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  • Embedded SQL in OO languages like Java

    - by Steve De Caux
    One of the things that annoys me working with SQL in OO languages is having to define SQL statements in strings. When I used to work on IBM mainframes, the languages used an SQL preprocessor to parse SQL statements out of the native code, so the statements could be written in cleartext SQL without the obfuscation of strings, for instance in Cobol there is a EXEC SQL .... END-EXEC syntax construct that allows pure SQL statements to be embedded in the Cobol code. <pure cobol code, including assignment of value to local variable HOSTVARIABLE> EXEC SQL SELECT COL_A, COL_B, COL_C INTO :COLA, :COLB, :COLC FROM TAB_A WHERE COL_D = :HOSTVARIABLE END_EXEC <more cobol code, variables COLA, COLB, COLC have been set> ...this makes the SQL statement really easy to read & check for errors. Between the EXEC SQL .... END-EXEC tokens there are no constraints on indentation, linebreaking etc., so you can format the SQL statement according to taste. Note that this example is for a single-row select, when a multiple-row resultset is expected, the coding is different (but still v. easy to read). So, taking Java as an example What made the "old COBOL" approach undesirable ? Not only SQL, but system calls could be made much more readable with that approach. Let's call it the embedded foreign language preprocessor approach. Would an embedded foreign language preprocessor for SQL be useful to implement ? Would you see a benefit in being able to write native SQL statements inside java code ? Edit I'm really asking if you think SQL in OO languages is a throwback, and if not then what could be done to make it better.

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  • Setting the value of a radio button with JQuery (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have 2 "lists" of (4) radio buttons {value = "0", "1", "2", "3"} in all lists. The first list needs to drive the second list (which may occur multiple times). So if an option is selected in the first list, the SAME option is selected in the second list. It sounds weird, but it has a purpose. The first list is more of a "select all" type of list, and the second list is an individual selection list(s). I have the value of the "selectall" list via JQuery: $("#selectalllist").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectall]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist").attr('checked', str); //This is my thinking }); The current selected value is stored in the str variable, and that is seemingly correct (I used alert to tell me what is stored, and it comes up what I expect). I just need to set the value of the next set of lists. The second line of the code I thought would set the checked value of $(".radiolist") to the stored value, but it ALWAYS set the value to the last entry (value = "3"). I'm wondering if I have the wrong attribute in the .attr('', str) call? Any thoughts?

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  • Flex: FileReference and Image unhandled IOErrorEvent

    - by deux11
    The following code shows a button that allows you to select a file (should be an image) and display it into an image component. When I select an invalid image (e.g. a word document), I get the following error: "Error #2044: Unhandled IOErrorEvent:. text=Error #2124: Loaded file is an unknown type." I know I can pass a FileFilter to the FileReference:browse call, but that's beyond the point. My question is... I want to handle the IOErrorEvent myself, what event listener am I missing? private var file:FileReference = new FileReference(); private function onBrowse():void { file.browse(null); file.addEventListener(Event.SELECT, handleFileSelect); file.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, handleFileComplete); } private function handleFileSelect(event:Event):void { file.load(); } private function handleFileComplete(event:Event):void { myImage.source = file.data; } private function handleImageIoError(evt:IOErrorEvent):void { Alert.show("IOErrorEvent"); } <mx:Button click="onBrowse()" label="Browse"/> <mx:Image id="myImage" width="100" height="100" ioError="handleImageIoError(event)"/>

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  • Logging exceptions during bean injection

    - by Marc W
    I think this is a pretty basic question, but after Googling around I can't seem to find the answer. What I need is a way to log some custom output with log4j during Spring bean construction. I have a factory class called ResponderFactory (being used as an instance factory in Spring) with a factory method that can throw 2 different types of exception. public CollectorResponder collectorResponder(String inputQueueName) throws ConfigurationException, BrokerConnectionException {} Now, normally I could wrap a call to this method in a try-catch block with 2 catch clauses to handle the logging situations for each of the exceptions. However, if I'm using Spring to inject this CollectorResponder, created with the factory, into another class I don't see how this is possible. <bean id="responderFactory" class="com.package.ResponderFactory"> <constructor-arg index="0" ref="basicDispatcher" /> <constructor-arg index="1" value="http://localhost:9000" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorResponder" class="com.package.CollectorResponder" factory-bean="responderFactory" factory-method="collectorResponder"> <constructor-arg value="collector.in" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorConsumer" class="com.package.CollectorConsumer"> <constructor-arg ref="collectorResponder" /> </bean> Again, I want to catch these exceptions when the collectorResponder bean is instantiated. Right now I'm dealing with this is CollectorConsumer when I instantiate using new CollectorResponder(...). Is there any way I can do this?

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  • Android change context for findViewById to super from inline class

    - by wuntee
    I am trying to get the value of a EditText in a dialog box. A the "*"'ed line in the following code, the safeNameEditText is null; i am assuming because the 'findVeiwById' is searching on the context of the 'AlertDialog.OnClickListener'; How can I get/change the context of that 'findViewById' call? protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); switch(id){ case DIALOG_NEW_SAFE: builder.setTitle(R.string.news_safe); builder.setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); LayoutInflater factory = LayoutInflater.from(this); View newSafeView = factory.inflate(R.layout.newsafe, null); builder.setView(newSafeView); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new AlertDialog.OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { * EditText safeNameEditText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.new_safe_name); String safeName = safeNameEditText.getText().toString(); Log.i(LOG, safeName); setSafeDao(safeName); } }); builder.setNegativeButton(R.string.cancel, new AlertDialog.OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.dismiss(); } }); return(builder.create()); default: return(null); } }

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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  • C# Reflection StackTrace get value

    - by John
    I'm making pretty heavy use of reflection in my current project to greatly simplify communication between my controllers and the wcf services. What I want to do now is to obtain a value from the Session within an object that has no direct access to HttpSessionStateBase (IE: Not a controller). For example, a ViewModel. I could pass it in or pass a reference to it etc. but that is not optimal in my situation. Since everything comes from a Controller at some point in my scenario I can do the following to walk the sack to the controller where the call originated, pretty simple stuff: var trace = new System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(); foreach (var frame in trace.GetFrames()) { var type = frame.GetMethod().DeclaringType; var prop = type.GetProperty("Session"); if(prop != null) { // not sure about this part... var value = prop.GetValue(type, null); break; } } The trouble here is that I can't seem to work out how to get the "instance" of the controller or the Session property so that I can read from it.

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  • Problems with WCF endpoints hosted from Windows Service

    - by Dilip
    I have a managed Windows Service that hosts a couple of WCF endpoints. The service is set to start automatically when the PC is restarted. On reboot I find that this line of code: ServiceHost wcfHost1 = new ServiceHost(typeof(WCFHost1)); in the OnStart() method of the service takes somewhere between 15 - 20 seconds to execute. Actually I have two such statements but the second one executes in a flash. It is the first one that takes so long. Does anyone know what could be causing the bottleneck? Because of this, sometimes the call exceeds 30 seconds and as a result the SCM thinks my service timed out while trying to initialize itself. Now, I know its easy for me to just spin off a thread to do this and return from OnStart() right away but I'd like to know what could cause this delay. This happens only when the service starts up on PC reboot. If the PC is up and running, the service starts & stops in less than a second.

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  • First-chance exception at std::set dectructor

    - by bartek
    Hi, I have a strange exception at my class destructor: First-chance exception reading location 0x00000 class DispLst{ // For fast instance existance test std::set< std::string > instances; [...] DispLst::~DispLst(){ this->clean(); DeleteCriticalSection( &instancesGuard ); } <---- here instances destructor raises exception Call stack: X.exe!std::_Tree,std::allocator ,std::less,std::allocator ,std::allocator,std::allocator ,0 ::begin() Line 556 + 0xc bytes C++ X.exe!std::_Tree,std::allocator ,std::less,std::allocator ,std::allocator,std::allocator ,0 ::_Tidy() Line 1421 + 0x64 bytes C++ X.exe!std::_Tree,std::allocator ,std::less,std::allocator ,std::allocator,std::allocator ,0 ::~_Tree,std::allocator ,std::less,std::allocator ,std::allocator,std::allocator ,0 () Line 541 C++ X.exe!std::set,std::allocator ,std::less,std::allocator ,std::allocator,std::allocator ::~set,std::allocator ,std::less,std::allocator ,std::allocator,std::allocator () + 0x2b bytes C++ X.exe!DispLst::~DispLst() Line 82 + 0xf bytes C++ The exact place of error in xtree: void _Tidy() { // free all storage erase(begin(), end()); <------------------- HERE this->_Alptr.destroy(&_Left(_Myhead)); this->_Alptr.destroy(&_Parent(_Myhead)); this->_Alptr.destroy(&_Right(_Myhead)); this->_Alnod.deallocate(_Myhead, 1); _Myhead = 0, _Mysize = 0; } iterator begin() { // return iterator for beginning of mutable sequence return (_TREE_ITERATOR(_Lmost())); <---------------- HERE } What is going on ? I'm using Visual Studio 2008.

