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  • IE ignores added onclick attribute

    - by user357034
    The Jquery code below works ok with firefox, Safari, Opera but not with IE. I kinda know why this isn't working in IE after reading a lot about it but I do not know how to fix it. My understanding (I think) is that this method will assign a attribute of "onclick" in IE rather than an event method. Therefore it will not fire in IE and the href fires instead which in this case is "#" which is exactly what is happening. What is the correct way of adding the onclick event. <a id="product_photo_zoom_url" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"><img id="product_photo" src="/v/vspfiles/photos/9857-116-003-2T.jpg" border="0" alt="9857-116-003 Ignition box" /></a> <br /><a id="product_photo_zoom_url2" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"> <img src="/v/vspfiles/templates/100/images/buttons/btn_largerphoto.gif" border="0"></a> var global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode; var global_Config_ProductPhotosFolder; var global_Current_ProductCode; var titleattr = $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr("title"); var picurl='tb_show(titleattr, \'/PhotoDetails.asp?ShowDESC=N&ProductCode=\' + global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode + \'&TB_iframe=true&height=600&width=520\');return false;' $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('href', '#'); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('href', '#');

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  • JavaScript - Efficiently find all elements containing one of a large set of strings

    - by noah
    I have a set of strings and I need to find all all of the occurrences in an HTML document. Where the string occurs is important because I need to handle each case differently: String is all or part of an attribute. e.g., the string is foo: <input value="foo"> - Add class ATTR to the element. String is the full text of an element. e.g., <button>foo</button> - Add class TEXT to the element. String is inline in the text of an element. e.g., <p>I love foo</p> - Wrap the text in a span tag with class TEXT. Also, I need to match the longest string first. e.g., if I have foo and foobar, then <p>I love foobar</p> should become <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foobar</span></p>, not <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foo</span>bar</p>. The inline text is easy enough: Sort the strings descending by length and find and replace each in document.body.innerHTML with <span class="TEXT">$1</span>, although I'm not sure if that is the most efficient way to go. For the attributes, I can do something like this: sortedStrings.each(function(it) { document.body.innerHTML.replace(new RegExp('(\S+?)="[^"]*'+escapeRegExChars(it)+'[^"]*"','g'),function(s,attr) { $('[+attr+'*='+it+']').addClass('ATTR'); }); }); Again, that seems inefficient. Lastly, for the full text elements, a depth first search of the document that compares the innerHTML to each string will work, but for a large number of strings, it seems very inefficient. Any answer that offers performance improvements gets an upvote :)

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  • Problem with mouse event on a user control (wpf).

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a user control, defined as follows. <UserControl x:Class="IDOView.AnimatedCharacter" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:IDOView" mc:Ignorable="d" Background="Transparent" > <Image Name="displayImage" Height="Auto" Width="Auto" Stretch="Fill" IsHitTestVisible="True"/> The control is added to a main page twice, as follows. <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="circle.png" Canvas.Left="-279" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA1"> <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="square.png" Canvas.Left="-209" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA2"> Essentially, about half of the circle is behind the square. I need the square image in this case to pass through events to the circle behind it. The square has an element cut out of it (transparent). What is happening now is that the circle event only registers if I click on the region that is not covered by the square. Surely there has to be a way to bubble this event, or click-through?

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  • Evaluating expressions using Visual Studio 2005 SDK rather than automation's Debugger::GetExpression

    - by brone
    I'm looking into writing an addin (or package, if necessary) for Visual Studio 2005 that needs watch window type functionality -- evaluation of expressions and examination of the types. The automation facilities provide Debugger::GetExpression, which is useful enough, but the information provided is a bit crude. From looking through the docs, it sounds like an IDebugExpressionContext2 would be more useful. With one of these it looks as if I can get more information from an expression -- detailed information about the type and any members and so on and so forth, without having everything come through as strings. I can't find any way of actually getting a IDebugExpressionContext2, though! IDebugProgramProvider2 sort of looks relevant, in that I could start with IDebugProgramProvider2::GetProviderProcessData and then slowly drill down until reaching something that can supply my expression context -- but I'll need to supply a port to this, and it's not clear how to retrieve the port corresponding to the current debug session. (Even if I tried every port, it's not obvious how to tell which port is the right one...) I'm becoming suspicious that this simply isn't a supported use case, but with any luck I've simply missed something crashingly obvious. Can anybody help?

