Search Results

Search found 36013 results on 1441 pages for 'public fields'.

Page 748/1441 | < Previous Page | 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751 752 753 754 755  | Next Page >

  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

    Read the article

  • Beyond the @Produces annotation, how does Jersey (JAX-RS) know to treat a POJO as a specific mime ty

    - by hal10001
    I see a lot of examples for Jersey that look something like this: public class ItemResource { @GET @Path("/items") @Produces({"text/xml", "application/json"}) public List<Item> getItems() { List<Item> items = new ArrayList<Item>(); Item item = new Item(); item.setItemName("My Item Name!"); items.add(item); return items; } } But then I have trouble dissecting Item, and how Jersey knows how to translate an Item to either XML or JSON. I've seen very basic examples that just return a String of constructed HTML or XML, which makes more sense to me, but I'm missing the next step. I looked at the samples, and one of them stood out (the json-from-jaxb sample), since the object was marked with these types of annotations: @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "", propOrder = { "flight" }) @XmlRootElement(name = "flights") I'm looking for tutorials that cover this "translation" step-by-step, or an explanation here of how to translate a POJO to output as a specific mime type. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Spring Stripes framework problem

    - by ali
    I am new to stripes and am attempting to integrate spring into stripes In the following code : public class ContactFormActionBeanTest { private static MockServletContext mockServletContext; private static MockHttpSession mockSession; @BeforeClass public static void setup() throws Exception { mockServletContext = new MockServletContext("webmail"); Map<String,String> params = new HashMap<String,String>(); params.put("ActionResolver.Packages", "stripesbook.action"); params.put("Extension.Packages", "stripesbook.ext," + "net.sourceforge.stripes.integration.spring"); mockServletContext.addFilter(StripesFilter.class, "StripesFilter", params); mockServletContext.setServlet(DispatcherServlet.class, "DispatcherServlet", null); mockSession = new MockHttpSession(mockServletContext); mockServletContext.addInitParameter("contextConfigLocation", "/WEB-INF/applicationContext-test.xml"); ContextLoaderListener springContextLoader = new ContextLoaderListener(); springContextLoader.contextInitialized( new ServletContextEvent(mockServletContext)); // Load mock user MockRoundtrip trip = new MockRoundtrip(mockServletContext, MockDataLoaderActionBean.class, mockSession); trip.execute(); // Login mock user trip = new MockRoundtrip(mockServletContext, LoginActionBean.class, mockSession); trip.setParameter("username", "freddy"); trip.setParameter("password", "nadia"); trip.execute("login"); } I get null in springContextLoader ContextLoaderListener springContextLoader = new ContextLoaderListener(); and test fails. Am I missing something? I am using eclipse with maven. Also when I try to deploy it for tomcat 6.0 I get following warnings: WARN net.sourceforge.stripes.util.ResolverUtil - Could not examine class 'stripesbook/ext/ContactFormatter.class' due to a java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError with message: Bad version number in .class file (unable to load class stripesbook.ext.ContactFormatter) I have checked to be sure that I am compiling with Java 5(set JDK compiler to 1.5) instead of 1.6 (Java 6); but didn't work out for me and still have problems running spring-stripes integrated project.

    Read the article

  • Can't seem to load a webview from xml, why?

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm trying to follow the tutorial from http://rapidandroid.org/wiki/Graphing. But I found a problem just in the first part of it. I'll describe the problem here, I just cannot understand how this could be wrong, it's pretty simple stuff. What am I doing wrong here? First I created a xml file called statistics.xml, in it among other things I put this code: <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent"/> Now in the activity that is supposed to display this webview I'm doing this: public class DisplayStatistics extends Activity { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView wv = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); The problem arises here, as I seem to be getting null for wv whenever I test for it. Which means of course that findViewById(R.id.webview) couldn't find the view. But again, what am I doing wrong?? Of course I know I could also instantiate the webview directly from code without the need to specify it from the xml, but I was just wondering what was wrong about this way of doing it. Just in case I also added the following line in my android manifest file: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> I'm not really sure if it's necessary for displaying the webview (I think not) but I just put it there to see if that was the problem, and it turned out it isn't. Thanks Nelson

    Read the article

  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

    Read the article

  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

    Read the article

  • How do I simulate "Is In" using Linq2Sql

    - by flipdoubt
    I often find myself with a list of disconnected Linq2Sql objects or keys that I need to re-select from a Linq2Sql data-context to update or delete in the database. If this were SQL, I would use IS IN in the SQL WHERE clause, but I am stuck with what to do in Linq2Sql. Here is a sample of what I would like to write: public void MarkValidated(IList<int> idsToValidate) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate).ToList(); foreach(var item in items) item.Validated = DateTime.Now; _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Or: public void DeleteItems(IList<int> idsToDelete) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate); _Db.Items.DeleteAllOnSubmit(items); _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Can I get this done in one trip to the database? If so, how? Is it possible to send all those ints to the database as a list of parameters and is that more efficient than doing a foreach over the list to select each item one at a time?

    Read the article

  • Using Rx to synchronize asynchronous events

    - by Martin Liversage
    I want to put Reactive Extensions for .NET (Rx) to good use and would like to get some input on doing some basic tasks. To illustrate what I'm trying to do I have a contrived example where I have an external component with asyncronous events: class Component { public void BeginStart() { ... } public event EventHandler Started; } The component is started by calling BeginStart(). This method returns immediately, and later, when the component has completed startup, the Started event fires. I want to create a synchronous start method by wrapping the component and wait until the Started event is fired. This is what I've come up with so far: class ComponentWrapper { readonly Component component = new Component(); void StartComponent() { var componentStarted = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>(this.component, "Started"); using (var startedEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false)) using (componentStarted.Take(1).Subscribe(e => { startedEvent.Set(); })) { this.componenet.BeginStart(); startedEvent.WaitOne(); } } } I would like to get rid of the ManualResetEvent, and I expect that Rx has a solution. But how?

    Read the article

  • Apache CXF REST Services w/ Spring AOP

    - by jconlin
    I'm trying to get Apache CXF JAX-RS services working with Spring AOP. I've created a simple logging class: public class AOPLogger{ public void logBefore(){ System.out.println("Logging Before!"); } } My Spring configuration (beans.xml): <aop:config> <aop:aspect id="aopLogger" ref="test.aop.AOPLogger"> <aop:before method="logBefore" pointcut="execution(* test.rest.RestService(..))"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> <bean id="aopLogger" class="test.aop.AOPLogger"/> I always get an NPE in RestService when a call is made to a Method getServletRequest(), which has: return messageContext.getHttpServletRequest(); If I remove the aop configuration or comment it out from my beans.xml, everything works fine. All of my actual Rest services extend test.rest.RestService (which is a class) and call getServletRequest(). I'm just trying to just get AOP up and running based off of the example in the CXF JAX-RS documentation. Does anyone have any idea what I'm doing wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why this method does not use any properties of the object?

    - by Roman
    Here I found this code: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class FunWithPanels extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { FunWithPanels frame = new FunWithPanels(); frame.doSomething(); } void doSomething() { Container c = getContentPane(); JPanel p1 = new JPanel(); p1.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); p1.add(new JButton("A"), BorderLayout.NORTH); p1.add(new JButton("B"), BorderLayout.WEST); JPanel p2 = new JPanel(); p2.setLayout(new GridLayout(3, 2)); p2.add(new JButton("F")); p2.add(new JButton("G")); p2.add(new JButton("H")); p2.add(new JButton("I")); p2.add(new JButton("J")); p2.add(new JButton("K")); JPanel p3 = new JPanel(); p3.setLayout(new BoxLayout(p3, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); p3.add(new JButton("L")); p3.add(new JButton("M")); p3.add(new JButton("N")); p3.add(new JButton("O")); p3.add(new JButton("P")); c.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); c.add(p1, BorderLayout.CENTER); c.add(p2, BorderLayout.SOUTH); c.add(p3, BorderLayout.EAST); pack(); setVisible(true); } } I do not understand how "doSomething" use the fact that "frame" is an instance of the class JFrame. It is not clear to me because there is no reference to "this" in the code for the method "doSomething".

    Read the article

  • Has anyone used Ant4Eclipse with Project Lombok?

    - by gmcnaughton
    Has anyone successfully used Ant4Eclipse (http://www.ant4eclipse.org/) in combination with Project Lombok (http://projectlombok.org/)? Lombok provides annotations for removing boilerplate code; however, it doesn't appear to play nicely with Ant4Eclipse (headless compilation of Eclipse projects). For instance, the following Lombok sample compiles fine in Eclipse and javac: import lombok.Getter; public class LombokTest { private @Getter String foo; public LombokTest() { String s = this.getFoo(); } } But compiling with Ant4Eclipse's <buildJdtProject> yields the following: [javac] Compiling 1 source file [javac] ---------- [javac] 1. WARNING in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 4) [javac] private @Getter String foo; [javac] ^^^ [javac] The field LombokTest.foo is never read locally [javac] ---------- [javac] 2. ERROR in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 8) [javac] String s = this.getFoo(); [javac] ^^^^^^ [javac] The method getFoo() is undefined for the type LombokTest [javac] ---------- Has anyone successfully used these libraries together? Thanks! Edit: sample project demonstrating the issue

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

    Read the article

  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

    Read the article

  • Pattern for limiting number of simultaneous asynchronous calls

    - by hitch
    I need to retrieve multiple objects from an external system. The external system supports multiple simultaneous requests (i.e. threads), but it is possible to flood the external system - therefore I want to be able to retrieve multiple objects asynchronously, but I want to be able to throttle the number of simultaneous async requests. i.e. I need to retrieve 100 items, but don't want to be retrieving more than 25 of them at once. When each request of the 25 completes, I want to trigger another retrieval, and once they are all complete I want to return all of the results in the order they were requested (i.e. there is no point returning the results until the entire call is returned). Are there any recommended patterns for this sort of thing? Would something like this be appropriate (pseudocode, obviously)? private List<externalSystemObjects> returnedObjects = new List<externalSystemObjects>; public List<externalSystemObjects> GetObjects(List<string> ids) { int callCount = 0; int maxCallCount = 25; WaitHandle[] handles; foreach(id in itemIds to get) { if(callCount < maxCallCount) { WaitHandle handle = executeCall(id, callback); addWaitHandleToWaitArray(handle) } else { int returnedCallId = WaitHandle.WaitAny(handles); removeReturnedCallFromWaitHandles(handles); } } WaitHandle.WaitAll(handles); return returnedObjects; } public void callback(object result) { returnedObjects.Add(result); }

    Read the article

  • What's the order of execution when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question 1) In a binding situation, what happens? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

    Read the article

  • identifying id of listitem for contextmenu

    - by martinjd
    I have a View that extends Activity. A ListView will display a number of listitems. When the user long clicks I would like to present them with a contextmenu allowing them to select edit, delete etc... and then identify the listitem that was selected as the item to perform the action on. In onCreate I have: listView.setAdapter(adapter); listView.setOnItemClickListener(onListClick); listView.setOnItemLongClickListener(onListLongClick); registerForContextMenu(listView); I have a method onCreateContextMenu @Override public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo) { super.onCreateContextMenu(menu, v, menuInfo); menu.setHeaderTitle("Context Menu"); menu.add(0, v.getId(), 0, "Edit"); menu.add(0, v.getId(), 0, "Delete"); } and also onContextItemSelected @Override public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { if (item.getTitle() == "Edit") { // edit action } else if (item.getTitle() == "Delete") { // delete action } else { return false; } return true; } I am not sure where to go from here to get the correct row/listitem.

    Read the article

  • System.Design cannot be referenced in Class Library?

    - by Alex Yeung
    Hi all, I have a very strange problem that I cannot fix and don't know what's going on... I am using VS 2010 Premium and .NET 4.0. Here are my steps to simulate the problem. Step 1. Create a new VB class library project named "MyClassLib" Step 2. Create a new class named "MyTestingClass". Public Class MyTestingClass Inherits System.ComponentModel.Design.CollectionEditor Public Sub New() MyBase.New(GetType(List(Of String))) End Sub End Class Step 3. Add two .net reference. "System.Design" and "System.Drawing". Step 4. Create a new VB console application named "MyClassExe" Step 5. Add "MyClassLib" reference to "MyClassExe". Step 6. Open Module1.vb in "MyClassExe" project Step 7. In the Main method, type Dim a = New MyClassLib.MyTestingClass() Step 8. Try to compile "MyClassLib". It doesn't have problem. Step 9. Try to compile "MyClassExe". It cannot compile because the WHOLE MyClassLib cannot be found!!! I have no idea what's going on? Moreover, the same case happens in C#. Does anyone know what's the problem with "System.Design"? Thank!!!

    Read the article

  • Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

    - by Andrew A
    I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring in tact

    - by ajbeaven
    I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(string message, string to) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

    Read the article

  • C# graphics flickering

    - by David
    Hello, I am working on kind of drawing program but I have a problem with flickering while moving a mouse cursor while drawing a rubberband line. I hope you can help me to remove that flickering of line, here is the code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace GraphicsTest { public partial class Form1 : Form { int xFirst, yFirst; Bitmap bm = new Bitmap(1000, 1000); Graphics bmG; Graphics xG; Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Black, 1); bool draw = false; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { bmG = Graphics.FromImage(bm); xG = this.CreateGraphics(); bmG.Clear(Color.White); } private void Form1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { xFirst = e.X; yFirst = e.Y; draw = true; } private void Form1_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { bmG.DrawLine(pen, xFirst, yFirst, e.X, e.Y); draw = false; xG.DrawImage(bm, 0, 0); } private void Form1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (draw) { xG.DrawImage(bm, 0, 0); xG.DrawLine(pen, xFirst, yFirst, e.X, e.Y); } } private void Form1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { xG.DrawImage(bm, 0, 0); } } }

    Read the article

  • Filtering records in app-engine (Java)

    - by Manjoor
    I have following code running perfectly. It filter records based on single parameter. public List<Orders> GetOrders(String email) { PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); Query query = pm.newQuery(Orders.class); query.setFilter("Email == pEmail"); query.setOrdering("Id desc"); query.declareParameters("String pEmail"); query.setRange(0,50); return (List<Orders>) query.execute(email); } Now i want to filter on multiple parameters. sdate and edate is Start Date and End Date. In datastore it is saved as Date (not String). public List<Orders> GetOrders(String email,String icode,String sdate, String edate) { PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); Query query = pm.newQuery(Orders.class); query.setFilter("Email == pEmail"); query.setFilter("ItemCode == pItemCode"); query.declareParameters("String pEmail"); query.declareParameters("String pItemCode"); .....//Set filter and declare other 2 parameters .....// ...... query.setRange(0,50); query.setOrdering("Id desc"); return (List<Orders>) query.execute(email,icode,sdate,edate); } Any clue?

    Read the article

  • Why should the "prime-based" hashcode implmentation be used instead of the "naive" one?

    - by Wilhelm
    I have seen that a prime number implmentation of the GetHashCode function is being recommend, for example here. However using the following code (in VB, sorry), it seems as if that implementation gives the same hash density as a "naive" xor implementation. If the density is the same, I would suppose there is the same probability of cllision in both implementations. Am I missing anything on why is the prime approach preferred? I am supossing that if the hash code is a byte I do not lose generality for the integer case. Sub Main() Dim XorHashes(255) As Integer Dim PrimeHashes(255) As Integer For i = 0 To 255 For j = 0 To 255 For k = 0 To 255 XorHashes(GetXorHash(i, j, k)) += 1 PrimeHashes(GetPrimeHash(i, j, k)) += 1 Next Next Next For i = 0 To 255 Console.WriteLine("{0}: {1}, {2}", i, XorHashes(i), PrimeHashes(i)) Next Console.ReadKey() End Sub Public Function GetXorHash(ByVal valueOne As Integer, ByVal valueTwo As Integer, ByVal valueThree As Integer) As Byte Return CByte((valueOne Xor valueTwo Xor valueThree) Mod 256) End Function Public Function GetPrimeHash(ByVal valueOne As Integer, ByVal valueTwo As Integer, ByVal valueThree As Integer) As Byte Dim TempHash = 17 TempHash = 31 * TempHash + valueOne TempHash = 31 * TempHash + valueTwo TempHash = 31 * TempHash + valueThree Return CByte(TempHash Mod 256) End Function

    Read the article

  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

    Read the article

  • Delay before playing embedded mp3 in Actionscript / Flex 3

    - by lacker
    I am embedding an mp3 into my Flex project for use as a sound effect, but I am finding that every time I play it, there is a delay of about half a second from when I call .play() to when you can hear the sound. This makes it weird because I want the sound effects to sync to game events. My mp3 itself is only about a fifth of a second long so it isn't because of the contents of the mp3. I'm embedding with [Embed(source="assets/Tock.mp3")] [Bindable] public static var TockSound:Class; public var tock_sound:SoundAsset; and then playing with if (tock_sound == null) { tock_sound = new TockSound() as SoundAsset; } Alert.show("tock"); tock_sound.play(); I know there's a delay because the sound plays about a half second after the Alert displays. I did consider that maybe it was the initial loading time of constructing the TockSound, but the delay is there on all the subsequent calls as well. How can I avoid this delay on playing a sound? Update: It turns out this delay is only present when playing the swf on Linux. I believe it is a Linux-specific flaw in Adobe's flash player.

    Read the article

  • .Net Finalizer Order / Semantics in Esent and Ravendb

    - by mattcodes
    Help me understand. I've read that "The time and order of execution of finalizers cannot be predicted or pre-determined" Correct? However looking at RavenDB source code TransactionStorage.cs I see this ~TransactionalStorage() { try { Trace.WriteLine( "Disposing esent resources from finalizer! You should call TransactionalStorage.Dispose() instead!"); Api.JetTerm2(instance, TermGrbit.Abrupt); } catch (Exception exception) { try { Trace.WriteLine("Failed to dispose esent instance from finalizer because: " + exception); } catch { } } } The API class (which belongs to Managed Esent) which presumable takes handles on native resources presumably using a SafeHandle? So if I understand correctly the native handles SafeHandle can be finalized before TransactionStorage which could have undesired effects, perhaps why Ayende has added an catch all clause around this? Actually diving into Esent code, it does not use SafeHandles. According to CLR via C# this is dangerous? internal static class SomeType { [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] // This prototype is not robust private static extern IntPtr CreateEventBad( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name); // This prototype is robust [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] private static extern SafeWaitHandle CreateEventGood( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name) public static void SomeMethod() { IntPtr handle = CreateEventBad(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); SafeWaitHandle swh = CreateEventGood(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); } } Managed Esent (NativeMEthods.cs) looks like this (using Ints vs IntPtrs?): [DllImport(EsentDll, CharSet = EsentCharSet, ExactSpelling = true)] public static extern int JetCreateDatabase(IntPtr sesid, string szFilename, string szConnect, out uint dbid, uint grbit); Is Managed Esent handling finalization/dispoal the correct way, and second is RavenDB handling finalizer the corret way or compensating for Managed Esent?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751 752 753 754 755  | Next Page >