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  • not a valid AllXsd value

    - by jun
    I got this from a Soap client request: Exception: SoapFault exception: [soap:Client] Server was unable to read request. --- There is an error in XML document (2, 273). --- The string '2010-5-24' is not a valid AllXsd value. in /path/filinet.php:21 Stack trace: #0 [internal function]: SoapClient-__call('SubIdDetailsByO...', Array) #1 /path/filinet.php(21): SoapClient-SubIdDetailsByOfferId(Array) #2 {main} Seems like I am sending an incorrect value, how do I format my value in an AllXsd in php? Here is my code: <?php $start = isset($_GET['start']) ? $_GET['start'] : date("Y-m-d"); $end = isset($_GET['end']) ? $_GET['end'] : date("Y-m-d"); //define parameter array $param = array('userName'=>'user', 'password'=>'pass', 'startDate' => $start, 'endDate' => $end, 'promotionId' => ''); //Get wsdl path $serverPath = "https://webservices.filinet.com/affiliate/reports.asmx?WSDL"; //Declare Soap client $client = new SoapClient($serverPath); try { //make the call $result = $client->SubIdDetailsByOfferId($param); //If error found display error if(isset($fault)) { echo "Error: ". $fault; } //If no error display response else { //Used to display raw XML in the Web Browser header("Content-Type: text/xml;"); //SubIdDetailsResult = XML results echo $result->SubIdDetailsByOfferIdResult; } } catch(SoapFault $ex) { echo "<b>Exception:</b> ". $ex; } unset($client); ?>

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • iPhone: Remove annotation from MKMapView which is in another view

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have two views. The first is a MKMapView with some annotations. Clicking a UIButton pushes a second view on the stack. This has a UITableView with a list of annotations which correspond to the map annotations. So, when you click the delete button, how can I call my MKMapView which is in another view, so that I can remove the annotation. My MKMapView is declared in my app delegate, as well as my current class. I am trying to use the following, but it is not working: RideAppDelegate *appDelegate = (RideAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; Annotation *ano; CLLocationCoordinate2D anoPoint; anoPoint.latitude = [[eventToDelete valueForKey:@"latitude"] doubleValue]; anoPoint.longitude = [[eventToDelete valueForKey:@"longitude"] doubleValue]; ano = [[[Annotation alloc] init] autorelease]; ano.coordinate = anoPoint; [appDelegate.ridesMap removeAnnotation: ano]; [appDelegate release]; I must be trying to access the MKMapView of my other view incorrectly?

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  • JPA - Setting entity class property from calculated column?

    - by growse
    I'm just getting to grips with JPA in a simple Java web app running on Glassfish 3 (Persistence provider is EclipseLink). So far, I'm really liking it (bugs in netbeans/glassfish interaction aside) but there's a thing that I want to be able to do that I'm not sure how to do. I've got an entity class (Article) that's mapped to a database table (article). I'm trying to do a query on the database that returns a calculated column, but I can't figure out how to set up a property of the Article class so that the property gets filled by the column value when I call the query. If I do a regular "select id,title,body from article" query, I get a list of Article objects fine, with the id, title and body properties filled. This works fine. However, if I do the below: Query q = em.createNativeQuery("select id,title,shorttitle,datestamp,body,true as published, ts_headline(body,q,'ShortWord=0') as headline, type from articles,to_tsquery('english',?) as q where idxfti @@ q order by ts_rank(idxfti,q) desc",Article.class); (this is a fulltext search using tsearch2 on Postgres - it's a db-specific function, so I'm using a NativeQuery) You can see I'm fetching a calculated column, called headline. How do I add a headline property to my Article class so that it gets populated by this query? So far, I've tried setting it to be @Transient, but that just ends up with it being null all the time.

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  • Is There a Time at which to ignore IDisposable.Dispose?

    - by Mystagogue
    Certainly we should call Dipose() on IDisposable objects as soon as we don't need them (which is often merely the scope of a "using" statement). If we don't take that precaution then bad things, from subtle to show-stopping, might happen. But what about "the last moment" before process termination? If your IDisposables have not been explicitly disposed by that point in time, isn't it true that it no longer matters? I ask because unmanaged resources, beneath the CLR, are represented by kernel objects - and the win32 process termination will free all unmanaged resources / kernel objects anyway. Said differently, no resources will remain "leaked" after the process terminates (regardless if Dispose() was called on lingering IDisposables). Can anyone think of a case where process termination would still leave a leaked resource, simply because Dispose() was not explicitly called on one or more IDisposables? Please do not misunderstand this question: I am not trying to justify ignoring IDisposables. The question is just technical-theoretical. EDIT: And what about mono running on Linux? Is process termination there just as "reliable" at cleaning up unmanaged "leaks?"

