK64
    On my program I've dinamically created a JFrame that contains a JPanel called jp. jp also contains a JTable that I would like to fill with some rows. case KeyEvent.VK_R: JFrame frame = new JFrame("Snake v2.0 - Rankings"); JPanel jp = new JPanel(); jp.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(300,300)); JTable table = new JTable(); JScrollPane tableContainer = new JScrollPane(table); jp.add(tableContainer, BorderLayout.CENTER); DefaultTableModel tm = (DefaultTableModel) table.getModel(); tm.addRow(new Object[] {"#","Player","Score","Date"}); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.HIDE_ON_CLOSE); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setResizable(false); frame.getContentPane().add(jp); frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); break; This is my code. When I press R on the keyboard, the JFrame with that JPanel inside appears but the table doesnt (picture). What could I do?

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  • cocoa/c++ relative path to load resources

    - by moka
    Hi, I am currently working directly with cocoa for the first time, to built a screen saver. Now I came across a problem when trying to load resources from within the .saver bundle. I basically have a small c++ wrapper class to load .exr files using freeImage. That works as long as I use absoulte paths, but thats not very useful, is it? So basically I tried everything, putting the .exr file on the level of the .saver bundle itself, inside the bundles Resources folder and so on. Then I simply tried to load the .exr like this without success particleTex = [self loadExrTexture: "ball.exr"]; I also tried making it go to the .saver bundles location like this: particleTex = [self loadExrTexture: "../../../ball.exr"]; to maybe load the .exr from that location but without success. I then came across this: NSString * path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"ball" ofType:@"exr"]; const char * pChar = [path UTF8String]; which seems to be a common way to find resources in cocoa, but for some reason its emty in my case. any ideas about that? I really tried out anything that came to my mind without success so I would be glad about some input!

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  • How can I get a iterable resultset from the database using pdo, instead of a large array?

    - by Tchalvak
    I'm using PDO inside a database abstraction library function query. I'm using fetchAll(), which if you have a lot of results, can get memory intensive, so I want to provide an argument to toggle between a fetchAll associative array and a pdo result set that can be iterated over with foreach and requires less memory (somehow). I remember hearing about this, and I searched the PDO docs, but I couldn't find any useful way to do that. Does anyone know how to get an iterable resultset back from PDO instead of just a flat array? And am I right that using an iterable resultset will be easier on memory? I'm using Postgresql, if it matters in this case. . . . The current query function is as follows, just for clarity. /** * Running bound queries on the database. * * Use: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>10)); * Or: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>array(10, PDO::PARAM_INT))); **/ function query($sql_query, $bindings=array()){ DatabaseConnection::getInstance(); $statement = DatabaseConnection::$pdo->prepare($sql_query); foreach($bindings as $binding => $value){ if(is_array($value)){ $statement->bindParam($binding, $value[0], $value[1]); } else { $statement->bindValue($binding, $value); } } $statement->execute(); // TODO: Return an iterable resultset here, and allow switching between array and iterable resultset. return $statement->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); }

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  • Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question

    - by songdogtech
    Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question I'm using the Javascript function below for Twitter sharing (as well as other services; the function code is simplified to just Twitter for this question) that grabs the to-be-shared page URL and title and it is invoked in the link with onclick. That results in the Twitter share page loading in a pop up browser window, i.e.<img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> In order to be consistent with other design aspects of the site, what I'd like to be able to do is have the Twitter share page open not in a standard browser window but in a Fancybox (jQuery) window. Fancybox can load an external page in an iFrame when the img or href link contains a class (in this case class="iframe" ) in the link and in the document ready function in the header. Right now, of course, when I give the iframe class to the link that also has the onclick share.tw(), I get two popups: one browser window popup with the correct Twitter share page loaded, and a Fancybox jQuery popup that shows a site 404. How can I change the function to use Fancybox to present the Twitter share page? Is that a correct way to approach it? Or is there a better way, such as implementing the share function in jQuery, too? Thanks... Javascript share function: var share = { tw:function(title,url) { this.share('http://twitter.com/home?status=##URL##+##TITLE##',title,url); }, share:function(tpl,title,url) { if(!url) url = encodeURIComponent(window.location); if(!title) title = encodeURIComponent(document.title); tpl = tpl.replace("##URL##",url); tpl = tpl.replace("##TITLE##",title); window.open(tpl,"sharewindow"+tpl.substr(6,15),"width=640,height=480"); } }; It is invoked, i.e.: <img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> Fancybox function, invoked by adding class="iframe" in the img or href link $(".iframe").fancybox({ 'width' : '100%', 'height' : '100%', 'autoScale' : false, 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'type' : 'iframe' });

