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  • sqlite3 'database is locked' won't go away with retries

    - by Azarias
    I have a sqlite3 database that is accessed by a few threads (3-4). I am aware of the general limitations of sqlite3 with regards to concurrency as stated http://www.sqlite.org/faq.html#q6 , but I am convinced that is not the problem. All of the threads both read and write from this database. Whenever I do a write, I have the following construct: try: Cursor.execute(q, params) Connection.commit() except sqlite3.IntegrityError: Notify except sqlite3.OperationalError: print sys.exc_info() print("DATABASE LOCKED; sleeping for 3 seconds and trying again") time.sleep(3) Retry On some runs, I won't even hit this block, but when I do, it never comes out of it (keeps retrying, but I keep getting the 'database is locked' error from exc_info. If I understand the reader/writer lock usage correctly, some amount of waiting should help with the contention. What this sounds like is deadlock, but I do not use any transactions in my code, and every SELECT or INSERT is simply a one off. Some threads, however, keep the same connection when they do their operation (which includes a mix of SELECTS and INSERTS and other modifiers). I would appericiate it if you could shade a light on this, and also ways around fixing it (besides using a different database engine.)

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  • Flex dynamic form height

    - by Daryl
    I'm not sure if this is possible, is there a way to get the <mx:Form> to set its own height based on the position of an element within it? For example something like this: <mx:Form height="{submitBtn.y + submitBtn.height}"> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem>... </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem> <s:Button id="submitBtn" label="Submit" /> </mx:FormItem> </mx:Form> where the form height is dynamically set based on submitBtn's y position and its height. I tried using Alert.show to show these values and turned out submitBtn.y = 0 and submitBtn.height = 21. height sounds reasonable, but I know the submitBtn.y can't be 0 since it's below several other Is it possible to set the form height dynamically?

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  • How can I define an empty array in a Perl construtor?

    - by Laimoncijus
    I am just beginner with Perl, so if it sounds stupid - sorry for that :) My problem is - I am trying to write a class, which has an empty array, defined in constructor of a class. So I am doing this like this: package MyClass; use strict; sub new { my ($C) = @_; my $self = { items => () }; bless $self, ref $C || $C; } sub get { return $_[0]->{items}; } 1; Later I am testing my class with simple script: use strict; use Data::Dumper; use MyClass; my $o = MyClass->new(); my @items = $o->get(); print "length = ", scalar(@items), "\n", Dumper(@items); And while running the script I get following: $ perl my_test.pl length = 1 $VAR1 = undef; Why am I doing wrong what causes that I get my items array filled with undef? Maybe someone could show me example how the class would need to be defined so I would not get any default values in my array?

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  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

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  • Still Confused About Identifying vs. Non-Identifying Relationships

    - by Jason
    So, I've been reading up on identifying vs. non-identifying relationships in my database design, and a number of the answers on SO seem contradicting to me. Here are the two questions I am looking at: What's the Difference Between Identifying and Non-Identifying Relationships Trouble Deciding on Identifying or Non-Identifying Relationship Looking at the top answers from each question, I appear to get two different ideas of what an identifying relationship is. The first question's response says that an identifying relationship "describes a situation in which the existence of a row in the child table depends on a row in the parent table." An example of this that is given is, "An author can write many books (1-to-n relationship), but a book cannot exist without an author." That makes sense to me. However, when I read the response to question two, I get confused as it says, "if a child identifies its parent, it is an identifying relationship." The answer then goes on to give examples such as SSN (is identifying of a Person), but an address is not (because many people can live at an address). To me, this sounds more like a case of the decision between primary key and non-primary key. My own gut feeling (and additional research on other sites) points to the first question and its response being correct. However, I wanted to verify before I continued forward as I don't want to learn something wrong as I am working to understand database design. Thanks in advance.

