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  • Weird error running com-exposed assembly

    - by Bernabé Panarello
    I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

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  • Setting up a "cookieless domain" to improve site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • How to determine the (natural) language of a document?

    - by Robert Petermeier
    I have a set of documents in two languages: English and German. There is no usable meta information about these documents, a program can look at the content only. Based on that, the program has to decide which of the two languages the document is written in. Is there any "standard" algorithm for this problem that can be implemented in a few hours' time? Or alternatively, a free .NET library or toolkit that can do this? I know about LingPipe, but it is Java Not free for "semi-commercial" usage This problem seems to be surprisingly hard. I checked out the Google AJAX Language API (which I found by searching this site first), but it was ridiculously bad. For six web pages in German to which I pointed it only one guess was correct. The other guesses were Swedish, English, Danish and French... A simple approach I came up with is to use a list of stop words. My app already uses such a list for German documents in order to analyze them with Lucene.Net. If my app scans the documents for occurrences of stop words from either language the one with more occurrences would win. A very naive approach, to be sure, but it might be good enough. Unfortunately I don't have the time to become an expert at natural-language processing, although it is an intriguing topic.

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  • LINQ compiled query DataBind issue

    - by Brian
    Hello All, I have a pretty extensive reporting page that uses LINQ. There is one main function that returns an IQueryable object. I then further filter / aggregate the returned query depending on the report the user needs. I changed this function to a compiled query, it worked great, and the speed increase was astonishing. The only problem comes when i want to databind the results. I am databinding to a standard asp.net GridView and it works fine, no problems. I am also databinding to an asp.net chart control, this is where my page is throwing an error. this works well: GridView gv = new GridView(); gv.DataSource = gridSource; But this does not: Series s1 = new Series("Series One"); s1.Points.DataBindXY(gridSource, "Month", gridSource, "Success"); The error i receive is this: System.NotSupportedException Specified method is not supported When i look into my gridSource var at run time i see this using a typical linq query: SELECT [t33].[value2] AS [Year], [t33].[value22] AS [Month], [t33].[value3] AS [Calls]...... I see this after i change the query to compiled: {System.Linq.OrderedEnumerable<<>f__AnonymousType15<string,int,int,int,int,int,int,int>,string>} This is obviously the reason why the databindxy is no longer working, but i am not sure how to get around it. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks

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  • Send HTTP 404 from Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • Recommended (remote) backup technique for SQL Compact?

    - by Cool Jon
    Hello. Is there a generally recommended approach to backing up an SQL CE/SQLite database over the Internet? The client source is .NET/Windows based, the backup destination runs Ubuntu. I am using a small SQL CE database and have been trying to figure out the most reasonable approach to doing this. The file size (in terms of transfer time/bandwidth) isn't a big deal. I had a look around, and so far the things I've given thought are: Online backup services (Dropbox, Mozy) Opening an FTP/SFTP connection Writing a custom protocol with public/private keys Unsure regarding #1 because I doubt they would like it if somebody transferred gigabytes of data using a POST; and they do not seem to offer native (or .NET) APIs. FTP/SFTP seems risky in terms of security and privileges (as the password/key would need to be stored on the client side). With the right user group/user privileges this may work. Custom protocol seems overkill, which is why I am hoping somebody has already defined a reasonable API for language/platform-independent backups over the Internet. Any hints S.O.?

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  • Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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  • User roles - why not store in session?

    - by Phil
    I'm porting an ASP.NET application to MVC and need to store two items relating to an authenitcated user: a list of roles and a list of visible item IDs, to determine what the user can or cannot see. We've used WSE with a web service in the past and this made things unbelievably complex and impossible to debug properly. Now we're ditching the web service I was looking foward to drastically simplifying the solution simply to store these things in the session. A colleague suggested using the roles and membership providers but on looking into this I've found a number of problems: a) It suffers from similar but different problems to WSE in that it has to be used in a very constrained way maing it tricky even to write tests; b) The only caching option for the RolesProvider is based on cookies which we've rejected on security grounds; c) It introduces no end of complications and extra unwanted baggage; All we want to do, in a nutshell, is store two string variables in a user's session or something equivalent in a secure way and refer to them when we need to. What seems to be a ten minute job has so far taken several days of investigation and to compound the problem we have now discovered that session IDs can apparently be faked, see http://blogs.sans.org/appsecstreetfighter/2009/06/14/session-attacks-and-aspnet-part-1/ I'm left thinking there is no easy way to do this very simple job, but I find that impossible to believe. Could anyone: a) provide simple information on how to make ASP.NET MVC sessions secure as I always believed they were? b) suggest another simple way to store these two string variables for a logged in user's roles etc. without having to replace one complex nightmare with another as described above? Thank you.

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  • A generic error in GDI+ with ToolStrip in ManagerRenderMode

    - by volody
    I have a vb.net form with ToolStrip menu RenderMode - ManagerRenderMode LayoutStyle - HorizontalStackWithOverflow My development environment is .net 4.0, VS2010, windows 7 x64; but occasionally I am getting next error A generic error occurred in GDI+. Stacktrace: at System.Drawing.Graphics.CheckErrorStatus(Int32 status) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Int32 x, Int32 y, Int32 width, Int32 height) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Rectangle rect) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.FillWithDoubleGradient(Color beginColor, Color middleColor, Color endColor, Graphics g, Rectangle bounds, Int32 firstGradientWidth, Int32 secondGradientWidth, LinearGradientMode mode, Boolean flipHorizontal) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.RenderToolStripBackgroundInternal(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.OnRenderToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripRenderer.DrawToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam)

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  • automated email downloading and treading similar messages

    - by Michael
    Okay here it is : I have built an c# console app that downloads email, save attachments , and stores the subject, from, to, body to a MS SQL Database. I use aspNetPOP3 Component to do this. I have build a front end ASP.NET application to search and view the messages. Works great. Next Steps (this is where I need help ): Now I want my users (of the asp.net app) to reply to this message send the email to the originator, and tread any additional replies back and forth on from that original message(like basecamp). This would allow my end user not to have to log-in to a system, they just continue using email (our users can as well). The question is what should I use to determine if messages are related? Subject line I think is a bad approach. I believe the best method i've seen so far is way basecamp does it, but I'm not sure how that is done, here is a real example of the reply to address from a basecamp email (I've changed the host name): [email protected] Basecamp obviously are prefixing the pre-pending a tracking id to the email address, however , when I try this with my mail service, it's rejected. Is this the best approach, is there a way I can accomplish this, is there a better approach, or even a better email component tool? Thanks, Mike

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  • NAnt not running NUnit tests

    - by ctford
    I'm using NUnit 2.5 and NAnt 0.85 to compile a .NET 3.5 library. Because NAnt 0.85 doesn't support .NET 3.5 out of the box, I've added an entry for the 3.5 framework to NAnt.exe.config. 'MyLibrary' builds, but when I hit the "test" target to execute the NUnit tests, none of them seem to run. [nunit2] Tests run: 0, Failures: 0, Not run: 0, Time: 0.012 seconds Here are the entries in my NAnt.build file for the building and running the tests: <target name="build_tests" depends="build_core"> <mkdir dir="Target" /> <csc target="library" output="Target\Test.dll" debug="true"> <references> <include name="Target\MyLibrary.dll"/> <include name="Libraries\nunit.framework.dll"/> </references> <sources> <include name="Test\**\*.cs" /> </sources> </csc> </target> <target name="test" depends="build_tests"> <nunit2> <formatter type="Plain" /> <test assemblyname="Target\Test.dll" /> </nunit2> </target> Is there some versioning issue I need to be aware of? Test.dll runs fine in the NUnit GUI. The testing dll is definitely being found, because if I move it I get the following error: Failure executing test(s). If you assembly is not build using NUnit 2.2.8.0... Could not load file or assembly 'Test' or one of its dependencies... I would be grateful if anyone could point me in the right direction or describe a similary situation they have encountered. Edit I have since tried it with NAnt 0.86 beta 1, and the same problem occurs.

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  • Windows Service Conundrum

    - by Paul Johnson
    All, I have a Custom object which I have written using VB.NET (.net 2.0). The object instantiates its own threading.timer object and carries out a number of background process including periodic interrogation of an oracle database and delivery of emails via smtp according to data detected in the database. The following is the code implemented in the windows service class Public Class IncidentManagerService 'Fakes Private _fakeRepoFactory As IRepoFactory Private _incidentRepo As FakeIncidentRepo Private _incidentDefinitionRepo As FakeIncidentDefinitionRepo Private _incManager As IncidentManager.Session 'Real Private _started As Boolean = False Private _repoFactory As New NHibernateRepoFactory Private _psalertsEventRepo As IPsalertsEventRepo = _repoFactory.GetPsalertsEventRepo() Protected Overrides Sub OnStart(ByVal args() As String) ' Add code here to start your service. This method should set things ' in motion so your service can do its work. If Not _started Then Startup() _started = True End If End Sub Protected Overrides Sub OnStop() 'Tear down class variables in order to ensure the service stops cleanly _incManager.Dispose() _incidentDefinitionRepo = Nothing _incidentRepo = Nothing _fakeRepoFactory = Nothing _repoFactory = Nothing End Sub Private Sub Startup() Dim incidents As IList(Of Incident) = Nothing Dim incidentFactory As New IncidentFactory incidents = IncidentFactory.GetTwoFakeIncidents _repoFactory = New NHibernateRepoFactory _fakeRepoFactory = New FakeRepoFactory(incidents) _incidentRepo = _fakeRepoFactory.GetIncidentRepo _incidentDefinitionRepo = _fakeRepoFactory.GetIncidentDefinitionRepo 'Start an incident manager session _incManager = New IncidentManager.Session(_incidentRepo, _incidentDefinitionRepo, _psalertsEventRepo) _incManager.Start() End Sub End Class After a little bit of experimentation I arrived at the above code in the OnStart method. All functionality passed testing when deployed from VS2005 on my development PC, however when deployed on a true target machine, the service would not start and responds with the following message: "The service on local computer started and then stopped..." Am I going about this the correct way? If not how can I best implement my incident manager within the confines of the Windows Service class. It seems pointless to implement a timer for the incidentmanager because this already implements its own timer... Any assistance much appreciated. Kind Regards Paul J.

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  • WCF identity when moving from dev to prod. environment

    - by Anders Abel
    I have a web service developed with WCF. In the development environment the endpoint has the following identity section under the endpoint configuration. <identity> <dns value="myservice.devdomain.local" /> </identity> myservice.devdomain.local is the dns name used to reach the development version of the service. The binding used is: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name ="myBinding"> <security mode ="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> I am about to put this into production. The binding will be the same, but the address will be a new production address myservice.proddomain.local. I have planned to change the dns value in the configuration to myservice.proddomain.local in the production environment. However this MSDN article on WCF Identity makes me worried about the impact on the clients when I change the identity. There are two clients - one .NET and one Java using this service. Both of those have been developed against the dev instance of the service. The idea is to just reconfigure the endpoint used by the clients, without reloading the WSDL. But if the identity is somehow part of the WSDL and the identity changes when deploying to prod that might not work. Will the new identity in the prod version cause issues for the clients that were developed using the dev wsdl? Do the Java and the .NET clients handle this differently?

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  • Translate an exception into 404 from Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • Missing line number in stack trace eventhough the PDB files are included

    - by Farzad
    This is running me nuts. I have this web service implemented w/ C# using VS 2008. I publish it on IIS. I have modified the release build so the pdb files are copied along with the dlls into the target directory on inetpub. Also web.config file has debug=true. Then I call a web service that throws an exception. The stack trace does not contain the line numbers. I have no idea what I am missing here, any ideas? Additional Info: If I run the web app using VS built-in web server, it works and I get line numbers in stack trace. But if I copy the same files (pdb and dll) that the VS built-in web server is using to IIS, still the line numbers are missing in stack trace. It seems that there is something related to the IIS that ignores the pdb files! Update When I publish to IIS, all the pdb files are published under the bin directory and everything looks fine. But when I go to "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" under the specific directory related to my project, I can see that the assembly (.dll) files are all there, but there is no pdb files. But this does not happen if I run the project using VS built-in web server. So if I copy the pdb files manually to the temp folder, I can see the line numbers. Any idea why the pdb files are not copied to the temp folder? BTW, when I attach to the worker process I can see that it says Symbols loaded!

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  • How to display value in the SimpleModal's dialog?

    - by bhsstudio
    Hi, my question is really simple. I have a asp.net button. I can use it to call the simpleModal and have a dialog displayed. Now, I added a label control in the dialog, and would like this label to display some value. What should I do? Here is my codes $('#<%= btnOpen.ClientID %>').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#content').modal({ onOpen: function(dialog) { dialog.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function() { dialog.data.hide(); dialog.container.fadeIn('slow', function() { dialog.data.slideDown('slow'); }); }); }, onClose: function(dialog) { dialog.data.fadeOut('slow', function() { dialog.container.slideUp('slow', function() { dialog.overlay.fadeOut('slow', function() { $.modal.close(); // must call this! }); }); }); } }); e.preventDefault(); // return false; }); <asp:Button ID="btnOpen" runat="server" Text="ASP.NET Open"/> <div id="content" style="display: none;"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text=""></asp:Label> </div>

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  • Mysterious socket / HttpWebRequest timeouts

    - by Daniel Mošmondor
    I have a great app for capturing shoutcast streams :-) . So far, it worked with a charm on dozens of machines, and never exhibited behaviour I found now, which is ultimately very strange. I use HttpWebRequest to connect to the shoutcast server and when I connect two streams, everything's OK. When I go for third one, response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); throws with Connection Timeout exception. WTF? I must point out that I had to create .config for the application in order to allow my headers to be sent out from the application, otherwise it wouldn't work at all. Here it is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.net> <settings> <httpWebRequest useUnsafeHeaderParsing = "true" /> </settings> </system.net> </configuration> Does any of this ring a bell?

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  • Application connection with database persist after sucessfull transaction also.

    - by anupam3m
    Hi , I am using Spring.Data.NHibernate12 on my database level.my application connection with database is not getting released. Underneath given is Dataconfiguration.xml < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net" xmlns:db="http://www.springframework.net/database" < object id="AuditLogger" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit.AuditLogger, Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit" singleton="false" < property name="CacheSettings" ref="CacheSettings"/ < /object < object id="CacheSettings" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities.UpdateEntityCacheHelper, Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities" singleton="false"/ < object type="Spring.Objects.Factory.Config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, Spring.Core" < <property name="ConfigSections" value="databaseSettings"/> < < db:provider id="AMACDbProvider" provider="OracleClient-2.0" connectionString="Data Source=RISCODEVDB;User ID=amsbvt; Password=amsuser1234;"/ Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.Mapping Risco.Rsp.Ac.Logging.Appenders Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMappings --

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  • MVC view engine that can render classic ASP?

    - by David Lively
    I'm about to start integrating ASP.NET MVC into an existing 200k+ line classic ASP application. Rewriting the existing code (which runs an entire business, not just the public-facing website) is not an option. The existing ASP 3.0 pages are quite nicely structured (given what was available when this model was put into place nearly 15 years ago), like so: <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/db.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/stats.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/topbar.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/lftbar.asp"--> <h1>page name</h1> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>.....</p> <h2>Today's Top Forum Posts</h2> <%=forum_top_posts(1)%> <!--#include virtual="/_template/footer.asp"--> ... or somesuch. Some pages will include function and sub definitions, but for the most part these exist in include files. I'm wondering how difficult it would be to write an MVC view engine that could render classic ASP, preferably using the existing ASP.DLL. In that case, I could replace <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> with <%= Html.RenderPartial("lib/user"); %> as I gradually move existing pages from ASP to ASP.NET. Since the existing formatting and library includes are used very extensively, they must be maintained. I'd like to avoid having to maintain two separate versions. I know the ideal way to go about this would be to simply start a new app and say to hell with the ASP code, however, that simply ain't gonna happen. Ideas?

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  • Access Denied while using System.Diagnostics.Process

    - by Mike C
    I am trying to use the unmanaged ImageMagick library in my ASP.NET application from the command line using System.Diagnostics.Process. Basically, users will upload an .eps file to the site, and then I will run the command line command to convert it into .jpg. This is the code I'm using to try and run the command: Dim proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = True proc.StartInfo.FileName = "C:\Program Files (x86)\ImageMagick-6.6.1-Q16\convert.exe" proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False proc.StartInfo.Arguments = String.Format("{0} {1}", Server.MapPath("~/logo/test.eps"), _ Server.MapPath("~/certificates/temp/test-1234.jpg")) proc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True proc.Start() I am able to run this code just fine on our development Win 2k3 server, but not on our production Win 2k3 Server. I get the error "System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied". The main between the two servers is that the production is 64-bit and runs Plesk to manage multiple domains. I've tried adding rights asp.net user to the ImageMagick directory. The PS Admin says that in the case of Plesk, it's the same account that I use to access the site in VS using FPE. Does anyone know what I might do in order to allow this process to run on my production server? Thanks, Mike

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  • Best way to pass image to server?

    - by Chris
    I have an SL3 application that needs to be able to pass an image to the server, and then the server will generate a PDF file with the image in it, and display it to the user. What I already have in place are the following: (1) Code to convert image to byte array (2) Code to generate PDF file with image The main problem that I am running into is the following: In order to bypass the pop-up blocker, which is a requirement for my application, I am using the following code: var button = new NavigationButton(); button.NavigateUri = new Uri("http://localhost:3616/PrintReport.aspx?ReportIndex=11&ActionType=Get&ReportIdentifier=" + reportIdentifier.ToString() + ""); button.TargetName = "_blank"; button.PerformClick(); Initially, I would pass the image to a WCF web service (as a byte array), and then "navigate" to the ASP.NET page that would display the report. However, if I do this, then I can not use my custom HyperlinkButton class, and, certain browsers, including Safari, will block a new window from opening up. Therefore, it appears that the only option is to use the HyperlinkButton class. What I need to be able to do is to somehow pass the image, as a byte array or some other data type, to the server, such that it can temporarily store the image, even if it is in a server variable, and then immediately retrieve it when I navigate to the PrintReport.aspx page. If I upload the image to an ASP.NET form and then use the HyperlinkButton class to navigate to the PrintReport page, it doesn't work, as the app navigates to the PrintReport page before the system has finished uploading the image. I can't pass it to a web service, as that would require that I navigate to the PrintReport.aspx page in the callback code of the web method that I would be passing the image to, and the HyperlinkButton will not allow that, based on security rules. Any help or ideas would be appreciated. Thanks. Chris

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  • How to read a database record with a DataReader and add it to a DataTable

    - by Olga
    Hello I have some data in a Oracle database table(around 4 million records) which i want to transform and store in a MSSQL database using ADO.NET. So far i used (for much smaller tables) a DataAdapter to read the data out of the Oracle DataBase and add the DataTable to a DataSet for further processing. When i tried this with my huge table, there was a outofmemory exception thrown. ( I assume this is because i cannot load the whole table into my memory) :) Now i am looking for a good way to perform this extract/transfer/load, without storing the whole table in the memory. I would like to use a DataReader and read the single dataRecords in a DataTable. If there are about 100k rows in it, I would like to process them and clear the DataTable afterwards(to have free memory again). Now i would like to know how to add a single datarecord as a row to a dataTable with ado.net and how to completly clear the dataTable out of memory: My code so far: Dim dt As New DataTable Dim count As Int32 count = 0 ' reads data records from oracle database table' While rdr.Read() 'read n records and add them to a dataTable' While count < 10000 dt.Rows.Add(????) count = count + 1 End While 'transform data in the dataTable, and insert it to the destination' ' flush the dataTable after insertion' count = 0 End While Thank you very much for your response!

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  • Attempted to read or write protected memory

    - by Interfector
    I have a sample ASP.NET MVC 3 web application that is following Jonathan McCracken's Test-Drive Asp.NET MVC (great book , by the way) and I have stumbled upon a problem. Note that I'm using MVCContrib, Rhino and NUnit. [Test] public void ShouldSetLoggedInUserToViewBag() { var todoController = new TodoController(); var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); builder.InitializeController(todoController); builder.HttpContext.User = new GenericPrincipal(new GenericIdentity("John Doe"), null); Assert.That(todoController.Index().AssertViewRendered().ViewData["UserName"], Is.EqualTo("John Doe")); } The code above always throws this error: System.AccessViolationException : Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The controller action code is the following: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { ViewData.Model = Todo.ThingsToBeDone; ViewBag.UserName = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; return View(); } From what I have figured out, the app seems to crash because of the two assignements in the controller action. However, I cannot see how there are wrong!? Can anyone help me pinpoint the solution to this problem. Thank you.

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  • How update DB table with DataSet

    - by Paul
    I am begginer with ADO.NET , I try update table with DataSet. O client side I have dataset with one table. I send this dataset on service side (it is ASP.NET Web Service). On Service side I try update table in database, but it dont 't work. public bool Update(DataSet ds) { SqlConnection conn = null; SqlDataAdapter da = null; SqlCommand cmd = null; try { string sql = "UPDATE * FROM Tab1"; string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); cmd=new SqlCommand(sql,conn); da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, conn); da.UpdateCommand = cmd; da.Update(ds.Tables[0]); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { if (conn != null) conn.Close(); if (da != null) da.Dispose(); } } Where can be problem?

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  • Sharepoint OLE DB - cannot insert records? "Field not updateable" error

    - by Pandincus
    I need to write a simple C# .NET application to retrieve, update, and insert some data in a Sharepoint list. I am NOT a Sharepoint developer, and I don't have control over our Sharepoint server. I would prefer not to have to develop this in a proper sharepoint development environment simply because I don't want to have to deploy my application on the Sharepoint server -- I'd rather just access data externally. Anyway, I found out that you can access Sharepoint data using OLE DB, and I tried it successfully using some ADO.NET: var db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (var command = db.GetSqlStringCommand("SELECT * FROM List")) { db.LoadDataSet(command, ds, "List"); } The above works. However, when I try to insert: using (var command = db.GetSqlStringCommand("INSERT INTO List ([HeaderName], [Description], [Number]) VALUES ('Blah', 'Blah', 100)")) { db.ExecuteNonQuery(command); } I get this error: Cannot update 'HeaderName'; field not updateable. I did some Googling and apparently you cannot insert data through OLE DB! Does anyone know if there are some possible workarounds? I could try using Sharepoint Web Services, but I tried that initially and was having a heck of a time authenticating. Is that my only option?

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