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  • reactor not working when reactor.run is not called in the main thread and installSignalHandlers=Fals

    - by Kalmi
    I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

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  • Calling javascript function on the Mousehoever and mouseout using jQuery

    - by Wazdesign
    I want to call the javascript function using mousehover jQuery event. Here is the one function. // On mouse hover function function ShowHighlighter(d, highlight_elid) { //alert ("ShowHighlighter\n"+d); if (d == "addHighlight") { var txt = getSelText(); if (txt.length < 1) { return; } ShowContent(d); } else if (d == "deleteHighlight") { var elid = "#"+d; jQuery(elid).stop(); ShowContent(d); delete_highlight_id = "#"+highlight_elid; } } // on Mouse out function function HideContent(d) { if(d.length < 1) { return; } document.getElementById(d).style.display = "none"; } I am trying to use this function ... but it not seems to be working. jQuery('a[href="HIGHLIGHT_CREATELINK"]').mouseover(ShowHighlighter("deleteHighlight","highlight"+ randomCount + ");) ; jQuery('a[href="HIGHLIGHT_CREATELINK"]').mouseout('javascript:HideContentFade(\"deleteHighlight\");') please help me out in this. thanks.

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  • manage.py runserver throws an ImportError with my appname, MacPorts issue on OSX?

    - by christmasgorilla
    I've been developing a Django app for weeks locally on OSX 10.6.3. Recently, I rebooted my machine and went to start my development environment up. Here's the error: cm:myApp cm$ python manage.py runserver Traceback (most recent call last): File "manage.py", line 11, in execute_manager(settings) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/init.py", line 360, in execute_manager setup_environ(settings_mod) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/init.py", line 343, in setup_environ project_module = import_module(project_name) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/utils/importlib.py", line 35, in import_module import(name) ImportError: No module named myapp I'm pretty new to Django / Python. Digging around, it's possible that this might be due to MacPorts. Initially, I had a rough time getting Django up and running and I no longer remember if I'm using the Django from a MacPorts install or from easy_install. How do I tell? (I'd prefer not to reinstall everything). Also, why is the camel casing in my app name gone in the ImportError message? When I search for "myapp" in my django project, I don't find it without camelcase anywhere. And what causes MacPorts to work for a while but then break? As a few other details, from settings.py: INSTALLED_APPS = ( 'django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'south', 'registration', 'pypaypal', 'notifier', 'myApp.batches', )

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  • How to Debug an exception: Type is not marked as serializable... when the type is marked as serializ

    - by rism
    I'm trying to: ((Request.Params["crmid"] != null)) in a web page. But it keeps throwing a serialzation exception: Type 'QC.Security.SL.SiteUser' in assembly 'QC.Security, Version=1.0.0.1, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. The type is however marked as serializable as follows: [Serializable()] public class SiteUser : IIdentity { private long _userId; public long UserId { get { return _userId; } set { _userId = value; } } private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } } private bool _isAuthenticated; public bool IsAuthenticated { get { return _isAuthenticated; } } private string _authenticationType; public string AuthenticationType { get { return _authenticationType; } } I've no idea how to debug this as I cant step into the serializer code to find out why its falling over. The call stack is only one frame deep before it hits [External Code]. And the error message is next to useless given that type is clearly marked as serializable. It was working fine. But now "all of a sudden" it doesn't which typically means some dumb bug in Visual Studio but rebooting doesn't help "this" time. So now I dont know if it's a stupid VS bug or a completely unrelated error for which Im getting a serialization exception or something I'm doing wrong. The truth is I just dont trust VS anymore given the number of wild goose chases Ive been on over the last several months which were "fixed" by rebooting VS 2008 or some other rediculous workaround.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • ERROR! (Using Excel's named ranges from C#)