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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  • Ruby syntax error: unexpected $end, expecting keyword_end

    - by user2839246
    I am supposed to: Capitalize the first letter of string. Capitalize every word except articles (the, a, an), conjunctions (and), and prepositions (in). Capitalize i (as in "I am male."). Specify the first word of a string (I actually have no idea what this means. I'm trying to run the spec file to test other functions). Here's my code: class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite in to } array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") then word = word.capitalize if arts_conjs_preps !include?(word) then word = word.capitalize end puts array.join(' ') end end puts Book.new("inferno") Ruby says I'm messing up at: puts Book.new("inferno") <--(right after the last line of code) I get exactly the same error message with this test code: def title(string) array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if word == array[0] then word = word.capitalize end array.join(' ') end puts title("dante's inferno") The only other Stack Overflow thread regarding this particular syntax error that did not suggest trailing or missing ends or .s as the root of the problem is here. The last comment recommends deleting and recreating the gemset, Which sounds scary. And I'm not sure how to do. Any thoughts? Simple solution? Resources to help? Solution class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite of in to } array = string.downcase.split title = array.map do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") || !arts_conjs_preps.include?(word) word = word.capitalize else word end end puts title.join(' ') end end Book.new("dante's the inferno")

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  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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  • Exercise for exam about comparing string on file

    - by Telmo Vaz
    I'm trying to do this exercise for my exam tomorrow. I need to compare a string of my own input and see if that string is appearing on the file. This needs to be done directly on the file, so I cannot extract the string to my program and compare them "indirectly". I found this way but I'm not getting it right, and I don't know why. The algorithm sounds good to me. Any help, please? I really need to focus on this one. Thanks in advance, guys. #include<stdio.h> void comp(); int main(void) { comp(); return 0; } void comp() { FILE *file = fopen("e1.txt", "r+"); if(!file) { printf("Not possible to open the file"); return; } char src[50], ch; short i, len; fprintf(stdout, "What are you looking for? \nwrite: "); fgets(src, 200, stdin); len = strlen(src); while((ch = fgetc(file)) != EOF) { i = 0; while(ch == src[i]) { if(i <= len) { printf("%c - %c", ch, src[i]); fseek(file, 0, SEEK_CUR + 1); i++; } else break; } } }

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  • Worklight console app, update

    - by jarkko
    We're using Worklight 6.1.0.0 / WebSphere 8.0.0.2 (ND/aix). This seemed pretty close to my question too, but for version 6.0. I've successfully done uninstall/install to our worklight console war package. However, there is some extra work on re-deploying adapters and such. I was looking for a way to just update the console. Among the ant tasks there is a target 'minimal-update', which sounds like what I'm looking for (is it?). However when all other pieces fell into place, I have an error for mapping the datasources: ADMA0007E: A validation error occurred in task Mapping resource references to resources. The Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) name is not specified for resource reference jdbc/WorklightDS in module Worklight with EJB name . Contents of the 'minimal-update' task is pretty much the same as for 'install'. I tried that as update from websphere admin console (but i should use the ant task - right?), that gave me a wizard screen to map jdbc/WorklightDS from package to jdbc/WorklightDS on server. This left me wondering how could I tell this using the ant task.

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  • How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

    - by peter
    Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

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  • AvoidXferMode Tolerance

    - by kayahr
    I have a problem with the following code: protected void onDraw(Canvas canvas) { Paint paint = new Paint(); // Draw a blue circle paint.setColor(Color.BLUE); canvas.drawCircle(100, 100, 50, paint); // Draw a red circle where it collides with the blue one paint.setXfermode(new AvoidXfermode(Color.BLUE, 0, Mode.TARGET)); paint.setColor(Color.RED); canvas.drawCircle(50, 50, 50, paint); } According to the API documentation of AvoidXfermode the tolerance value 0 means that it looks for an EXACT color match. This should work here because I specify the same color as I used for drawing the first circle. But the result is that the red circle is not drawn at all. When I use a tolerance value of 255 instead then it works (red circle is drawn where it collides with the blue one) but that sounds wrong because with such a high tolerance I think it should draw the circle EVERYWHERE. So what's wrong here? API Documentation? Android? Me?

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  • Evaluating expressions using Visual Studio 2005 SDK rather than automation's Debugger::GetExpression

    - by brone
    I'm looking into writing an addin (or package, if necessary) for Visual Studio 2005 that needs watch window type functionality -- evaluation of expressions and examination of the types. The automation facilities provide Debugger::GetExpression, which is useful enough, but the information provided is a bit crude. From looking through the docs, it sounds like an IDebugExpressionContext2 would be more useful. With one of these it looks as if I can get more information from an expression -- detailed information about the type and any members and so on and so forth, without having everything come through as strings. I can't find any way of actually getting a IDebugExpressionContext2, though! IDebugProgramProvider2 sort of looks relevant, in that I could start with IDebugProgramProvider2::GetProviderProcessData and then slowly drill down until reaching something that can supply my expression context -- but I'll need to supply a port to this, and it's not clear how to retrieve the port corresponding to the current debug session. (Even if I tried every port, it's not obvious how to tell which port is the right one...) I'm becoming suspicious that this simply isn't a supported use case, but with any luck I've simply missed something crashingly obvious. Can anybody help?