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  • Circular dependecy in winforms app using Castle Windsor

    - by Sven
    Hello, I was experimenting a little bit with Castle winforms in a winforms project. I wanted to register all my form dependencies with Castle windsor. This way I would have a single instance for all my forms. Now I have some problem though. I'm in a situation that form x has a dependency on form y and form y has a dependency on form x. Practical example maybe: form x is used to create an order, form y is the screen that has a list of customers. From form x there is a button to select a customer for the order. This will open form y where ou can search the customer. There is a button that lets you add the found customer to the order. It will call a method on form x and passes the selected customer object. I could do this with events. Raise an event in form y and listen for that in form x. But isn't there a way around the circular dependency in Castle Windsor, lazy registration or something? Can anyone help me out? Thanks in advance

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  • Changing customErrors in web.config semi-dynamically

    - by Tom Ritter
    The basic idea is we have a test enviroment which mimics Production so customErrors="RemoteOnly". We just built a test harness that runs against the Test enviroment and detects breaks. We would like it to be able to pull back the detailed error. But we don't want to turn customErrors="On" because then it doesn't mimic Production. I've looked around and thought a lot, and everything I've come up with isn't possible. Am I wrong about any of these points? We can't turn customErrors on at runtime because when you call configuration.Save() - it writes the web.config to disk and now it's Off for every request. We can't symlink the files into a new top level directory with it's own web.config because we're on windows and subversion on windows doesn't do symlinks. We can't use URL-Mapping to make an empty folder dir2 with its own web.config and make the files in dir1 appear to be in dir2 - the web.config doesn't apply We can't copy all the aspx files into dir2 with it's own web.config because none of the links would be consistent and it's a horrible hacky solution. We can't change customErrors in web.config based on hostname (e.g. add another dns entry to the test server) because it's not possible/supported We can't do any virtual directory shenanigans to make it work. If I'm not, is there a way to accomplish what I'm trying to do? Turn on customErrors site-wide under certain circumstances (dns name or even a querystring value)?

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  • Logging exceptions during bean injection

    - by Marc W
    I think this is a pretty basic question, but after Googling around I can't seem to find the answer. What I need is a way to log some custom output with log4j during Spring bean construction. I have a factory class called ResponderFactory (being used as an instance factory in Spring) with a factory method that can throw 2 different types of exception. public CollectorResponder collectorResponder(String inputQueueName) throws ConfigurationException, BrokerConnectionException {} Now, normally I could wrap a call to this method in a try-catch block with 2 catch clauses to handle the logging situations for each of the exceptions. However, if I'm using Spring to inject this CollectorResponder, created with the factory, into another class I don't see how this is possible. <bean id="responderFactory" class="com.package.ResponderFactory"> <constructor-arg index="0" ref="basicDispatcher" /> <constructor-arg index="1" value="http://localhost:9000" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorResponder" class="com.package.CollectorResponder" factory-bean="responderFactory" factory-method="collectorResponder"> <constructor-arg value="collector.in" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorConsumer" class="com.package.CollectorConsumer"> <constructor-arg ref="collectorResponder" /> </bean> Again, I want to catch these exceptions when the collectorResponder bean is instantiated. Right now I'm dealing with this is CollectorConsumer when I instantiate using new CollectorResponder(...). Is there any way I can do this?

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  • Writing a JMS Publisher without "public static void main"

    - by The Elite Gentleman
    Hi guys, Every example I've seen on the web, e.g. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/docview/jms_to_jms_bridge_activem.aspx, creates a publisher and subscriber with a public static void main method. I don't think that'll work for my web application. I'm learning JMS and I've setup Apache ActiveMQ to run on JBoss 5 and Tomcat 6 (with no glitches). I'm writing a messaging JMS service that needs to send email asynchronously. I've already written a JMS subscriber that receives the message (the class inherits MessageListener). My question is simple: How do I write a publisher that will so that my web applications can call it? Does it have to be published somewhere? My thought is to create a publisher with a no-attribute constructor (in there) and get the MessageQueue Factory, etc. from the JNDI pool (in the constructor). Is my idea correct? How do I subscribe my subscriber to the Queue Receiver? (So far, the subscriber has no constructor, and if I write a constructor, do I always subscribe myself to the Queue receiver?) Thanks for your help, sorry if my terminology is not up to scratch, there are too many java terminologies that I get lost sometimes (maybe a java GPS will do! :-) ) PS Is there a tutorial out there that explains how to write a "better" (better can mean anything, but in my case it's all about performance in high demand requests) JMS Publisher and Subscriber that I can run on Application Server such as JBoss or Glassfish? Don't forget that the JMS application will needs a "guarantee" uptime as many applications will use this.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • Java Concurrency : Synchronized(this) => and this.wait() and this.notify()