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  • Where in the standard is forwarding to a base class required in these situations?

    - by pgast
    Maybe even better is: Why does the standard require forwarding to a base class in these situations? (yeah yeah yeah - Why? - Because.) class B1 { public: virtual void f()=0; }; class B2 { public: virtual void f(){} }; class D : public B1,public B2{ }; class D2 : public B1,public B2{ public: using B2::f; }; class D3 : public B1,public B2{ public: void f(){ B2::f(); } }; D d; D2 d2; D3 d3; EDG gives: sourceFile.cpp sourceFile.cpp(24) : error C2259: 'D' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'void B1::f(void)' : is abstract sourceFile.cpp(6) : see declaration of 'B1::f' sourceFile.cpp(25) : error C2259: 'D2' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'void B1::f(void)' : is abstract sourceFile.cpp(6) : see declaration of 'B and similarly for the MS compiler. I might buy the first case,D. But in D2 - f is unambiguously defined by the using declaration, why is that not enough for the compiler to be required to fill out the vtable? Where in the standard is this situation defined?

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  • Select return dynamic columns

    - by Ascalonian
    I have two tables: Standards and Service Offerings. A Standard can have multiple Service Offerings. Each Standard can have a different number of Service Offerings associated to it. What I need to be able to do is write a view that will return some common data and then list the service offerings on one line. For example: Standard Id | Description | SO #1 | SO #2 | SO #3 | ... | SO #21 | SO Count 1 | One | A | B | C | ... | G | 21 2 | Two | A | | | ... | | 1 3 | Three | B | D | E | ... | | 3 I have no idea how to write this. The number of SO columns is set to a specific number (21 in this case), so we cannot exceed past that. Any ideas on how to approach this? A place I started is below. It just returned multiple rows for each Service Offering, when they need to be on one row. SELECT * FROM SERVICE_OFFERINGS WHERE STANDARD_KEY IN (SELECT STANDARD_KEY FROM STANDARDS)

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  • Reference a GNU C DLL built in GCC against Cygwin, from C#/NET

    - by Dale Halliwell
    Here is what I want: I have a huge legacy C/C++ codebase written for POSIX, including some very POSIX specific stuff like pthreads. This can be compiled on Cygwin/GCC and run as an executable under Windows with the Cygwin DLL. What I would like to do is build the codebase itself into a Windows DLL that I can then reference from C# and write a wrapper around it to access some parts of it programatically. I have tried this approach with the very simple "hello world" example at http://www.cygwin.com/cygwin-ug-net/dll.html and it doesn't seem to work. #include <stdio.h> extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int hello(); int hello() { printf ("Hello World!\n"); return 42; } I believe I should be able to reference a DLL built with the above code in C# using something like: [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr LoadLibrary(string dllToLoad); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr GetProcAddress(IntPtr hModule, string procedureName); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern bool FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private delegate int hello(); static void Main(string[] args) { var path = Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "helloworld.dll"); IntPtr pDll = LoadLibrary(path); IntPtr pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll, "hello"); hello hello = (hello)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer( pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(hello)); int theResult = hello(); Console.WriteLine(theResult.ToString()); bool result = FreeLibrary(pDll); Console.ReadKey(); } But this approach doesn't seem to work. LoadLibrary returns null. It can find the DLL (helloworld.dll), it is just like it can't load it or find the exported function. I am sure that if I get this basic case working I can reference the rest of my codebase in this way. Any suggestions or pointers, or does anyone know if what I want is even possible? Thanks.