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  • Define an empty array in Perl class new()

    - by Laimoncijus
    Hi, I am just beginner with Perl, so if it sounds stupid - sorry for that :) My problem is - I am trying to write a class, which has an empty array, defined in constructor of a class. So I am doing this like this: package MyClass; use strict; sub new { my ($C) = @_; my $self = { items => () }; bless $self, ref $C || $C; } sub get { return $_[0]->{items}; } 1; Later I am testing my class with simple script: use strict; use Data::Dumper; use MyClass; my $o = MyClass->new(); my @items = $o->get(); print "length = ", scalar(@items), "\n", Dumper(@items); And while running the script I get following: $ perl my_test.pl length = 1 $VAR1 = undef; Why am I doing wrong what causes that I get my items array filled with undef? Maybe someone could show me example how the class would need to be defined so I would not get any default values in my array? Thanks!

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  • Concept: Is mongo right for applying schemas?

    - by Jan
    I am currently in charge of checking wether it is valuable for one of our upcoming products to be developed on mongo. Without going too much into detail, I'll try to explain, what the app does. The app simply has "entities". These entities are technical stuff, like cell phones, TVs, Laptops, tablet pcs, and so forth. Of course, a cell phone has other attributes than a Tablet PCs and a Laptop has even other attributes, like RAM, CPU, display size and so on. Now I want to have something that we wanna call a scheme: We define that we need to have saved the display size, amount of ram size of flash devices, processor type, processor speed and so on for tablet pcs. For cell phone we might save display size, GSM, Edge, 3g, 4g, processor, ram, touch screen technology, bla bla bla. I think you got it :) What I want to realize is, that each "category" has a schema and when one of the system's users enters a new product (let's say the new iphone 4), the app constructs the form to be filled out with the appropriate attributes. So far it sounds nice and should not be a problem with mongo. But now the tough for which I could not find a clean solution.... An attribute modeled in mongo looks like: { _id: 1234456, name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description" } But what to do, if i need this attribute in several languages, like: { en: {name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description"}, de: {name: "Name des Attributs, type: 0, "Beschreibung"} } I also need to ensure that the german attribute gets updated as soon as the english gets updated, for instance when type changes from 0 to 1. Any ideas on that?

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  • MS Access: Permission problems with views

    - by Keith Williams
    "I'll use an Access ADP" I said, "it's only a tiny project and I've got better things to do", I said, "I can build an interface really quickly in Access" I said. </sarcasm> Sorry for the rant, but it's Friday, I have a date in just under two hours, and I'm here late because this just isn't working - so, in despair, I turn to SO for help. Access ADP front-end, linked to a SQL Server 2008 database Using a SQL Server account to log into the database (for testing); this account is a member of the role, "Api"; this role has SELECT, EXECUTE, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE access to the "Api" schema The "Api" schema is owned by "dbo" All tables have a corresponding view in the Api schema: e.g. dbo.Customer -- Api.Customers The rationale is that users don't have direct table access, but can deal with views as if they were tables I can log into SQL using my test login, and it works fine: no access to the tables, but I can select, insert, update and delete from the Api views. In Access, I see the views, I can open them, but whenever I try to insert or update, I get the following error: The SELECT permission was denied on the object '[Table name which the view is using]', database '[database name]', schema 'dbo' Crazy as it sounds, Access seems to be trying to access the underlying table rather than the view. Any ideas?

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  • Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

    - by Jacob Kofoed
    Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

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  • C++ MACRO that will execute a block of code and a certain command after that block.