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  • how to get large pictures from photo album via facebook graph api

    - by Nav
    I am currently using the following code to retrieve all the photos from a user profile FB.api('/me/albums?fields=id,name', function(response) { //console.log(response.data.length); for (var i = 0; i < response.data.length; i++) { var album = response.data[i]; FB.api('/' + album.id + '/photos', function(photos) { if (photos && photos.data && photos.data.length) { for (var j = 0; j < photos.data.length; j++) { var photo = photos.data[j]; // photo.picture contain the link to picture var image = document.createElement('img'); image.src = photo.picture; document.body.appendChild(image); image.className = "border"; image.onclick = function() { //this.parentNode.removeChild(this); document.getElementById(info.id).src = this.src; document.getElementById(info.id).style.width = "220px"; document.getElementById(info.id).style.height = "126px"; }; } } }); } }); but, the photos that it returns are of poor quality and are basically like thumbnails.How to retrieve larger photos from the albums. Generally for profile picture I use ?type=large which returns a decent profile image but the type=large is not working in the case of photos from photo albums and also is there a way to get the photos in zip format from facebook once I specify the photo url as I want users to be able to download the photos.

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  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

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  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • using 'or' operator not working for menu

    - by John Wilkes
    In my code here, I have a CSS class called "active" which I use if the $_GET['page'] == tutorials, php, mysql, etc... The problem is, even if the 'page' variable is not equal to any of these values, the Tutorials button in this case is still active for some reason. Any ideas why this would be happening? Am I using the 'or' (||) operand incorrectly? <?php if($_GET['page'] == 'tutorials' || 'php' || 'mysql' || 'html' || 'css' || 'js') { ?> <li class="active"> <?php } else { ?> <li> <?php } ?> <a href="index.php?page=tutorials">Tutorials</a> <ul> <li><a href="index.php?page=php">PHP</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=mysql">MySQL</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=html">HTML</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=css">CSS</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=js">JS</a></li> </ul> </li>

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  • template files evaluation in python

    - by saminny
    I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using something like this: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() % myhash where myhash is hash of configuration parameters from the main config file which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

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  • Where in the standard is forwarding to a base class required in these situations?

    - by pgast
    Maybe even better is: Why does the standard require forwarding to a base class in these situations? (yeah yeah yeah - Why? - Because.) class B1 { public: virtual void f()=0; }; class B2 { public: virtual void f(){} }; class D : public B1,public B2{ }; class D2 : public B1,public B2{ public: using B2::f; }; class D3 : public B1,public B2{ public: void f(){ B2::f(); } }; D d; D2 d2; D3 d3; EDG gives: sourceFile.cpp sourceFile.cpp(24) : error C2259: 'D' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'void B1::f(void)' : is abstract sourceFile.cpp(6) : see declaration of 'B1::f' sourceFile.cpp(25) : error C2259: 'D2' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'void B1::f(void)' : is abstract sourceFile.cpp(6) : see declaration of 'B and similarly for the MS compiler. I might buy the first case,D. But in D2 - f is unambiguously defined by the using declaration, why is that not enough for the compiler to be required to fill out the vtable? Where in the standard is this situation defined?

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