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  • c++ floating point precision loss: 3015/0.00025298219406977296

    - by SigTerm
    The problem. Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 compiler, 32bit windows xp sp3, amd 64 x2 cpu. Code: double a = 3015.0; double b = 0.00025298219406977296; //*((unsigned __int64*)(&a)) == 0x40a78e0000000000 //*((unsigned __int64*)(&b)) == 0x3f30945640000000 double f = a/b;//3015/0.00025298219406977296; the result of calculation (i.e. "f") is 11917835.000000000 (*((unsigned __int64*)(&f)) == 0x4166bb4160000000) although it should be 11917834.814763514 (i.e. *((unsigned __int64*)(&f)) == 0x4166bb415a128aef). I.e. fractional part is lost. Unfortunately, I need fractional part to be correct. Questions: 1) Why does this happen? 2) How can I fix the problem? Additional info: 0) The result is taken directly from "watch" window (it wasn't printed, and I didn't forget to set printing precision). I also provided hex dump of floating point variable, so I'm absolutely sure about calculation result. 1) The disassembly of f = a/b is: fld qword ptr [a] fdiv qword ptr [b] fstp qword ptr [f] 2) f = 3015/0.00025298219406977296; yields correct result (f == 11917834.814763514 , *((unsigned __int64*)(&f)) == 0x4166bb415a128aef ), but it looks like in this case result is simply calculated during compile-time: fld qword ptr [__real@4166bb415a128aef (828EA0h)] fstp qword ptr [f] So, how can I fix this problem? P.S. I've found a temporary workaround (i need only fractional part of division, so I simply use f = fmod(a/b)/b at the moment), but I still would like to know how to fix this problem properly - double precision is supposed to be 16 decimal digits, so such calculation isn't supposed to cause problems.

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  • Codeigniter/mySQL question. Checking if several inserts are possible before actual insertion.

    - by Ethan
    Hey SO, So I'm trying to perform a couple inserts at once that are kind of co-dependent on each other. Let's say I'm doing a dog rating website. Anyone can add a dog to my database, but in doing so they also need to add a preliminary rating of the dog. Other people can then rate the dog afterwards. The dogs to ratings is a many to one relationship: a dog has many ratings. This means for my preliminary add, since I have the person both rate and add the dog, I need to take the rating, and set a foreign key to the dog's primary key. As far as I know, this means I have to actually add the dog, then check what that new addition's primary key is, and then put that in my rating before insertion. Now suppose something were to go wrong with the rating's insert, be it a string that's too long, or something that I've overlooked somehow. If the rating's failed, the dog has already been inserted, but the rating has not. In this case, I'd like the dog to not have been added in the first place. Does this mean I have to write code that says "if the rating fails, do a remove for the dog," or is there a way to predict what the key will be for the dog should everything go as planned. Is there a way to say "hold that spot," and then if everything works, add it? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

    - by kpowz
    I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

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  • Putting all methods in class definition

    - by Amnon
    When I use the pimpl idiom, is it a good idea to put all the methods definitions inside the class definition? For example: // in A.h class A { class impl; boost::scoped_ptr<impl> pimpl; public: A(); int foo(); } // in A.cpp class A::impl { // method defined in class int foo() { return 42; } // as opposed to only declaring the method, and defining elsewhere: float bar(); }; A::A() : pimpl(new impl) { } int A::foo() { return pimpl->foo(); } As far as I know, the only problems with putting a method definition inside a class definition is that (1) the implementation is visible in files that include the class definition, and (2) the compiler may make the method inline. These are not problems in this case since the class is defined in a private file, and inlining has no effect since the methods are called in only one place. The advantage of putting the definition inside the class is that you don't have to repeat the method signature. So, is this OK? Are there any other issues to be aware of?

