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• Designing for varying mobile device resolutions, i.e. iPhone 4 & iPhone 3G

  - by Josh

  As the design community moves to design applications & interfaces for mobile devices, a new problem has arisen: Varying Screen DPI's. Here's the situation: Touch: * iPhone 3G/S ~ 160 dpi * iPhone 4 ~ 300 dpi * iPad ~ 126 dpi * Android device @ 480p ~ 200 dpi Point / click: * Laptop @ 720p ~ 96 dpi * Desktop @ 720p ~ 72 dpi There is certainly a clear distinction between desktop and mobile so having two separate front-ends to the same app is logical, especially when considering one is "touch"-based and the other is "point/click"-based. The challenge lies in designing static graphical elements that will scale between, say, 160 dpi and 300+ dpi, and get consistent and clean design across zoom levels. Any thoughts on how to approach this? Here are some scenarios, but each has drawbacks as well: * Design a single set of assets (high resolution), then adjust zoom levels based on detected resolution / device o Drawbacks: Performance caused by code layering, varying device support of Zoom * Develop & optimize multiple variations of image and CSS assets, then hide / show each based on device o Drawbacks: Extra work in design & QA. Anyone have thoughts or experience on how to deal with this? We should certainly be looking at methods that use / support HTML5 and CSS3.

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• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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• Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

  - by viatropos

  Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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• Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

  - by Ralpharama

  I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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• LINQ Expression - Dynamic From & Where Clause

  - by chillydk147

  I have the following list of integers that I need to extract varying lists of integers containing numbers from say 2-4 numbers in count. The code below will extract lists with only 2 numbers. var numList = new List<int> { 5, 20, 1, 7, 19, 3, 15, 60, 3, 21, 57, 9 }; var selectedNums = (from n1 in numList from n2 in numList where (n1 > 10) && (n2 > 10) select new { n1, n2 }).ToList(); Is there any way to build up this Linq expression dynamically so that if I wanted lists of 3 numbers it would be compiled as below, this would save me having to package the similar expression inside a different method. var selectedNums = (from n1 in numList from n2 in numList from n3 in numList where (n1 > 10) && (n2 > 10) && (n3 > 10) select new { n1, n2, n3 }).ToList();

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• Need help managing MySql connections

  - by David Jenings

  I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

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• Avoiding repetition with libraries that use a setup + execute model

  - by lijie

  Some libraries offer the ability to separate setup and execution, esp if the setup portion has undesirable characteristics such as unbounded latency. If the program needs to have this reflected in its structure, then it is natural to have: void setupXXX(...); // which calls the setup stuff void doXXX(...); // which calls the execute stuff The problem with this is that the structure of setupXXX and doXXX is going to be quite similar (at least textually -- control flow will prob be more complex in doXXX). Wondering if there are any ways to avoid this. Example: Let's say we're doing signal processing: filtering with a known kernel in the frequency domain. so, setupXXX and doXXX would probably be something like... void doFilter(FilterStuff *c) { for (int i = 0; i < c->N; ++i) { doFFT(c->x[i], c->fft_forward_setup, c->tmp); doMultiplyVector(c->tmp, c->filter); doFFT(c->tmp, c->fft_inverse_setup, c->x[i]); } } void setupFilter(FilterStuff *c) { setupFFT(..., &(c->fft_forward_setup)); // assign the kernel to c->filter ... setupFFT(..., &(c->fft_inverse_setup)); }

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• Binding Javascript Event Handlers to a an Ajax HTML Response?

  - by John

  Let's say I have the following HTML code <div id="outer"> <div id="inner">Hello World</div> </div> At the end of my HTML page, I use javascript to attach event handlers like so, document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} document.getElementById('outer').onclick = function() { /* An Ajax Call where the response, which will be a string of HTML content, then goes into document.getElementById('outer').innerHTML */ document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} } In the above code, I am expecting <div id="inner">Hello World 2</div> to come back which requires me to re-attach the onclick event handler. This makes sense because the new response coming back is just a string, and I have to tell the browser that after converting to DOM, i also need some event handlers So my question is, is there a better way to manage event handlers on AJAX response that contains HTML content? I could use inline javascript within the html response, but then it prevents me from achieving non-intrusive javascript. So is there a way to achieve non-intrusive javascript and an efficient way to "maintain" event handlers of ajax html responses?

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• Retrieving Relationships from within two arrays of pointers

  - by DanF

  In a portion of a program I'm working on, I need to count all the times each person has worked on projects with each other person. Let's say we have "Employee" entities and "Session" entities. In each session, there are four project types, "A", "B", "C", & "D", each a many-to-many relationship to Employees. I'm making a loop to systematically review every person a selected person has worked with. First, I put all their project types in a single array, so it's easier to loop through, but by the time I ask the last nested Project for its Employee members, I get an "unrecognized selector" error. IBOutlet NSArrayController * list; int x; for(x = 0; x < [list count]; x++){ NSArray *A = [[list objectAtIndex:x] valueForKey:@"projectAs"]; NSArray *A = [[list objectAtIndex:x] valueForKey:@"projectBs"]; NSArray *A = [[list objectAtIndex:x] valueForKey:@"projectCs"]; NSArray *A = [[list objectAtIndex:x] valueForKey:@"projectDs"]; NSArray *masterList = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: projectAs, projectBs, projectCs, projectDs, nil]; int y; for(y = 0; y < [masterList count]; y++){ int z; for(z = 0; z < [[masterlist objectAtIndex:y] count]; z++){ //And now to make an Array of this employee's partners on the selected object, to run comparisons on. //I also have an array of keys for each session's teams, so that's what I'm referencing here: NSArray * thisTeam = [list objectAtIndex:y] objectAtIndex:z] valueForKey:projectKey]; This throws an exception... namely, -[_NSFaultingMutableSet objectAtIndex:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance What's wrong with that last Array creation?

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• Execute client & server side code with one click?

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am not sure if my design have flaw but would like to know what others have to say, i am in a situation where i am trying to acheive two things in one click. using : asp.net web form i have a web form with few textbox and a gridview control and a button. if i click on the button i am executing two things 1) asynchronously get data from server to client (working great) and able to display the data in the textboxes. 2) same click i want to bind the gridview. <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMaster" runat="server"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1' >Id:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtId" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" OnClientClick="LoadDataById();" runat="server" Text="Submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPurpose" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <br /> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:Content> server side protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = laodData(int.Parse(txtId.Text)); GridView1.DataBind(); } Jquery: function LoadVisitBasicByVisitId() { ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "GetDataById", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; } recap: 1) jquery script execute asynchronously to get data from server to client and display in the textboxes 2) server side code to bind the gridview.

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• Symfony 1.4 Form Value change after getValues()

  - by bertzzie

  Hi, I've got some problem with symfony form value (i guess it's the clean value, but not so clear yet). Here's the problem : I got a sfFormDateJQueryUI widget setup like this in my form : $this->setWidgets(array( 'needDate' => new sfWidgetFormDateJQueryUI(), )); $this->setValidators(array( 'needDate' => new sfValidatorDate(array( 'required' => true, 'date_format' => '/^[0-9]{2}\/[0-9]{2}\/[0-9]{4}$/', 'date_output' => 'd/m/Y' )), )); Then when i submit, say 26/06/2010, it turns out right in the HTTP Header (viewed via Firebug) and $request (i just print it). But after i get the value via $formVal = $form->getValues(); the date value in $formVal["needDate"] become today's date (03/06/2010). I really don't understand, and after checking in the API documentation it says that the getValues will return the 'cleaned' value. Is that because of it ? I don't understand what's 'clean'. Thanks before..

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• Make an NSString accessible in the whole class

  - by OhhMee

  Hello, I want to know how can I make an NSString accessible in the whole class. Say I have these codes: - (void) init { NSArray *elements = [xpathParser search:@"//foo"]; TFHppleElement *element = [elements objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *data = [element content]; NSArray *elements1 = [xpathParser search:@"//foo2"]; TFHppleElement *element2 = [elements1 objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *data2 = [element2 content]; } And I want to use data & data2 in the whole class, how can I do that? I want to show results here: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell. switch (indexPath.row) { case 0 : cell.textLabel.text = (@"%@", data); break; case 1: cell.textLabel.text = (@"%@", data2); break; } // Email & Password Section return cell; }

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• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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• Call AsyncTask methods from another class/service (callbacks?)

  - by TiGer

  Hi, I was wondering if it's possible to call specific methods defined within the AsynTask class from another class and/or service ? In my specific case I have a Service playing some sounds, but the sound is selected from a List with available sounds... When a sounds is selected it is downloaded from my home server, this takes some time (not much, let's say around the 3-4 seconds, the sounds/effects aren't big in size)... So my problem at the moment is that I have a service to play those sounds, and when I select one I wanted to show a progressdialog... The way (if I understood correctly) is to use an AsyncTask, but the only thing the AsyncTask will do is telling my Service to play a specific sound from my server... So there is no "callback" from the service to the Asynctask... How can I achieve that ? How can I call a running AsyncTask, which sits in another class, and tell him all work is done and thus he can stop showing the ProgressDialog ? Or am I over-engineering it and there are other ways ? Thanks in advance...

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• Guidance on E-commerce in a Python Framework

  - by Ant

  I am looking for guidance in making decisions on using Python for E-commerce. My reasoning to use Python in the first place is i do a lot of 3D so it's a real help to use Python for web server side as well as 3D so I do not need to learn a new language. When I say E-commerce i mean the logic behind displaying products and a check out system that is Robust....and yes I really want to build this myself so I can change it. I do not want to use an out the box solution that costs a lot of money every month. I want control of server side, data bases, e-commerce etc. My questions are: What Frameworks are out there? I looked at previous questions on stackoverflow but only found old posts about Sachmo and Get paid. What is the learning path, I do not want to make a mistake that costs six months of studying? Python then Django? How long if I spent 10 hours a day studying this would it take to get up and running? I write javaScript badly, so I am not a complete noob, I understand the basics of programming languages. many thanks in advance

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• Make All Types Constant by Default in C++

  - by Jon Purdy

  What is the simplest and least obtrusive way to indicate to the compiler, whether by means of compiler options, #defines, typedefs, or templates, that every time I say T, I really mean T const? I would prefer not to make use of an external preprocessor. Since I don't use the mutable keyword, that would be acceptable to repurpose to indicate mutable state. Potential (suboptimal) solutions so far: // I presume redefinition of keywords is implementation-defined or illegal. #define int int const #define ptr * const int i(0); int ptr j(&i); typedef int const Int; typedef int const* const Intp; Int i(0); Intp j(&i); template<class T> struct C { typedef T const type; typedef T const* const ptr; }; C<int>::type i(0); C<int>::ptr j(&i);

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• Qt - 2 QMainWindow glued - Size of Layout

  - by user1773603

  I have a main window that I center this way in main.cpp : int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QMainWindow *qmain = new QMainWindow; Ui_MainWindow ui; ui.setupUi(qmain); QRect r = qmain->geometry(); r.moveCenter(QApplication::desktop()->availableGeometry().center()); qmain->setGeometry(r); qmain->show(); return app.exec(); } In this "qmain" main window, I can create another QMainWindow and I try to make stick (or glue I don't know how to say) the two windows. Actually, I would like the right-top corner of the first one to be located at the left-top of the second one. For this, I use the following Ui_MainWindow's member function : void Ui_MainWindow::generate_IC() { qmenu = new QMainWindow; DiskMenu = new Ui_DiskGalMenu; DiskMenu->setupUi(qmenu); setInitialDiskMenuPosition(qmenu, this); qmenu->show(); } and the setInitialDiskMenuPosition : void Ui_MainWindow::setInitialDiskMenuPosition(QMainWindow *MainWindow, Ui_MainWindow *parent) { QSize size = parent->widget->size(); QDesktopWidget* desktop = QApplication::desktop(); int width = desktop->width(); int height = desktop->height(); int mw = size.width(); int mh = size.height(); int right = (width/2) + (mw/2); int top = (height/2) - (mh/2); MainWindow->move(right, top); } But the problem is that I don't get exactly what I want since the centralwidget size "parent- widget-size()" only returns the size of the widget and not the whole "qmain" parent window. So I have a light shift because the borders of the "qmain" window are not taken in account like it is shown below : If I could have access to the size of the whole parent window... If anyone could help me

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• Python "callable" attribute (pseudo-property)

  - by mgilson

  In python, I can alter the state of an instance by directly assigning to attributes, or by making method calls which alter the state of the attributes: foo.thing = 'baz' or: foo.thing('baz') Is there a nice way to create a class which would accept both of the above forms which scales to large numbers of attributes that behave this way? (Shortly, I'll show an example of an implementation that I don't particularly like.) If you're thinking that this is a stupid API, let me know, but perhaps a more concrete example is in order. Say I have a Document class. Document could have an attribute title. However, title may want to have some state as well (font,fontsize,justification,...), but the average user might be happy enough just setting the title to a string and being done with it ... One way to accomplish this would be to: class Title(object): def __init__(self,text,font='times',size=12): self.text = text self.font = font self.size = size def __call__(self,*text,**kwargs): if(text): self.text = text[0] for k,v in kwargs.items(): setattr(self,k,v) def __str__(self): return '<title font={font}, size={size}>{text}</title>'.format(text=self.text,size=self.size,font=self.font) class Document(object): _special_attr = set(['title']) def __setattr__(self,k,v): if k in self._special_attr and hasattr(self,k): getattr(self,k)(v) else: object.__setattr__(self,k,v) def __init__(self,text="",title=""): self.title = Title(title) self.text = text def __str__(self): return str(self.title)+'<body>'+self.text+'</body>' Now I can use this as follows: doc = Document() doc.title = "Hello World" print (str(doc)) doc.title("Goodbye World",font="Helvetica") print (str(doc)) This implementation seems a little messy though (with __special_attr). Maybe that's because this is a messed up API. I'm not sure. Is there a better way to do this? Or did I leave the beaten path a little too far on this one? I realize I could use @property for this as well, but that wouldn't scale well at all if I had more than just one attribute which is to behave this way -- I'd need to write a getter and setter for each, yuck.

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• How to randomly assign a partner?

  - by David

  I asked a question some time ago about creating a random circular partner assignment using php and mysql. This is a related issue. I am working from the following code to try to give two users new, randomly selected partners: $q = "SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE partner='$quit_partner' AND status='1'"; $r = mysqli_query ($dbc, $q) or trigger_error("Query: $q\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($dbc)); while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($r)) { $users[] = $row[0]; } $current = end($users); $partners = array(); foreach ($users as $user) { $partners[$user] = $current; $current = $user; $q = "UPDATE users SET partner='{$partners[$user]}' WHERE user_id='{$user}'"; mysqli_query ($dbc, $q) or trigger_error("Query: $q\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($dbc)); } Basically, a particular user (lets say user #4) quits the activity, leaving multiple other users without a partner (hypothetically, users # 5,6,7). I need to find out who those users are, hence the first query. Once I find them, I throw them into an array. Then comes the difficult part. I want those newly partnerless users (5,6,7) to be randomly assigned new partners from everyone in the table. The current code is flawed in that it only assigns the newly partnerless users eachother. Thanks for your help.

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• reading keyboard input without "consuming" it in x86 assembly

  - by Bob

  Ok so here the deal: I have an assignment regarding DOS and interrupts: I need to write a sort of key-logger function that can be called from C code. what it means is a c program would call an assembly function called startlog that would indicate to start logging the keys pressed until a function called endlog is called. the logging should work like this: write the ascii value of any key pressed without disturbing the C code between startlog and endlog, meaning that if the C code also needs to read the input (let's say by scanf, it would work ok). I managed to write the logger by changing the interrupt vector 9th entry (interrupt for keyboard press) to a function I wrote that writes the values to a file, and it works fine. however the C code does not get the input. Basically what i did is read the key pressed using int 21h, however after reading the ascii value it is "consumed" so I need a way to either simulate the key press again or read the value without "consuming" it so next time a key is read it reads the same key. (I described the code in english because it is long and clumsy assembly code)

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• Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

  - by Scott Balmos

  Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

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• What is the "un-tab" sequence in (g)Vim?

  - by OwenP

  This is an annoyance I've had for a long time. (Nitpicky section: I prefer 4 space characters to tab characters. It's a lot easier to type "tab" instead of explaining that. When I say "tab", I mean "the action that happens when you press the tab key" which is probably more simply stated as "increase indentation".) I'm using smartindent while editing a document where indentation has some significance. In "dumb" windows text editors I can press Shift+Tab to remove a tab or, more appropriately, decrease the indentation level of the current line. I can't figure out how to do this from edit mode in Vim; Shift+Tab seems to count just the same as Tab. I know in Command mode << will decrease indentation. I want the equivalent in edit mode. These are the solutions I've found so far and why I don't like them, one in particular may be the key to the answer. Use Notepad++ or some other dumb editor. I've done this for a couple of years but I really miss Vim. Exit edit mode, use <<, enter edit mode. This just puts the cursor at column 0; if I wanted this I wouldn't have tried smartindent. Stop using smartindent. I don't decrease indent as often as I need to keep the same indent level; this would be a loss of productivity. The left arrow key seems to decrease the indent by one level. I'd rather something I can do without leaving the home row. This is the most promising choice. Maybe there's an option I can set? Maybe I can rebind left arrow to something? (If it requires rebinding please explain in detail; I've never delved into reconfiguring (g)Vim.

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• Why Is Java Missing Access Specifiers?

  - by Tom Tresansky

  Does anyone understand why Java is missing: An access specifier which allows access by the class and all subclasses, but NOT by other classes in the same package? (Protected-minus) An access specifier which allows access by the class, all classes in the same package, AND all classes in any sub-package? (Default-plus) An access specifier which adds classes in sub-packages to the entities currently allowed access by protected? (Protected-plus) I wish I had more choices than protected and default. In particular, I'm interested in the Protected-plus option. Say I want to use a Builder/Factory patterned class to produce an object with many links to other objects. The constructors on the objects are all default, because I want to force you to use the factory class to produce instances, in order to make sure the linking is done correctly. I want to group the factories in a sub-package to keep them all together and distinct from the objects they are instantiating---this just seems like a cleaner package structure to me. No can do, currently. I have to put the builders in the same package as the objects they are constructing, in order to gain the access to defaults. But separating project.area.objects from project.area.objects.builders would be so nice. So why is Java lacking these options? And, is there anyway to fake it?

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• Twitter Bootstrap open remote URL programmatically

  - by joh

  <div class="modal hide fade" id="modal_window"> <div class="modal-header"> <button type="button" class="close" data-dismiss="modal" aria-hidden="true">&times;</button> <h3>Modal header</h3> </div> <div class="modal-body"> <p>One fine body</p> </div> <div class="modal-footer"> <a href="#" class="btn">Close</a> <a href="#" class="btn btn-primary">Save changes</a> </div> </div> This is my html code, i want to load a remote content into it, let say yahoo.com I tried $('#modal_window').attr('data-remote', 'http://www.yahoo.com').modal({show:true, remote:true}); It shows the normal modal content instead of yahoo loaded into modal. How do i make it to load yahoo.com into the modal window? Thanks

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