    - by mcoolbeth
    In the following, I am trying to persist a set of objects in an excel worksheet. Each time the function is called to store a value, it should allocate the next cell of the A column to store that object. However, an exception is thrown by the Interop library on the first call to get_Range(). (right after the catch block) Does anyone know what I am doing wrong? private void AddName(string name, object value) { Excel.Worksheet jresheet; try { jresheet = (Excel.Worksheet)_app.ActiveWorkbook.Sheets["jreTemplates"]; } catch { jresheet = (Excel.Worksheet)_app.ActiveWorkbook.Sheets.Add(Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); jresheet.Visible = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.XlSheetVisibility.xlSheetVeryHidden; jresheet.Name = "jreTemplates"; jresheet.Names.Add("next", "A1", true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); } Excel.Range cell = jresheet.get_Range("next", Type.Missing); cell.Value2 = value; string address = ((Excel.Name)cell.Name).Name; _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, address, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); cell = cell.get_Offset(1, 0); jresheet.Names.Add("next", ((Excel.Name)cell.Name).Name, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); }

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  • Circular dependecy in winforms app using Castle Windsor

    - by Sven
    Hello, I was experimenting a little bit with Castle winforms in a winforms project. I wanted to register all my form dependencies with Castle windsor. This way I would have a single instance for all my forms. Now I have some problem though. I'm in a situation that form x has a dependency on form y and form y has a dependency on form x. Practical example maybe: form x is used to create an order, form y is the screen that has a list of customers. From form x there is a button to select a customer for the order. This will open form y where ou can search the customer. There is a button that lets you add the found customer to the order. It will call a method on form x and passes the selected customer object. I could do this with events. Raise an event in form y and listen for that in form x. But isn't there a way around the circular dependency in Castle Windsor, lazy registration or something? Can anyone help me out? Thanks in advance

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  • Is There a Time at which to ignore IDisposable.Dispose?

    - by Mystagogue
    Certainly we should call Dipose() on IDisposable objects as soon as we don't need them (which is often merely the scope of a "using" statement). If we don't take that precaution then bad things, from subtle to show-stopping, might happen. But what about "the last moment" before process termination? If your IDisposables have not been explicitly disposed by that point in time, isn't it true that it no longer matters? I ask because unmanaged resources, beneath the CLR, are represented by kernel objects - and the win32 process termination will free all unmanaged resources / kernel objects anyway. Said differently, no resources will remain "leaked" after the process terminates (regardless if Dispose() was called on lingering IDisposables). Can anyone think of a case where process termination would still leave a leaked resource, simply because Dispose() was not explicitly called on one or more IDisposables? Please do not misunderstand this question: I am not trying to justify ignoring IDisposables. The question is just technical-theoretical. EDIT: And what about mono running on Linux? Is process termination there just as "reliable" at cleaning up unmanaged "leaks?"

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  • Writing a JMS Publisher without "public static void main"

    - by The Elite Gentleman
    Hi guys, Every example I've seen on the web, e.g. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/docview/jms_to_jms_bridge_activem.aspx, creates a publisher and subscriber with a public static void main method. I don't think that'll work for my web application. I'm learning JMS and I've setup Apache ActiveMQ to run on JBoss 5 and Tomcat 6 (with no glitches). I'm writing a messaging JMS service that needs to send email asynchronously. I've already written a JMS subscriber that receives the message (the class inherits MessageListener). My question is simple: How do I write a publisher that will so that my web applications can call it? Does it have to be published somewhere? My thought is to create a publisher with a no-attribute constructor (in there) and get the MessageQueue Factory, etc. from the JNDI pool (in the constructor). Is my idea correct? How do I subscribe my subscriber to the Queue Receiver? (So far, the subscriber has no constructor, and if I write a constructor, do I always subscribe myself to the Queue receiver?) Thanks for your help, sorry if my terminology is not up to scratch, there are too many java terminologies that I get lost sometimes (maybe a java GPS will do! :-) ) PS Is there a tutorial out there that explains how to write a "better" (better can mean anything, but in my case it's all about performance in high demand requests) JMS Publisher and Subscriber that I can run on Application Server such as JBoss or Glassfish? Don't forget that the JMS application will needs a "guarantee" uptime as many applications will use this.

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  • How to return a recordset from a function

    - by Scott
    I'm building a data access layer in Excel VBA and having trouble returning a recordset. The Execute() function in my class is definitely retrieving a row from the database, but doesn't seem to be returning anything. The following function is contained in a class called DataAccessLayer. The class contains functions Connect and Disconnect which handle opening and closing the connection. Public Function Execute(ByVal sqlQuery as String) As ADODB.recordset Set recordset = New ADODB.recordset Dim recordsAffected As Long ' Make sure we are connected to the database. If Connect Then Set command = New ADODB.command With command .ActiveConnection = connection .CommandText = sqlQuery .CommandType = adCmdText End With ' These seem to be equivalent. 'Set recordset = command.Execute(recordsAffected) recordset.Open command.Execute(recordsAffected) Set Execute = recordset recordset.ActiveConnection = Nothing recordset.Close Set command = Nothing Call Disconnect End If Set recordset = Nothing End Function Here's a public function that I'm using in cell A1 of my spreadsheet for testing. Public Function Scott_Test() Dim Database As New DataAccessLayer 'Dim rs As ADODB.recordset 'Set rs = CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Set rs = New ADODB.recordset Set rs = Database.Execute("SELECT item_desc_1 FROM imitmidx_sql WHERE item_no = '11001'") 'rs.Open Database.Execute("SELECT item_desc_1 FROM imitmidx_sql WHERE item_no = '11001'") 'rs.Open ' This never displays. MsgBox rs.EOF If Not rs.EOF Then ' This is displaying #VALUE! in cell A1. Scott_Test = rs!item_desc_1 End If rs.ActiveConnection = Nothing Set rs = Nothing End Function What am I doing wrong?

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  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

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  • Design: Website calling a webservice on the same machine

    - by Chris L
    More of a design/conceptual question. At work the decision was made to have our data access layer be called through webservices. So our website would call the webservices for any/all data to and from the database. Both the website & the webservices will be on the same machine(so no trip across the wire), but the database is on a separate machine(so that would require a trip across the wire regardless). This is all in-house, the website, webservice, and database are all within the same company(AFAIK, the webservices won't be reused by another other party). To the best of my knowledge: the website will open a port to the webservices, and the webservices will in turn open another port and go across the wire to the database server to get/submit the data. The trip across the wire can't be avoided, but I'm concerned about the webservices standing in the middle. I do agree there needs to be distinct layers between the functionality(such as business layer, data access layer, etc...), but this seems overly complex to me. I'm also sensing there will be some performance problems down the line. Seems to me it would be better to have the (DAL)assemblies referenced directly within the solution, thus negating the first port to port connection. Any thoughts(or links) both for and against this idea would be appreciated P.S. We're a .NET shop(migrating from vb to C# 3.5)

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  • What is the right way to make a new XMLHttpRequest from an RJS response in Ruby on Rails?

    - by Yuri Baranov
    I'm trying to come closer to a solution for the problem of my previous question. The scheme I would like to try is following: User requests an action from RoR controller. Action makes some database queries, makes some calculations, sets some session variable(s) and returns some RJS code as the response. This code could either update a progress bar and make another ajax request. display the final result (e.g. a chart grahic) if all the processing is finished The browser evaluates the javascript representation of the RJS. It may make another (recursive? Is recursion allowed at all?) request, or just display the result for the user. So, my question this time is: how can I embed a XMLHttpRequest call into rjs code properly? Some things I'd like to know are: Should I create a new thread to avoid stack overflow. What rails helpers (if any) should I use? Have anybody ever done something similar before on Rails or with other frameworks? Is my idea sane?

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  • Getting DirectoryNotFoundException when trying to Connect to Device with CoreCon API

    - by ageektrapped
    I'm trying to use the CoreCon API in Visual Studio 2008 to programmatically launch device emulators. When I call device.Connect(), I inexplicably get a DirectoryNotFoundException. I get it if I try it in PowerShell or in C# Console Application. Here's the code I'm using: static void Main(string[] args) { DatastoreManager dm = new DatastoreManager(1033); Collection<Platform> platforms = dm.GetPlatforms(); foreach (var p in platforms) { Console.WriteLine("{0} {1}", p.Name, p.Id); } Platform platform = platforms[3]; Console.WriteLine("Selected {0}", platform.Name); Device device = platform.GetDevices()[0]; device.Connect(); Console.WriteLine("Device Connected"); SystemInfo info = device.GetSystemInfo(); Console.WriteLine("System OS Version:{0}.{1}.{2}", info.OSMajor, info.OSMinor, info.OSBuildNo); Console.ReadLine(); } My question: Does anyone know why I'm getting this error? I'm running this on WinXP 32-bit, plain jane Visual Studio 2008 Pro. I imagine it's some config issue since I can't do it from a Console app or PowerShell. Here's the stack trace as requested: System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException was unhandled Message="The system cannot find the path specified.\r\n" Source="Device Connection Manager" StackTrace: at Microsoft.VisualStudio.DeviceConnectivity.Interop.ConManServerClass.ConnectDevice() at Microsoft.SmartDevice.Connectivity.Device.Connect() at ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Documents and Settings\Thomas\Local Settings\Application Data\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs:line 23 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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  • Problem with Unit testing of ASP.NET project (NullReferenceException when running the test)

    - by Alex
    Hi, I'm trying to create a bunch of MS visual studio unit tests for my n-tiered web app but for some reason I can't run those tests and I get the following error - "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" What I'm trying to do is testing of my data access layer where I use LINQ data context class to execute a certain function and return a result,however during the debugging process I found out that all the tests fail as soon as they get to the LINQ data context class and it has something to do with the connection string but I cant figure out what is the problem. The debugging of tests fails here(the second line): public EICDataClassesDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["EICDatabaseConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource) { OnCreated(); } And my test is as follows: TestMethod()] public void OnGetCustomerIDTest() { FrontLineStaffDataAccess target = new FrontLineStaffDataAccess(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string regNo = "jonh"; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int expected = 10; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int actual; actual = target.OnGetCustomerID(regNo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } The method which I call from DAL is: public int OnGetCustomerID(string regNo) { using (LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext dataContext = new LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext()) { IEnumerable<LINQDataAccess.GetCustomerIDResult> sProcCustomerIDResult = dataContext.GetCustomerID(regNo); int customerID = sProcCustomerIDResult.First().CustomerID; return customerID; } } So basically everything fails after it reaches the 1st line of DA layer method and when it tries to instantiate the LINQ data access class... I've spent around 10 hours trying to troubleshoot the problem but no result...I would really appreciate any help! UPDATE: Finally I've fixed this!!!!:) I dont know why but for some reasons in the app.config file the connection to my database was as follows: AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF So what I did is I just changed the path and instead of |DataDirectory| I put the actual path where my MDF file sits,i.e C:\Users\1\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\EICWebSystem\EICWebSystem\App_Data\EICDatabase.mdf After I had done that it worked out!But still it's a bit not clear what was the problem...probably incorrect path to the database?My web.config of ASP.NET project contains the |DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF path though..

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  • osCommerce custom PHP page

    - by Afrosimon
    Hello! One of my client has an old osCommerce website and while working on it I have to implement what I would call "custom php page", i.e. a page which query a MySQL table, not related to osCommerce, and list the result. I'm not sure of the version, this trick I have seen a lot didn't gave me any result : http://www.clubosc.com/how-to-know-what-version-of-oscommerce-you-are-using.html . And I'm having a hard time doing this seemingly simple task, since osCommerce doesn't allow any php code in the page creation, and I didn't find any module giving me this possibility (not that it is easy to search in this mess : http://addons.oscommerce.com/). At this point I figured it would be easier to just hack'n slash through the code and come up with a custom page : I copied the index.php (the entry point in the application) : <?php require('includes/application_top.php'); if(!$smarty->is_cached($sContentPage, $sCachingGroup)) { //we switch on the content recognition require('includes/pages/' . $sContentClass . '.php'); } $smarty->display($sContentPage, $sCachingGroup); require(DIR_WS_INCLUDES . 'application_bottom.php'); ?> Here I gave a specific value to $sContentClass (with or without the if makes no difference) and customize the corresponding PHP file so it show my custom content but also initialize the same variable than those other PHP file in the pages/ folder. But alas, all of this curious and dubious code simply return me the home page. So here I am, is there an osCommerce Guru around here, or would anyone has a better idea (oh and I also posted on the osCommerce forum, but I'm still waiting for a response...)? Thanks a lot in advance.

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