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  • jQuery: bind generated elements

    - by superUntitled
    Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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  • Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question

    - by songdogtech
    Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question I'm using the Javascript function below for Twitter sharing (as well as other services; the function code is simplified to just Twitter for this question) that grabs the to-be-shared page URL and title and it is invoked in the link with onclick. That results in the Twitter share page loading in a pop up browser window, i.e.<img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> In order to be consistent with other design aspects of the site, what I'd like to be able to do is have the Twitter share page open not in a standard browser window but in a Fancybox (jQuery) window. Fancybox can load an external page in an iFrame when the img or href link contains a class (in this case class="iframe" ) in the link and in the document ready function in the header. Right now, of course, when I give the iframe class to the link that also has the onclick share.tw(), I get two popups: one browser window popup with the correct Twitter share page loaded, and a Fancybox jQuery popup that shows a site 404. How can I change the function to use Fancybox to present the Twitter share page? Is that a correct way to approach it? Or is there a better way, such as implementing the share function in jQuery, too? Thanks... Javascript share function: var share = { tw:function(title,url) { this.share('http://twitter.com/home?status=##URL##+##TITLE##',title,url); }, share:function(tpl,title,url) { if(!url) url = encodeURIComponent(window.location); if(!title) title = encodeURIComponent(document.title); tpl = tpl.replace("##URL##",url); tpl = tpl.replace("##TITLE##",title); window.open(tpl,"sharewindow"+tpl.substr(6,15),"width=640,height=480"); } }; It is invoked, i.e.: <img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> Fancybox function, invoked by adding class="iframe" in the img or href link $(".iframe").fancybox({ 'width' : '100%', 'height' : '100%', 'autoScale' : false, 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'type' : 'iframe' });

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  • How can I get a iterable resultset from the database using pdo, instead of a large array?

    - by Tchalvak
    I'm using PDO inside a database abstraction library function query. I'm using fetchAll(), which if you have a lot of results, can get memory intensive, so I want to provide an argument to toggle between a fetchAll associative array and a pdo result set that can be iterated over with foreach and requires less memory (somehow). I remember hearing about this, and I searched the PDO docs, but I couldn't find any useful way to do that. Does anyone know how to get an iterable resultset back from PDO instead of just a flat array? And am I right that using an iterable resultset will be easier on memory? I'm using Postgresql, if it matters in this case. . . . The current query function is as follows, just for clarity. /** * Running bound queries on the database. * * Use: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>10)); * Or: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>array(10, PDO::PARAM_INT))); **/ function query($sql_query, $bindings=array()){ DatabaseConnection::getInstance(); $statement = DatabaseConnection::$pdo->prepare($sql_query); foreach($bindings as $binding => $value){ if(is_array($value)){ $statement->bindParam($binding, $value[0], $value[1]); } else { $statement->bindValue($binding, $value); } } $statement->execute(); // TODO: Return an iterable resultset here, and allow switching between array and iterable resultset. return $statement->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); }

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  • How to make NSIS create a file in an %APPDATA% of another user?

    - by SCO
    I wrote an NSIS installer script for postgresql 9.1. The installer works properly, but after the reboot, the service is not started (right after the install, the database started properly though) I guess this is because the postgres service user has no pgpass.conf file in its %APPDATA%. As far as I understand my install script, the pgpass.conf file is added to the %APPDATA% of the user running the installer (an administrator account in my case). This will not help. I tried the following, to add the pgpass.conf to all users, bt I guess this adds it to a kind of wildcard, not to the %APPDATA% of each user : SetShellVarContext "all" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf SetShellVarContext "current" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf I couldn't find the macro name for c:/Users/postgres in the documentation. This could be a way to achieve it. But with WindowsXP, 7, I wish I need a portable way to address the /Users directory. I wish I could use something like SetShellVarContext "postgres", and then have NSIS write the pgpass.conf file in c:\Users\postgres\AppData\postgresql. Is there a way to do this ? Thnk you !

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  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

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  • Is there really such a thing as "being good at math"?

