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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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  • How can I get a iterable resultset from the database using pdo, instead of a large array?

    - by Tchalvak
    I'm using PDO inside a database abstraction library function query. I'm using fetchAll(), which if you have a lot of results, can get memory intensive, so I want to provide an argument to toggle between a fetchAll associative array and a pdo result set that can be iterated over with foreach and requires less memory (somehow). I remember hearing about this, and I searched the PDO docs, but I couldn't find any useful way to do that. Does anyone know how to get an iterable resultset back from PDO instead of just a flat array? And am I right that using an iterable resultset will be easier on memory? I'm using Postgresql, if it matters in this case. . . . The current query function is as follows, just for clarity. /** * Running bound queries on the database. * * Use: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>10)); * Or: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>array(10, PDO::PARAM_INT))); **/ function query($sql_query, $bindings=array()){ DatabaseConnection::getInstance(); $statement = DatabaseConnection::$pdo->prepare($sql_query); foreach($bindings as $binding => $value){ if(is_array($value)){ $statement->bindParam($binding, $value[0], $value[1]); } else { $statement->bindValue($binding, $value); } } $statement->execute(); // TODO: Return an iterable resultset here, and allow switching between array and iterable resultset. return $statement->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); }

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  • need help with mvc & routes

    - by geoff
    I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

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  • Rand(); with exclusion to and already randomly generated number..?

    - by Stefan
    Hey, I have a function which calls a users associated users from a table. The function then uses the rand(); function to chose from the array 5 randomly selected userID's however!... In the case where a user doesnt have many associated users but above the min (if below the 5 it just returns the array as it is) then it gives bad results due to repeat rand numbers... How can overcome this or exclude a previously selected rand number from the next rand(); function call. Here is the section of code doing the work. Bare in mind this must be highly efficient as this script is used everywhere. $size = sizeof($users)-1; $nusers[0] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[1] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[2] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[3] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[4] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; return $nusers; Thanks in advance! Stefan

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  • Find element all of whose children have a given value

    - by cru3l
    for example, i have this xml <elements> <a> <b>6</b> <b>5</b> <b>6</b> </a> <a> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> <b>6</b> </a> <a> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> </a> </elements> i need a xpath query, which must return me parent tag, only if all its children are equal to 5 (a[3] in this case). Something like that //b[text()="5"]/.. but with check of all children's tags. Please note that number of children tags can be different from node to node. It's possible with only xpath query? thanks

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  • PHP MySQLi isn't letting me alter a table (adding a new column)

    - by asdasd
    Well thats pretty much it. This is my query: $query = 'ALTER TABLE permissions ADD '.$name.' INT NOT NULL DEFAULT \'0\''; Where $name is already checked to exist with only lower case alpha letters, and not more than 20 length. Im just starting this out with very simple names. The next 4 lines of code after that one are: if($stmt = $db -> prepare($query)) { $success = $stmt -> execute(); $stmt -> close(); if(!$success) echo 'ERROR: Unsuccessful query: ',$db->error,PHP_EOL; } And I get back, every time ERROR: Unsuccessful query: And no error message. Is there a way to get more error messages so I can see what is failing? I can add new columns through phpmyadmin, but that really doesnt help me at all. The $db is fine, i do lots of stuff before and after this one section. It is only adding new column to the table that fails. side question: prepare() rejected my query every time when i tried to make those 2 variables, the $name and the 0 value as ? ? prepared statement values. Thats why they are in the real query and not bound later. If i could change that too I would like that.

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  • JSP Iterating over a map of a list when the value might be null

    - by Brian Hoover
    How do I clear the value from the stack of a s:iterator? I'm trying to iterator over a TreeMultimap with a structure like: TreeMultimap<person, lineItems> persons; Using something like: <s:iterator value="attendeesForParticipantTypeEvents.asMap()"> <div> <s:property value="key.name" /><br /> <s:iterator id="currentSku" value="value"> <s:property value="currentSku.name" /><br /> </s:iterator> </div> </s:iterator> This works fine, except when the treeMultimap has null for lineItems, then it's taking the value from the previous iteration. So, a structure like: persons = {{"Person1",["Line1","line2"]}, {"Person2",["Line3","line4"]}, {"Person2",null}} Renders as: <div> Person1<br /> Line1<br /> Line2<br /> </div> <div> Person2<br /> Line3<br /> Line4<br /> </div> <div> Person3<br /> Line3<br /> Line4<br /> </div> Which seems to indicate that the value isn't being cleared on each iterator. What do I need to do to handle the case where value might be null? Thanks for your help

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  • Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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  • Fancy Box to Popup an HTML Page from One List Item in an Unordered List

    - by nicorellius
    I have an unordered list: <ul> <li><a id="fancy_popup" href="popup.html" class="fancybox"> Popup HTML Link</a></li> <li><a href="other.html">Other HTML Link</a></li> <li><a href="other.html">Other HTML Link</a></li> </ul> And I have a jQuery script: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#fancy_popup").fancybox({ transitionIn : 'elastic', transitionOut : 'elastic', easingIn : 'easeInSine', easingOut : 'easeOutSine', speedIn : 400, speedOut : 200, titlePosition : 'inside', titleFormat : 'document.write("Fancy Box Title");', cyclic : true }); }); </script> This jQuery Fancy Box script works elsewhere, with a div that has the id="fancy_popup" so I thought why not add it to the anchor directly in this case... I'm trying to figure out how to apply Fancy Box so that when someone clicks the Popup HTML link above, a Fancy Box window pops up, according to the script. I've tried variations with placing the id on the li, on the ul and manipulating the script for these selectors to no avail. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Jquery hide is not working in my Dialog box close span

    - by kumar
    $('.ui-dialog-titlebar-close ui-corner-all').hide(); this is the hide for my Jquery dialog close 'X' span.. this is not working in my case. I am trying to hide that Close becuase its not showing me in my dialog when I resize my dialog then its showing me.. some reason my CSS not showing me that Close button correctly on my POPUP. Can any body help me out. here is my code and CSS. $("#window").dialog({ resizable: true, height: 180, title: titles, width: 500, modal: true, open: function () { $('.ui-widget-overlay').show(); $('.ui-dialog-titlebar-close ui-corner-all').hide(); }, buttons: { "OK": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); if (redirectURL) { window.location = redirectURL; } } } }); here is my CSS. <style> .ui-widget-overlay { background: black; opacity: 0.5; filter: alpha(opacity = 50); position: absolute; top: 0; left: 10; } </style> Can any body tell me how to show My Close 'X' correctly on my dialog or I need to hide that Close 'X' thanks

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  • Evaluating expressions using Visual Studio 2005 SDK rather than automation's Debugger::GetExpression

    - by brone
    I'm looking into writing an addin (or package, if necessary) for Visual Studio 2005 that needs watch window type functionality -- evaluation of expressions and examination of the types. The automation facilities provide Debugger::GetExpression, which is useful enough, but the information provided is a bit crude. From looking through the docs, it sounds like an IDebugExpressionContext2 would be more useful. With one of these it looks as if I can get more information from an expression -- detailed information about the type and any members and so on and so forth, without having everything come through as strings. I can't find any way of actually getting a IDebugExpressionContext2, though! IDebugProgramProvider2 sort of looks relevant, in that I could start with IDebugProgramProvider2::GetProviderProcessData and then slowly drill down until reaching something that can supply my expression context -- but I'll need to supply a port to this, and it's not clear how to retrieve the port corresponding to the current debug session. (Even if I tried every port, it's not obvious how to tell which port is the right one...) I'm becoming suspicious that this simply isn't a supported use case, but with any luck I've simply missed something crashingly obvious. Can anybody help?

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  • How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

    - by chobo
    I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

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  • Safari and Chrome back button changes hidden and submit values in forms

    - by OverClocked
    The following problem happens on both Safari and Chrome, so probably a WebKit issue. Page A: a page that requires you to login to see, contains a form that has a type=submit button, with name=submit, and value=a Page B: some other page Page C: ask user to login page, contains a form with a type=submit button, with name=submit and value=c User visits page A, then page B. Then idles and the user's login session times out. User hits back button to go back to page A. Browser redirects user to page C. On Safari and Chrome, when C is rendered, the form on page C has the type=submit button, name=submit, but value shows up as "a". If you reload while on page C, "c" appears as the value of the name=submit button. The same problem appears with type=hidden input fields; when user hits back button, their values are also changed to some other value from some other form. Also, this problem also shows up w/o the redirect, with just submit then back. In this case the previous page renders with incorrect values for hidden and submit CGI variables. So far the only fix I can come up with is use Javascript to reset the type=hidden and type=submit variable values, after page C loads, to make sure the values are correct. But that's not clean and universally applicable. Short of WebKit fixing this error, has anyone ran into a better workaround? Thanks.

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  • database connection OK,result not appear

    - by klox
    hi..all.for now i'm already connected to database but the result not appear at Tuner range is"+res+"this is my code: var str=data[0]; var matches=str.match(/[EE|EJU].*D/i); $.ajax({ type:"post", url:"process1.php", data:"tversion="+matches+"&action=tunermatches", cache:false, async:false, success: function(res){ $('#value').replacewith("<div id='value'><h6>Tuner range is"+res+".</h6></div>"); } }); }); and this is my process file: //connect to database $dbc=mysql_connect(_SRV,_ACCID,_PWD) or die(_ERROR15.": ".mysql_error()); $db=mysql_select_db("qdbase",$dbc) or die(_ERROR17.": ".mysql_error()); switch(postVar('action')) { case 'tunermatches' : tunermatches(postVar('tversion')); break; function tunermatches($tversion)){ $Tuner=mysql_real_escape_string($tversion); $sql= "SELECT remark FROM settingdata WHERE itemname='Tuner_range' AND itemdata='".$Tunermatches."'"; $res=mysql_query($sql) or die (_ERROR26.":".mysql_error()); $dat=mysql_fetch_array($res,MYSQL_NUM); if($dat[0]>0) { echo $dat[0]; } mysql_close($dbc); }

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  • How to handle array element between int and Integer

    - by masato-san
    First, it is long post so if you need clarification please let me know. I'm new to Java and having difficulty deciding whether I should use int[] or Integer[]. I wrote a function that find odd_number from int[] array. public int[] find_odd(int[] arr) { int[] result = new int[arr.length]; for(int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) { if(arr[i] % 2 != 0) { //System.out.println(arr[i]); result[i] = arr[i]; } } return result; } Then, when I pass the int[] array consisting of some integer like below: int[] myArray = {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3}; int[] result = find_odd(myArray); The array "result" contains: 0, -1, 0, 1, 0, 3 Because in Java you have to define the size of array first, and empty int[] array element is 0 not null. So when I want to test the find_odd() function and expect the array to have odd numbers (which it does) only, it throws the error because the array also includes 0s representing "empty cell" as shown above. My test code: public void testFindOddPassValidIntArray() { int[] arr = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 3}; int[] result = findOddObj.find_odd(arr); //check if return array only contain odd number for(int i=0; i<result.length; i++) { if(result[i] != null) { assert is_odd(result[i]) : result[i]; } } } So, my question is should I use int[] array and add check for 0 element in my test like: if(result[i] != 0) { assert is_odd(result[i] : result[i] } But in this case, if find_odd() function is broken and returning 0 by miscalculation, I can't catch it because my test code would only assume that 0 is empty cell. OR should I use Integer[] array whose default is null? How do people deal with this kind of situation?

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  • Sharing same properties of ViewController for iPhone Stroryboard and iPad Story Board

    - by Ruhul Amin
    I'm developing a universal application. in the first view, I have the login screen for the user. In iPhone storyBoard, I have added 2 text field and one button( login check). I have added properties in ViewController.h file by dragging those objects(Ctrl key + Dragg) to .h file. I have added code for login check and it is working fine for iPhone. This is the code in ViewController.h @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *txtUserId; @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *txtUserPwd; @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UIButton *btnLogin; In the iPad storyBoard, I have added 2 text field( userid and password) and i button for login. So now, I want to bind those objects with the veriable which I declared already in ViewController.h file in case of iPhone. My questions: 1. What is the right way to bind properties for both storyboard? 2. Am I on the right direction or should I think in a different way to do it? I am new with iPhone development. Please help. Thanks. --Amin

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  • Python base classes share attributes?

    - by tad
    Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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  • PHP - Find a string in file then show it's line number

    - by xZero
    I have an application which needs to open the file, then find string in it, and print a line number where is string found. For example, file example.txt contains few hashes: APLF2J51 1a79a4d60de6718e8e5b326e338ae533 EEQJE2YX 66b375b08fc869632935c9e6a9c7f8da O87IGF8R c458fb5edb84c54f4dc42804622aa0c5 APLF2J51 B7TSW1ZE 1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018 EEQJE2YX affb23b07576b88d1e9fea50719fb3b7 So, I want to PHP search for "1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018" and print out its line number, in this case 4. Please note that there are will not be multiple hashes in file. I found a few codes over Internet, but none seem to work. I tried this one: <?PHP $string = "1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018"; $data = file_get_contents("example.txt"); $data = explode("\n", $data); for ($line = 0; $line < count($data); $line++) { if (strpos($data[$line], $string) >= 0) { die("String $string found at line number: $line"); } } ?> It just says that string is found at line 0.... Which is not correct.... Final application is much more complex than that... After it founds line number, it should replace string which something else, and save changes to file, then goes further processing.... Thanks in advance :)

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  • What is the purpose of the Html "no-js" class?

    - by Swader
    I notice that in a lot of template engines, in the HTML5 Boilerplate, in various frameworks and in plain php sites there is the no-js class added onto the html element. Why is this done? Is there some sort of default browser behavior that reacts to this class? Why include it always? Does that not render the class itself obsolete, if there is no no-"no-js" case and html can be addressed directly? Here is an example from the HTML5 Boilerplate index.html: <!--[if lt IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie6"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie7"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 8 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie8"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 9 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie9"> <![endif]--> <!--[if (gt IE 9)|!(IE)]><!--> <html lang="en" class="no-js"> <!--<![endif]--> As you can see, the html element will always have this class. Can someone explain why this is done so often?

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  • How to design authentication in a thick client, to be fail safe?

    - by Jay
    Here's a use case: I have a desktop application (built using Eclipse RCP) which on start, pops open a dialog box with 'UserName' and 'Password' fields in it. Once the end user, inputs his UserName and Password, a server is contacted (a spring remote-servlet, with the client side being a spring httpclient: similar to the approaches here.), and authentication is performed on the server side. A few questions related to the above mentioned scenario: If said this authentication service were to go down, what would be the best way to handle further proceedings? Authentication is something that I cannot do away with. Would running the desktop client in a "limited" mode be a good idea? For instance, important features/menus/views will be disabled, rest of the application will be accessible? Should I have a back up authentication service running on a different machine, working as a backup? What are the general best-practices in this scenario? I remember reading about google gears and how it would let you edit and do stuff offline - should something like this be designed? Please let me know your design/architectural comments/suggestions. Appreciate your help.

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  • Could I do this blind relative to absolute path conversion (for perforce depot paths) better?

    - by wonderfulthunk
    I need to "blindly" (i.e. without access to the filesystem, in this case the source control server) convert some relative paths to absolute paths. So I'm playing with dotdots and indices. For those that are curious I have a log file produced by someone else's tool that sometimes outputs relative paths, and for performance reasons I don't want to access the source control server where the paths are located to check if they're valid and more easily convert them to their absolute path equivalents. I've gone through a number of (probably foolish) iterations trying to get it to work - mostly a few variations of iterating over the array of folders and trying delete_at(index) and delete_at(index-1) but my index kept incrementing while I was deleting elements of the array out from under myself, which didn't work for cases with multiple dotdots. Any tips on improving it in general or specifically the lack of non-consecutive dotdot support would be welcome. Currently this is working with my limited examples, but I think it could be improved. It can't handle non-consecutive '..' directories, and I am probably doing a lot of wasteful (and error-prone) things that I probably don't need to do because I'm a bit of a hack. I've found a lot of examples of converting other types of relative paths using other languages, but none of them seemed to fit my situation. These are my example paths that I need to convert, from: //depot/foo/../bar/single.c //depot/foo/docs/../../other/double.c //depot/foo/usr/bin/../../../else/more/triple.c to: //depot/bar/single.c //depot/other/double.c //depot/else/more/triple.c And my script: begin paths = File.open(ARGV[0]).readlines puts(paths) new_paths = Array.new paths.each { |path| folders = path.split('/') if ( folders.include?('..') ) num_dotdots = 0 first_dotdot = folders.index('..') last_dotdot = folders.rindex('..') folders.each { |item| if ( item == '..' ) num_dotdots += 1 end } if ( first_dotdot and ( num_dotdots > 0 ) ) # this might be redundant? folders.slice!(first_dotdot - num_dotdots..last_dotdot) # dependent on consecutive dotdots only end end folders.map! { |elem| if ( elem !~ /\n/ ) elem = elem + '/' else elem = elem end } new_paths << folders.to_s } puts(new_paths) end

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  • How to make write operation idempotent?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm reading article about recently release Gizzard sharding framework by twitter(http://engineering.twitter.com/2010/04/introducing-gizzard-framework-for.html). It mentions that all write operations must be idempotent to make sure high reliability. According to wikipedia, "Idempotent operations are operations that can be applied multiple times without changing the result." But, IMHO, in Gazzard case, idempotent write operation should be operations that sequence doesn't matter. Now, my question is: How to make write operation idempotent? The only thing I can image is to have a version number attached to each write. For example, in blog system. Each blog must have a $blog_id and $content. In application level, we always write a blog content like this write($blog_id, $content, $version). The $version is determined to be unique in application level. So, if application first try to set one blog to "Hello world" and second want it to be "Goodbye", the write is idempotent. We have such two write operations: write($blog_id, "Hello world", 1); write($blog_id, "Goodbye", 2); These two operations are supposed to changed two different records in DB. So, no matter how many times and what sequence these two operations executed, the results are same. This is just my understanding. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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  • Whose fault is a NullReferenceException?

    - by stefan.at.wpf
    I'm currently working on a class which exposes an internal List through a property. The List shall and can be modified. The problem is, entries in the internal list could be set to null from outside the class. My code actually looks like this: class ClassWithList { List<object> _list = new List<object>(); // get accessor, which however returns the reference to the list, // therefore the list can be modified (this is intended) public List<object> Data { get { return _list; } } private void doSomeWorkWithTheList() { foreach(object obj in _list) // do some work with the objects in the list without checking for null. } } So now in the doSomeWorkWithTheList() I could always check whether the current list entry is null or I could just asume that the person using this class doesn't have the great idea to set entries to null. So finally the questions end up in: Whose fault is a NullReferenceException in this case? Is it the fault of the class developer not checking everything for null (which would make code generally - not only in this class - more complex) or is it the fault of the user of this class, as setting a List entry to null doesn't really make sense? I'd tend to generally not check values for null except in some really special cases. Is this a bad style or de facto standard / standard in praxis? I know there's probably no ultimate answer for this, I'm just missing enough experience for such thing and therefore wondering what other developers think about such cases and want to hear what's done in reality about checking null (or not).

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  • Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

    - by mafutrct
    I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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