    - by jens
    Hello Experts, I would appreciate your help in understand a "Concurrency Example" from: http://forums.sun.com/thread.jspa?threadID=735386 Qute Start: public synchronized void enqueue(T obj) { // do addition to internal list and then... this.notify(); } public synchronized T dequeue() { while (this.size()==0) { this.wait(); } return // something from the queue } Quote End: My Question is: Why is this code valid? = When I synchronize a method like "public synchronized" = then I synchronize on the "Instance of the Object == this". However in the example above: Calling "dequeue" I will get the "lock/monitor" on this Now I am in the dequeue method. As the list is zero, the calling thread will be "waited" From my understanding I have now a deadlock situation, as I will have no chance of ever enquing an object (from an nother thread), as the "dequeue" method is not yet finised and the dequeue "method" holds the lock on this: So I will never ever get the possibility to call "enequeue" as I will not get the "this" lock. Backround: I have exactly the same problem: I have some kind of connection pool (List of Connections) and need to block if all connections are checked. What is the correct way to synchronize the List to block, if size exceeds a limit or is zero? Thank you very much Jens

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  • Design: Website calling a webservice on the same machine

    - by Chris L
    More of a design/conceptual question. At work the decision was made to have our data access layer be called through webservices. So our website would call the webservices for any/all data to and from the database. Both the website & the webservices will be on the same machine(so no trip across the wire), but the database is on a separate machine(so that would require a trip across the wire regardless). This is all in-house, the website, webservice, and database are all within the same company(AFAIK, the webservices won't be reused by another other party). To the best of my knowledge: the website will open a port to the webservices, and the webservices will in turn open another port and go across the wire to the database server to get/submit the data. The trip across the wire can't be avoided, but I'm concerned about the webservices standing in the middle. I do agree there needs to be distinct layers between the functionality(such as business layer, data access layer, etc...), but this seems overly complex to me. I'm also sensing there will be some performance problems down the line. Seems to me it would be better to have the (DAL)assemblies referenced directly within the solution, thus negating the first port to port connection. Any thoughts(or links) both for and against this idea would be appreciated P.S. We're a .NET shop(migrating from vb to C# 3.5)

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  • CLR Stored Procedures

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    In an ASP.NET application, I have a small number of fairly complex, frequently used operations to execute against a database. In these operations, one or more of several tables needs updates or inserts based a logical evaluation of both input parameters and values of certain tables. I've maintained a separation of logic and data access, so the operation currently looks like this: Request received from client Business layer invokes data layer to retrieve data from database Business layer processes result and determines which operation to execute Business layer invokes appropriate data operation Response sent to client As you can see, the client is kept waiting while two separate requests are made to the database. In searching for a solution to this, I've found CLR Stored Procedures, but I'm not sure if I have the right idea about what they are useful for. I have written a replacement for the code above which especially places steps 2-4 in a CLR SP. My understanding is that the SP will be executed locally by SQL Server and result in only one call being made to the server. My initial benchmark tests show this is actually orders of magnitude slower than my original code, but I attribute that recompilation of the code I have not worked out yet and/or some flaw in my environment. My question is basically, is this the intended use of CLR SPs or am I missing something? I realize this is a bit of a compromise structurally, so if there's a better way to do it I'd love to hear it.

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  • custom wordpress page

    - by sharon
    I'd like to implement a custom post retrieval page in wordpress. Basically, I'm using AJAX to call this page that will be passed a post ID and retrieve certain data from that post. Note: please don't mistake this as a template question. I do not want a template for one single page -- I am looking to make this page query multiple different posts based on postID and return certain data from that post. So I tried creating a page <?php $args=array( 'p'=>'77' ); $friends = new WP_Query($args); ?> <?php if ($friends->have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <?php the_title(); ?> <?php the_content(); ?> <?php else: ?> <p>Sorry, no posts are available.</p> <?php endif; ?> But this does not work since it is not loading in the wp functions to handle the query. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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  • Comparing two collections for equality

    - by Crossbrowser
    I would like to compare two collections (in C#), but I'm not sure of the best way to implement this efficiently. I've read the other thread about Enumerable.SequenceEqual, but it's not exactly what I'm looking for. In my case, two collections would be equal if they both contain the same items (no matter the order). Example: collection1 = {1, 2, 3, 4}; collection2 = {2, 4, 1, 3}; collection1 == collection2; // true What I usually do is to loop through each item of one collection and see if it exists in the other collection, then loop through each item of the other collection and see if it exists in the first collection. (I start by comparing the lengths). if (collection1.Count != collection2.Count) return false; // the collections are not equal foreach (Item item in collection1) { if (!collection2.Contains(item)) return false; // the collections are not equal } foreach (Item item in collection2) { if (!collection1.Contains(item)) return false; // the collections are not equal } return true; // the collections are equal However, this is not entirely correct, and it's probably not the most efficient way to do compare two collections for equality. An example I can think of that would be wrong is: collection1 = {1, 2, 3, 3, 4} collection2 = {1, 2, 2, 3, 4} Which would be equal with my implementation. Should I just count the number of times each item is found and make sure the counts are equal in both collections? The examples are in some sort of C# (let's call it pseudo-C#), but give your answer in whatever language you wish, it does not matter. Note: I used integers in the examples for simplicity, but I want to be able to use reference-type objects too (they do not behave correctly as keys because only the reference of the object is compared, not the content).

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  • Use $_FILES on a page called by .ajax

    - by RachelD
    I have two .php pages that I'm working with. Index.php has a file upload form that posts back to index.php. I can access the $_FILES no problem on index.php after submitting the form. My issue is that I want (after the form submit and the page loads) to use .ajax (jQuery) to call another .php file so that file can open and process some of the rows and return the results to ajax. The ajax then displays the results and recursively calls itself to process the next batch of rows. Basically I want to process (put in the DB etc) the csv in chunks and display it for the user in between chunks. Im doing it this way because the files are 400,000+ rows and the user doesnt want to wait the 10+ min for them all to be processed. I dont want to move this file (save it) because I just need to process it and throw it away and if a user closes the page while its processing the file wont be thrown away. I could cron script it but I dont want to. What I would really like to do is pass the (single) $_FILES through .ajax OR Save it in a $_POST or $_SESSION to use on the second page. Is there any hope for my cause? Heres the ajax code if that helps: function processCSV(startIndex, length) { $.ajax({ url: "ajax-targets/process-csv.php", dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: { startIndex: startIndex, length: length }, timeout: 60000, // 1000 = 1 sec success: function(data) { // JQuery to display the rows from the CSV var newStart = startIndex+length; if(newStart <= data['csvNumRows']) { processCSV(newStart, length); } } }); } processCSV(1, 2); }); P.S. I did try this Passing $_FILES or $_POST to a new page with PHP but its not working for me :( SOS.

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  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

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  • Calling javascript function on the Mousehoever and mouseout using jQuery

    - by Wazdesign
    I want to call the javascript function using mousehover jQuery event. Here is the one function. // On mouse hover function function ShowHighlighter(d, highlight_elid) { //alert ("ShowHighlighter\n"+d); if (d == "addHighlight") { var txt = getSelText(); if (txt.length < 1) { return; } ShowContent(d); } else if (d == "deleteHighlight") { var elid = "#"+d; jQuery(elid).stop(); ShowContent(d); delete_highlight_id = "#"+highlight_elid; } } // on Mouse out function function HideContent(d) { if(d.length < 1) { return; } document.getElementById(d).style.display = "none"; } I am trying to use this function ... but it not seems to be working. jQuery('a[href="HIGHLIGHT_CREATELINK"]').mouseover(ShowHighlighter("deleteHighlight","highlight"+ randomCount + ");) ; jQuery('a[href="HIGHLIGHT_CREATELINK"]').mouseout('javascript:HideContentFade(\"deleteHighlight\");') please help me out in this. thanks.

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  • reactor not working when reactor.run is not called in the main thread and installSignalHandlers=Fals

    - by Kalmi
    I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

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  • Linux: How to find all serial devices (ttyS, ttyUSB and others)?

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    What is the proper way to get a list of all available serial ports/devices on a Linux system? In other words, when I iterate over all devices in /dev/, how do I tell which ones are serial ports in the classic way, i.e. those usually supporting baud rates and RTS/CTS flow control? The solution would be coded in C. I ask because I am using a 3rd party library that does this clearly wrong: It appears to only iterate over /dev/ttyS*. The problem is that there are, for instance, serial ports over USB (provided by USB-RS232 adapters), and those are listed under /dev/ttyUSB*. And reading the Serial-HOWTO at Linux.org, I get the idea that there'll be other name spaces as well, as time comes. So I need to find the official way to detect serial devices. Problem is that there appears none documented, or I can't find it. I imagine one way would be to open all files from /dev/tty* and call a specific ioctl() on them that is only available on serial devices. Would that be a good solution, though?

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  • How can I share variables between a base class and subclass in Perl?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a base class like this: package MyClass; use vars qw/$ME list of vars/; use Exporter; @ISA = qw/Exporter/; @EXPORT_OK = qw/ many variables & functions/; %EXPORT_TAGS = (all => \@EXPORT_OK ); sub my_method { } sub other_methods etc { } --- more code--- I want to subclass MyClass, but only for one method. package MySubclass; use MyClass; use vars qw/@ISA/; @ISA = 'MyClass'; sub my_method { --- new method } And I want to call this MySubclass like I would the original MyClass, and still have access to all of the variables and functions from Exporter. However I am having problems getting the Exporter variables from the original class, MyClass, to export correctly. Do I need to run Exporter again inside the subclass? That seems redundant and unclear. Example file: #!/usr/bin/perl use MySubclass /$ME/; -- rest of code But I get compile errors when I try to import the $ME variable. Any suggestions?

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  • ERROR! (Using Excel's named ranges from C#)

    - by mcoolbeth
    In the following, I am trying to persist a set of objects in an excel worksheet. Each time the function is called to store a value, it should allocate the next cell of the A column to store that object. However, an exception is thrown by the Interop library on the first call to get_Range(). (right after the catch block) Does anyone know what I am doing wrong? private void AddName(string name, object value) { Excel.Worksheet jresheet; try { jresheet = (Excel.Worksheet)_app.ActiveWorkbook.Sheets["jreTemplates"]; } catch { jresheet = (Excel.Worksheet)_app.ActiveWorkbook.Sheets.Add(Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); jresheet.Visible = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.XlSheetVisibility.xlSheetVeryHidden; jresheet.Name = "jreTemplates"; jresheet.Names.Add("next", "A1", true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); } Excel.Range cell = jresheet.get_Range("next", Type.Missing); cell.Value2 = value; string address = ((Excel.Name)cell.Name).Name; _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, address, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); cell = cell.get_Offset(1, 0); jresheet.Names.Add("next", ((Excel.Name)cell.Name).Name, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); }

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  • Firefox: Can I use a relative path in the BASE tag?

    - by Aaron Digulla
    I have a little web project where I have many pages and an index/ToC file. The toc file is at the root of my project in toc.html. The pages are spread over a couple of subdirectories and include the toc with an iframe. The project doesn't need a web server, so I can create the HTML in a directory and browse it in my browser. The problem is that I'm running into XSS issues when JavaScript from the toc.html wants to call a function in a page (violation of the same origin policy). So I added base tags in the header with a relative URL to the directory in which toc.html. This works for Konqueror but in Firefox, I have to use absolute paths or the toc won't even display :( Here is an example: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='utf-8' ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <base href="../" target="_top" /> <title>Project 1</title> </head> <body> <iframe class="toc" frameborder="0" src="toc.html"> </iframe> </body> </html> This is file is in a subdirectory page. Firefox won't even load it, saying that it can't find page/toc.html. Is there a workaround? I would really like to avoid absolute paths in my export to keep it the same everywhere (locally and when I upload it on the web server later).

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  • displaying music current time & duration from AVFoundation

    - by msb
    I have a view-based iphone application that has a single play-pause button that plays an mp3 file. At the time of invoking my doPlayPauseButton() method, I 'd like to show the current time and total duration of this mp3 through the AVAudioPlayer instance I've created, called myAudioPlayer. I have placed two labels at the UI and i'm trying to assign the currentTime and duration properties to these label when the playing begins but my attempts have failed. Here's my play/pause loop, any help would be appreciated: -(IBAction) doPlayPauseButton:(UIButton *)theButton { if(myAudioPlayer.playing) { [myActivityIndicatorView stopAnimating]; myActivityIndicatorView.hidden = YES; //I think I need a myAudioPlayer.currentTime call of some sort for my labels. [myAudioPlayer pause]; [theButton setTitle:@"Play" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [myTimer invalidate]; } else { [myActivityIndicatorView startAnimating]; myActivityIndicatorView.hidden = NO; myTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [myAudioPlayer play]; [theButton setTitle:@"Pause" forState:UIControlStateNormal];

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