    - by thezhaba
    Aside from gifted individuals able to perform complex calculations in their head, I'm wondering if proficiency in mathematics, namely calculus and algebra, has really got to do with one's natural inclination towards sciences, if you can put it that way. A number of students in my calculus course pick up material in seemingly no time whereas I, personally, have to spend time thinking about and understanding most concepts. Even then, if a question that requires a bit more 'imagination' comes up I don't always recognize the concepts behind it, as is the case with calculus proofs, for instance. Nevertheless, I refuse to believe that I'm simply not made for it. I do very well in programming and software engineering courses where a lot of students struggle. At first I could not grasp what they found to be so difficult, but eventually I realized that having previous programming experience is a great asset -- once I've seen and made practical use of the programming concepts learning about them in depth in an academic setting became much easier as I have then already seen their use "in the wild". I suppose I'm hoping that something similar happens with mathematics -- perhaps once the practical idea behind a concept (which authors of textbooks sure do a great job of concealing..) is evident, understanding the seemingly dry and symbolic ideas and proofs would be more obvious? I'm really not sure. All I'm sure of is I'd like to get better at calculus, but I don't yet understand why some of us pick it up easily while others have to spend considerable amounts of time on it and still not have complete understanding if an unusual problem is given.

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  • Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

    - by mafutrct
    I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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  • Rand(); with exclusion to and already randomly generated number..?

    - by Stefan
    Hey, I have a function which calls a users associated users from a table. The function then uses the rand(); function to chose from the array 5 randomly selected userID's however!... In the case where a user doesnt have many associated users but above the min (if below the 5 it just returns the array as it is) then it gives bad results due to repeat rand numbers... How can overcome this or exclude a previously selected rand number from the next rand(); function call. Here is the section of code doing the work. Bare in mind this must be highly efficient as this script is used everywhere. $size = sizeof($users)-1; $nusers[0] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[1] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[2] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[3] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[4] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; return $nusers; Thanks in advance! Stefan

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  • Convincing why testing is good

    - by FireAphis
    Hello, In my team of real-time-embedded C/C++ developers, most people don't have any culture of testing their code beyond the casual manual sanity checks. I personally strongly believe in advantages of autonomous automatic tests, but when I try to convince I get some reappearing arguments like: We will spend more time on writing the tests than writing the code. It takes a lot of effort to maintain the tests. Our code is spaghetti; no way we can unit-test it. Our requirement are not sealed – we’ll have to rewrite all the tests every time the requirements are changed. Now, I'd gladly hear any convincing tips and advises, but what I am really looking for are references to researches, articles, books or serious surveys that show (preferably in numbers) how testing is worth the effort. Something like "We in IBM/Microsoft/Google, surveying 3475 active projects, found out that putting 50% more development time into testing decreased by 75% the time spent on fixing bugs" or "after half a year, the time needed to write code with test was only marginally longer than what used to take without tests". Any ideas? P.S.: I'm adding C++ tag too in case someone has a specific experience with convincing this, usually elitist, type of developers :-)

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  • Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

    - by Laird Nelson
    I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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  • How to read a parameter passed to a facelet from a backing bean

    - by Antonio
    Hi, I've written a facelet, and a corresponding backing bean, that implements user management (addition, deletion and so on). I'd want to be able to perform some custom processing when, for instance, a new user is added. There is a "create" button in the facelet, whose click event is handled by its backing bean. At the end of the event handler, I'd want to be able to call a method of another backing bean, which is not known because ideally the facelet can be used in several pages, with different custom processing. I thought to implement this feature by providing to the facelet a backing bean name and a method name, like this: <myfacelet:subaccounts backingBean="myBackingBean" createListener="createListener" /> and at the end of the event handler call #{myBackingBean.createListener} someway. I'm using this method (along with some overloads) to obtain a MethodExpression: protected MethodExpression getMethodExpression(String beanName, String methodName, Class<?> expectedReturnType, Class<?>[] expectedParamTypes) { ExpressionFactory expressionFactory; MethodExpression method; ELContext elContext; String el; el = String.format("#{%s['%s']}", beanName, methodName); expressionFactory = getApplication().getExpressionFactory(); elContext = getFacesContext().getELContext(); method = expressionFactory.createMethodExpression(elContext, el, expectedReturnType, expectedParamTypes); return method; } and the click event handler should look like: public void saveSubaccountListener(ActionEvent event) { MethodExpression method; ... method = getMethodExpression( "backingBean", "createSubaccountListener", SubuserBean.class); if (method != null) method.invoke( getFacesContext().getELContext(), new Object[] { _editedSubuser }); } That works fine as long as I provide an existing bean name (myBackingBean), but if I use backingBean the invoke() doesn't work due to the following error: javax.el.PropertyNotFoundException: Target Unreachable, identifier 'backingBean' resolved to null Is there a way I can retrieve from the facelet backing bean the value of a parameter that has been passed to the facelet? In my case, the value of backingBean, which should be myBackingBean? I've searched for and tried different solutions, but with no luck yet.

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  • Glassfish 3: How do I get and use a developers build so I can navigate a stack trace including Glas

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I am migrating a JSF 1.1 application to JEE 6 Web profile, and doing it in steps. I am in the process of moving from JSP with JSF 1.1 to Facelets under JSF 1.2 using the jsf-facelets.jar for JSF 1.2, and received an "interesting" stack trace when trying to lookup a key in a Map using a "{Bean.foo.map.key}" where the stacktrace complained about "key" not being a valid integer. (After code introspection I am workarounding it using a number as the key). That bug is not what this question is about. In such a situation it is essential to be able to navigate the source of every line in the stack trace. In Eclipse I normally attach a source jar to every jar on the build path, but in this particular case the Glassfish server adapter creates a library automatically containing the jars. Also there is to my knowledge no debug build of Glassfish where sources are included in the bundle. Glassfish is a non-trivial Maven project, and a bit picky too. I am not very familiar with maven, but have managed to checkout the code from Subversion and build it for the 3.0 tag according to http://wiki.glassfish.java.net/Wiki.jsp?page=V3FullBuildInstructions#section-V3FullBuildInstructions-CheckoutTheWorkspace - it appears to be the code corresponding to the official released 3.0 version. After finishing the "mvn -U install" part, I have then tried to create Eclipse projects by first using "mvn -DdownloadSources=true eclipse:eclipse" and then import them in Eclipse JEE 3.5.2 and specifying the M2_REPO variable but many of the projects still have compilation errors, and I cannot locate any instructions from Oracle about how to do this. I'd appreciate some help in just getting a functional IDE workspace reflecting the 3.0 version of Glassfish. I have Eclipse 3.5.2, Netbeans 6.8 and 6.9 beta, and IntelliJ IDEA 9, and Linux/Windows/OS X do do it on.

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  • Restrict allowed file upload types PHP

    - by clang1234
    Right now I have a function which takes my uploaded file, checks the extension, and if it matches an array of valid extensions it's processed. It's a contact list importer. What I need to figure out is how to be sure that file (in this case a .csv) is actually what it says it is (ex. not an excel file that just got renamed as a .csv). Our servers run PHP 5.2.13 Here's the current validation function I have public static function validateExtension($file_name,$ext_array) { $extension = strtolower(strrchr($file_name,".")); $valid_extension="FALSE"; if (!$file_name) { return false; } else { if (!$ext_array) { return true; } else { foreach ($ext_array as $value) { $first_char = substr($value,0,1); if ($first_char <> ".") { $extensions[] = ".".strtolower($value); } else { $extensions[] = strtolower($value); } } foreach ($extensions as $value) { if ($value == $extension) { $valid_extension = "TRUE"; } } if ($valid_extension==="TRUE") { return true; } else { return false; } } } }

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