    - by Poni
    void main() { int xyz = 123; // original value { // code block starts xyz++; if(xyz < 1000) xyz = 1; } // code block ends int original_value = xyz; // should be 123 } void main() { int xyz = 123; // original value MACRO_NAME(xyz = 123) // the macro takes the code code that should be executed at the end of the block. { // code block starts xyz++; if(xyz < 1000) xyz = 1; } // code block ends << how to make the macro execute the "xyz = 123" statement? int original_value = xyz; // should be 123 } Only the first main() works. I think the comments explain the issue. It doesn't need to be a macro but to me it just sounds like a classical "macro-needed" case. By the way, there's the BOOST_FOREACH macro/library and I think it does the exact same thing I'm trying to achieve but it's too complex for me to find the essence of what I need. From its introductory manual page, an example: #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <boost/foreach.hpp> int main() { std::string hello( "Hello, world!" ); BOOST_FOREACH( char ch, hello ) { std::cout << ch; } return 0; }

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  • asp.net 3.5 app - can not load asemblies, "Strong name signature could not be verified", only when d

    - by hitsolutions
    Have developed an asp.net 3.5 application which consists of a we-site, some developed assemblies and some 3rd party assembles such as Telerik, Jayrock etc, all very much standard 3rd party apps. Created and built this app, tested on Win 2008 Eval running on a VM, all fine. Imagine my frustration when after installing on clients production Win 2008 server, that the app could not run and the error message was the "Strong name signature could not be verified. The assembly may have been tampered with, or it was delay signed ..." one. This was for all assembles in app (removed one and this kept popping up for a different assembly). Attempted to install on a machine on the network and received the same error. I am fairly baffled and a little freaked as I can not figure this out and time is rapidly running out. Have inspected all parts of server I know about (.NET, IIS7) but all seems fine. What could cause this? It sounds like there is a stricter security manifest on the production server - but where would I look and for what? It must be a group policy. only other item is that the machines are running Symantec ante-virus. The IT head is on hols so can't quiz him which is also frustrating - but as they say time waits for no man!

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  • Adjust width of td to make make row widths even

    - by user1729886
    I am trying to produce a table with a different number of cells in each row. The first row is a header row (every other row contains cells). This header is the width of the table. The second row has 2 cells in it... the third has 1 cell... the fourth has 4 cells... the fifth and final row has 3 cells. I want the table set up so that the rows span the full width of the table. If the table is 1000px... The header would be 1000px wide the cells in the 2nd row would be 500px EACH the cell in the 3rd row would be 1000px the cells in the 4th row would be 250px EACH and the cells in the 5th row would be 333px, 334px, and 333px each (left-to-right) I figured out I could use colspan for the first 4 rows, but the 5th (with 3 cells) would require a non-integer value. The cells in the 5th row won't expand beyond their column without colspan that I can tell... trying the width:## CSS code inside a div tag for each cell inside the td tag creating a class or classes that define the cell widths id-ing each cell, with or without a div tag, and defining widths individually and adjuting the table-layout: option After several days, I'm now at my rope's end. The only thing I can come up with is deliberately tripling the number of cells in each row so that colspan would be all integer values. That sounds inconvenient and unreasonably difficult to format the table the way I'd like. It's a table of Batman movies for a website -- a practice website I'm building, in order to learn HTML/CSS. I've been working on-and-off with HTML for several months, and CSS for a few weeks. PS: It is not being used for layout, I am simply trying to adjust the layout of the table itself.

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  • Telerik chart not loading correctly in new window (ajax issue?)

    - by Phillip Schmidt
    I have a page which contains user controls with Telerik Charts (grids also, but they work fine). From this page, the user can click on a button to be redirected to a "Printer-Friendly Version" type page, which opens a new window via javascript and goes through a slightly different view (for formatting and stuff), but the telerik code is all the same. The problem is, my Chart displays just fine in the original window, but the new window displays basically an empty chart with no data. This bug is only present in IE, and only applies to Charts. Grids work fine, for whatever reason. I'm thinking this is due to differences in script caching between browsers -- correct me if I'm wrong, I'm semi-new to client-directed web development. Anyway I read somewhere that Telerik has issues with loading data and/or js files when loaded via ajax, so maybe that's the problem? If so, how could I get around this? And if not, any ideas on what could be causing this issue? It's causing me a great deal of frustration, since a print preview page seems like it should be the easiest of jobs. Edit: The charts are being rendered as html (if somebody can explain how to render them as images, that would be awesome). And dev tools shows basically the same thing between chrome and IE. Whenever my web service goes back up ill WinMerge them and look for any peculiarities/differences between them. In the mean time, though, the "render as an image" concept sounds promising. That way I could just save the image from the first page, and insert it right into the print preview page, right?. And since it's a print-preview page, it's not going to need to be interactive or anything, so that'd work out nicely. