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• Visual Studio Folder Structure

  - by nick

  I am not sure how this works. I am using Visual Studio 2008 and I created a Class Library (say the name is Test). I also selected the option to create a folder for the solution. Following is the directory structure I get: Test - Test - bin - Debug - obj - Debug - Properties - AassemblyInfo.cs - Test.cs - Test.csproj - Test.sln - Test.suo This is default and I have no problems running my code this way. My querry is I see other solutions (class libraries) created in the Subversion by others before have a different structure. The structure for that is as follows: Test - .svn - lib - <<Reference 1>> - <<Reference 2>> - .... - <<Reference N>> - src - bin - Debug - obj - Debug - Properties - AassemblyInfo.cs - Test.cs - Test.csproj - Test.sln - Test.suo My query is how to create this structure? All the references to other projects are maintained in lib folder and source code is maintained in src folder. This is not the case happening with me. When I open the solution in Visual Studio, I cannot see any such folder like lib or src. It shows the same way as mine. Kindly help and forgive me for being so elaborative. Thanks

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• Java ORM related question - SQL Vs Google DB (Big Table?) GAE

  - by StackerFlow

  I was wondering about the following two options when one is not using SQL tables but ORM based DBs (Example - when you are using GAE) Would the second option be less efficient? Requirement: There is an object. The object has a collection of similar items. I need to store this object. Example, say the object is a tree and it has a collection of leaves. Option 1: Traditional SQL type structure: Table for the Tree (with TreeId as the identifier for a row in the Table.) Table for the Leaves (where each leaf has a TreeId and to show the leaves of a tree, I query all leaves where the TreeId is the Id of the tree.) Here, the Tree structure DOES NOT have a field with leaves. Option 2: ORM / GAE Tables: Using the same example above, I have an object for Tree where the object has a collection (Set/List in Java/C++) of leaves. I store and retrieve the Tree together with the leaves (as the leaves are implemented as a Set in the Tree object) My question is, will the second one be less efficient that the first option? If so, why? Are there other alternatives? Thank you!

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• JQuery Control Update Not Happening

  - by Mad Halfling

  Hi, I've got a script that disables a button input control, empties a table body and then (after an AJAX call) re-populates it. It all works fine but sometimes there are a lot of rows in the table so the browser (IE) takes a while to empty and refill it. The strange thing is, while the rows are being emptied, the button still appears to be enabled, however if I put an alert between the button being disabled and the tbody being emptied, the button works properly, disabling visibly before the the alert comes up. Is there any way I can get the button to update before the resource consuming table emptying process/command commences? Thx MH Code sample, as requested (but it's not complex, so I didn't initially include it) $('#Search').attr('disabled', true); $('#StatusSpan').empty(); $('#DisplayTBody').empty(); then I perform my AJAX call, re-enable the button and repopulate the table. As I mentioned, normally this is really quick and isn't a problem, but if there are, say, 1500 rows in the table it takes a while to clear down but the 'Search' button doesn't update on the screen, however if I put an alert after the .attr('disabled' line the button visibly updates when the alert box is up, but without that the button doesn't visibly disable until after the table clears (which is about 3 or 4 seconds with 1500 rows), it just stays in it's down/"mid-press" state. I don't have a problem with the time the browser is taking to render the table changes, that's just life, but I need the users to see visible feedback so they know the search has started

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• How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

  - by Mark

  Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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• Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

  - by Jaxidian

  We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

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• Moq basic questions

  - by devoured elysium

  I made the following test for my class: var mock = new Mock<IRandomNumberGenerator>(); mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(0, 50)) .Returns(7.0); var rnac = new RandomNumberAverageCounter(mock.Object, 1, 100); rnac.Run(); double result = rnac.GetAverage(); Assert.AreEqual(result, 7.0, 0.1); The problem here was that I changed my mind about what range of values Generate(int min, int max) would use. So in Mock.Setup() I defined the range as from 0 to 50 while later I actually called the Generate() method with a range from 1 to 100. I ran the test and it failed. I know that that is what it's supposed to happen but I was left wondering if isn't there a way to launch an exception or throw in a message when trying to run the method with wrong params. Also, if I want to run this Generate() method 10 times with different values (let's say, from 1 to 10), will I have to make 10 mock setups or something, or is there a special method for it? The best I could think of is this (which isn't bad, I'm just asking if there is other better way): for (int i = 1; i < 10; ++i) { mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(1, 100)) .Returns((double)i); }

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• Outer product using CBLAS

  - by The Dude

  I am having trouble utilizing CBLAS to perform an Outer Product. My code is as follows: //===SET UP===// double x1[] = {1,2,3,4}; double x2[] = {1,2,3}; int dx1 = 4; int dx2 = 3; double X[dx1 * dx2]; for (int i = 0; i < (dx1*dx2); i++) {X[i] = 0.0;} //===DO THE OUTER PRODUCT===// cblas_dgemm(CblasRowMajor, CblasNoTrans, CblasTrans, dx1, dx2, 1, 1.0, x1, dx1, x2, 1, 0.0, X, dx1); //===PRINT THE RESULTS===// printf("\nMatrix X (%d x %d) = x1 (*) x2 is:\n", dx1, dx2); for (i=0; i<4; i++) { for (j=0; j<3; j++) { printf ("%lf ", X[j+i*3]); } printf ("\n"); } I get: Matrix X (4 x 3) = x1 (*) x2 is: 1.000000 2.000000 3.000000 0.000000 -1.000000 -2.000000 -3.000000 0.000000 7.000000 14.000000 21.000000 0.000000 But the correct answer is found here: https://www.sharcnet.ca/help/index.php/BLAS_and_CBLAS_Usage_and_Examples I have seen: Efficient computation of kronecker products in C But, it doesn't help me because they don't actually say how to utilize dgemm to actually do this... Any help? What am I doing wrong here?

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• How can i add to dataGridView1 a data to the last row/column?

  - by user3681442

  In top of form1 i did: private System.Timers.Timer _refreshTimer; private int _thisProcess; Then in the Form1 Load event: _thisProcess = Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id; InitializeRefreshTimer(); PopulateApplications(); Then the timer init method: void InitializeRefreshTimer() { _refreshTimer = new System.Timers.Timer(5000); _refreshTimer.SynchronizingObject = this; _refreshTimer.Elapsed += new System.Timers.ElapsedEventHandler(TimerToUpdate_Elapsed); _refreshTimer.Start(); } Then the timer elapsed event: void TimerToUpdate_Elapsed(object sender, System.Timers.ElapsedEventArgs e) { PopulateApplications(); } In the end the Populate method: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add( p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } The variable status show in the column2 but let's say i want that status will be display for each process/app in column5 ? How can i move it ? EDIT** Tried this: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { var icon = Icon.ExtractAssociatedIcon(p.MainModule.FileName); Image ima = icon.ToBitmap(); img.Image = ima; img.HeaderText = "Image"; img.Name = "img"; String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add(img, p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } I moved the variable img to the top of the form. The problem is i see in each row this: DataGridViewImageColumn { Name=img, Index=-1 } And i don't see the icon it self. Why ?

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• destructor being called by subclass

  - by zero

  I'm currently learning more about php objects and constructors/destructors, but i've noticed in my code that the parent class's destructor is being called twice, I thought it was because i was extending the first class to my second class and that the second class was calling it, but this is what the php docs say about that: Like constructors, parent destructors will not be called implicitly by the engine. In order to run a parent destructor, one would have to explicitly call parent::__destruct() in the destructor body. so if it is not being called by the subclass then is it because by extended the first class that i've made a reference to the parent class making it call itself twice or I'm I way off base here? the code: <?php class test{ public $test1 = "this is a test of a pulic property"; private $test2 = "this is a test of a private property"; protected $test3 = "this is a test of a protected property"; const hello = 900000; function __construct($h){ //echo 'this is the constructor test '.$h; } function x($x2){ echo ' this is fn x'.$x2; } function y(){ print "this is fn y"; } } $obj = new test("this is an \"arg\" sent to instance of test"); class hey extends test{ function hey(){ $this->x('<br>from the host with the most'); echo ' <br>from hey class'.$this->test3; } } $obj2 = new hey(); echo $obj2::hello; ?>

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• MySQL datetime fields and daylight savings time -- how do I reference the "extra" hour?

  - by Aaron

  I'm using the America/New York timezone. In the Fall we "fall back" an hour -- effectively "gaining" one hour at 2am. At the transition point the following happens: it's 01:59:00 -04:00 then 1 minute later it becomes: 01:00:00 -05:00 So if you simply say "1:30am" it's ambiguous as to whether or not you're referring to the first time 1:30 rolls around or the second. I'm trying to save scheduling data to a MySQL database and can't determine how to save the times properly. Here's the problem: "2009-11-01 00:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 00:30:00 -04:00 "2009-11-01 01:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 01:30:00 -05:00 This is fine and fairly expected. But how do I save anything to 01:30:00 -04:00? The documentation does not show any support for specifying the offset and, accordingly, when I've tried specifying the offset it's been duly ignored. The only solutions I've thought of involve setting the server to a timezone that doesn't use daylight savings time and doing the necessary transformations in my scripts (I'm using PHP for this). But that doesn't seem like it should be necessary. Many thanks for any suggestions.

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• Expressjs route param as variable in main app

  - by MoDFoX

  For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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• Passing huge amounts of data as an hexadecimal (0x123AB...) parameter of a clr stored procedure in s

  - by user193655

  I post this question has followup of This question, since the thread is not recieving more answers. I'm trying to understand if it is possible to pass as a parameter of a CLR stored procedure a large amount of data as "0x5352532F...". This is to avoid to send the data directly to the CLR stored procedure, instead of sending ti to a temporary DB field and from there passing it as varbinary(max) parmeter to the CLR stored procedure. I have a triple question: 1) is it possible, if yes how? Let's say i want to pass a pdf file to the CLR stored procedure (not the path, the full bits that make up the file). Something like: exec MyCLRStoredProcs.dbo.insertfile @file_remote_path ='c:\temp\test_file.txt' , @file_contents=0x4D5A90000300000004000.... --(this long list is the file content) where insertfile is a stored proc that writes to the server path (at file_remote_path) the binary data I pass as (file_contents). 2) is it there corruption risk of adopting this approach (or it is the same approach that sql server uses behind the scenes)? 3) how to convert the content of a file into the "0x23423..." hexadecimal representation

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• Obj-c method override/polymorphism problem

  - by Rod

  Ok, so I'm using Objective-C. Now, say I have: TopClass : NSObject - (int) getVal {return 1;} MidClass : TopClass - (int) getVal {return 2;} BotClass : MidClass - (int) getVal {return 3;} I then put objects of each type into an NSMutableArray and take one out. What I want to do is run the getVal func on the appropriate object type, but when I put id a = [allObjects objectAtIndex:0]; if ([a isKindOfClass:[TopClass class]]) { int i; i = [a getVal]; } I get firstly a warning about multiple methods called getVal (presumably because the compiler can't determine the actual object type until runtime). But more seriously I also get an error "void value not ignored as it should be" and it won't compile. If I don't try and use the return from [a getVal] then it compiles fine e.g. [a getval]; //obviously no good if I want to use the return value It will also work if I use isMemberOfClass statements to cast the object to a class before running the function e.g. if ([a isMemberOfClass:[BotClass]) i = [(BotClass*) a getVal]; But surely I shouldn't have to do this to get the functionality I require? Otherwise I'll have to put in a statement for every single subclass, and worse have to add a new line if I add a new sub class, which rather defeats the point of method overriding doesn't it? Surely there is a better way?

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• Memory interleaving

  - by Tim Green

  Hello, I have this question that has me rather confused. Suppose that a 1G x 32-bit main memory is built using 256M x 4-bit RAM chips and that this memory is byte-addressable. I have deduced that one would require 4*1G = 2^2*2*30 = 2^32 - so 32 bits to address the full memory. My problem now comes with, say, if you had memory (byte) address "14", determine which memory module this would go into. (There would have to be 8 chips per module to make the 32-bit wide memory, and 4 modules overall giving 32 chips in total. Modules are numbered from 0). In high-order interleave, it appears trivial that it's the first (0) memory module given a lot of the first few bits are 0. However, low-order interleave has me stumped. I can't figure out (for sure) how many bits are used to determine a memory module (possibly 2, given there are 4 in total?). The given solution is Module 3. This is not homework in the same sense so I will not be tagging it as such.

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• Querying for a unique value based on the aggregate of another value while grouping on a third value

  - by Justin Swartsel

  So I know this problem isn't a new one, but I'm trying to wrap my head around it and understand the best way to deal with scenarios like this. Say I have a hypothetical table 'X' that looks like this: GroupID ID (identity) SomeDateTime -------------------------------------------- 1 1000 1/1/01 1 1001 2/2/02 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1003 4/4/04 2 1004 5/5/05 I want to query it so the result set looks like this: ---------------------------------------- 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1004 5/5/05 Basically what I want is the MAX SomeDateTime value grouped by my GroupID column. The kicker is that I DON'T want to group by the ID column, I just want to know the 'ID' that corresponds to the MAX SomeDateTime. I know one pseudo-solution would be: ;WITH X1 as ( SELECT MAX(SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime, GroupID FROM X GROUP BY GroupID ) SELECT X1.SomeDateTime, X1.GroupID, X2.ID FROM X1 INNER JOIN X as X2 ON X.DateTime = X2.DateTime But this doesn't solve the fact that a DateTime might not be unique. And it seems sloppy to join on a DateTime like that. Another pseudo-solution could be: SELECT X.GroupID, MAX(X.ID) as ID, MAX(X.SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime FROM X GROUP BY X.GroupID But there are no guarantees that ID will actually match the row that SomeDateTime comes from. A third less useful option might be: SELECT TOP 1 X.GroupID, X.ID, X.SomeDateTime FROM X WHERE X.GroupID = 1 ORDER BY X.SomeDateTime DESC But obviously that only works with a single, known, GroupID. I want to be able to join this result set on GroupID and/or ID. Does anyone know of any clever solutions? Any good uses of windowing functions? Thanks!

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• How is machine code understood by the machine

  - by Kraken

  I have a very naive question here, and I would like you to correct me on whatever wrong concepts I put out here. The question is as follows: I have ubuntu installed on my machine, now I write a helloWorld.c program in C language. Now, on the operating system I have a compiler installed, when I execute my helloWorld.c program, the OS schedules the compiler and that basically compiles my code into machine code, which eventually, I execute. Now my kernel code is written in C, then how does my machine interprets that code? Say my kernel code is helloWorld.c, now would not I require any compiler, to compile this code. Also, if I hardcode a compiler in maybe ROM or something, then what language is it written in? Assembly language? Let me know if I have made myself clear with the problem. Thanks. EDIT: By kernel code I mean, the code for operating system. Operating System code. I guess it is written in C right?

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• How can I save a file on an http server using just http requests and javascript?

  - by user170902

  hi all, I'm trying to understand some of the basics of web servers/html/javasacript etc. I'm not interested in any of the various frameworks like php/asp, i'm just trying to get a low level look at things (for now). At the moment I'm trying to understand how data can be sent to/saved on the backend, but i must admit that i'm getting a bit lost under the various specs/technical stuff on w3 at the moment! If I have some data, say xml, that I want to save on the backend how do I go about it? I assume that I would have to use something like an HTTP PUT or POST Request to an html doc that contains some javascript that in turn would process the data, e.g. save it somewhere. Now from googling around I can see that this doesn't seem to be the case, so my assumptions are completely wrong! So how is it done? Can it be done, or do I have to use something like php or asp? TIA. bg

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• What does Postgres do when BEGIN is run on a connection in autocommit mode?

  - by DNS

  I'm trying to better understand the concept of 'autocommit' when working with a Postgres (psycopg) connection. Let's say I have a fresh connection, set its isolation level to ISOLATION_LEVEL_AUTOCOMMIT, then run this SQL directly, without using the cursor begin/rollback methods (as an exercise; not saying I actually want to do this): INSERT A INSERT B BEGIN INSERT C INSERT D ROLLBACK What happens to INSERTs C & D? Is autocommit is purely an internal setting in psycopg that affects how it issues BEGINs? In that case, the above SQL is unafected; INSERTs A & B are committed as soon as they're done, while C & D are run in a transaction and rolled back. What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or is autocommit a real setting on the connection itself? In that case, how does it affect the handling of BEGIN? Is it ignored, or does it override the autocommit setting to actually start a transaction? What isolation level is that transaction run under? Or am I completely off-target?

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• Joining tables, if percentage is above certain value

  - by CluelessGerman

  My question is similar to this one: Compare rows and get percentage However, little different. I adapted my question to the other post. I got 2 tables. First table: user_id | post_id 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 12 2 15 And second table: post_id | rating 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 5 3 null 3 1 3 4 12 4 15 1 So now I would like to count the rating for each post, in the second table. If the rating has more than, lets say, 50% positive ratings than I want to get the post_id and going it to the post_id from table one and add 1 to the user_id. At the end it would return the user_id with the number of positive posts. The result for above table would be: user_id | helpfulPosts 1 2 2 1 The post with post_id 1 and 3 have positive rating, because more than 50% have ratings of 1-3. The post with id = 2 is not positive, because the rating is exactly 50%. How would I achieve this? For clarification: It's a mysql rdbm and a positive post, is one where the number of rating_ids with 1, 2 and 3 are more than half of the overall rating. Basically the same thing, from the other thread I posted above.

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• How can I have a single helper work on different models passed to it?

  - by Angela

  I am probably going to need to refactor in two steps since I'm still developing the project and learning the use-cases as I go along since it is to scratch my own itch. I have three models: Letters, Calls, Emails. They have some similarilty, but I anticipate they also will have some different attributes as you can tell from their description. Ideally I could refactor them as Events, with a type as Letters, Calls, Emails, but didn't know how to extend subclasses. My immediate need is this: I have a helper which checks on the status of whether an email (for example) was sent to a specific contact: def show_email_status(contact, email) @contact_email = ContactEmail.find(:first, :conditions => {:contact_id => contact.id, :email_id => email.id }) if ! @contact_email.nil? return @contact_email.status end end I realized that I, of course, want to know the status for whether a call was made to a contact as well, so I wrote: def show_call_status(contact, call) @contact_call = ContactCall.find(:first, :conditions => {:contact_id => contact.id, :call_id => call.id }) if ! @contact_call.nil? return @contact_call.status end end I would love to be able to just have a single helper show_status where I can say show_status(contact,call) or show_status(contact,email) and it would know whether to look for the object @contact_call or @contact_email. Yes, it would be easier if it were just @contact_event, but I want to do a small refactoring while I get the program up and running, and this would make the ability to do a history for a given contact much easier. Thanks!

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• What goes into the "Controller" in "MVC"?

  - by P72endragon

  I think I understand the basic concepts of MVC - the Model contains the data and behaviour of the application, the View is responsible for displaying it to the user and the Controller deals with user input. What I'm uncertain about is exactly what goes in the Controller. Lets say for example I have a fairly simple application (I'm specifically thinking Java, but I suppose the same principles apply elsewhere). I organise my code into 3 packages called app.model, app.view and app.controller. Within the app.model package, I have a few classes that reflect the actual behaviour of the application. These extends Observable and use setChanged() and notifyObservers() to trigger the views to update when appropriate. The app.view package has a class (or several classes for different types of display) that uses javax.swing components to handle the display. Some of these components need to feed back into the Model. If I understand correctly, the View shouldn't have anything to do with the feedback - that should be dealt with by the Controller. So what do I actually put in the Controller? Do I put the public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) in the View with just a call to a method in the Controller? If so, should any validation etc be done in the Controller? If so, how do I feedback error messages back to the View - should that go through the Model again, or should the Controller just send it straight back to View? If the validation is done in the View, what do I put in the Controller? Sorry for the long question, I just wanted to document my understanding of the process and hopefully someone can clarify this issue for me!

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• highlighting data values in a sql result set

  - by potatoe

  I can think of a number of ways to do this in PHP or even JavaScript, but I'm wondering if there's a SQL-based technique I'm overlooking. I have a database table, let's say 20 fields X 10 rows. I want to display the entire table on an web page, so I'd do something like SELCT * FROM data_table;, and then format the result set using HTML table tags. However, I'd also like to highlight values in the table based on whether they are the maximum or minimum value in their column. For example, I'd add bold tags around the max in each column. A resulting table might look something like this, with bold tags shown: id | field1 | field2 | field3 | ... 0 | 5 | 2 | <b>7</b> | ... 1 | 3 | <b>8</b> | 6 | ... 2 | <b>9</b> | 5 | 1 | ... ... I could do a separate SELECT with an ORDER BY for each field and then interpret the results, but that seems like a lot of extra DB access. My alternative right now is to just fetch the whole table, and then sort/search for the highlight values using PHP. Is there a better way?

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• How do I use requestFocus in a Java JFrame GUI?

  - by JohnWong

  I am given an assignment but I am totally new to Java (I have been programming in C++ and Python for two years). So we are doing GUI and basically we extended JFrame and added a couple fields. Say we have a field named "Text 1" and "Text 2". When user presses enter with the cursor in Text 1, move the focus to Text 2. I tried to add private JTextField textfield1() { textfield1 = new JTextField(); textfield1.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(200, 20)); textfield1.addActionListener( new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { textfield1text = textfield1.getText().trim(); textfield1.setText(textfield1text); System.out.println(textfield1text); textfield1.requestFocus(); } }); return textfield1; } But that doesn't work at all. I noticed that requestFocus is not recommended, and instead one should use requestFocusWindows. But I tried that too. Upon some readings it seems like I have to do keyboard action and listener? But my teacher said it only requires 1 line...

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• Addiing captions above images in wordpress

  - by jacob

  So I added some code in my css and there are boxes that appear over every image that is attached to a post. I've wanted to number the images and show the image number in the box(1...n). I have this in my functions.php function count_images(){ global $post; $thePostID = $post-ID; $parameters = array( 'post_type' = 'attachment', 'post_parent' = $thePostID, 'post_mime_type' = 'image'); $attachments = get_children($parameters); $content = count($attachments); return $content; } add_filter('the_content','count_images'); function caption_image_callback($matches) { $c = count_images(); for ($i=1; $i <= $c; $i++) { if (is_single()) { return ''.$i.' '; } else { return ''; } } } function caption_image($post_body_content) { $post_body_content = preg_replace_callback("||","caption_image_callback",$post_body_content); return $post_body_content; } if ( current_user_can('edit_plugins') ) { add_filter('the_content', 'caption_image'); } If I run only count_images it will show the correct number of attached images to a post(let's say 15). But for some reason the number that is shown in the boxes over the images is always 1. I've seen this done on several blogs with just php so there has to be a way(even if I have to change my whole code). PS: I had to leave spaces in some places

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• regex numeric data processing: match a series of numbers greater than X

  - by Mu Mind

  Say I have some data like this: number_stream = [0,0,0,7,8,0,0,2,5,6,10,11,10,13,5,0,1,0,...] I want to process it looking for "bumps" that meet a certain pattern. Imagine I have my own customized regex language for working on numbers, where [[ =5 ]] represents any number = 5. I want to capture this case: ([[ >=5 ]]{3,})[[ <3 ]]{2,} In other words, I want to begin capturing any time I look ahead and see 3 or more values = 5 in a row, and stop capturing any time I look ahead and see 2+ values < 3. So my output should be: >>> stream_processor.process(number_stream) [[5,6,10,11,10,13,5],...] Note that the first 7,8,... is ignored because it's not long enough, and that the capture ends before the 0,1,0.... I'd also like a stream_processor object I can incrementally pass more data into in subsequent process calls, and return captured chunks as they're completed. I've written some code to do it, but it was hideous and state-machiney, and I can't help feeling like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas to do this cleanly?

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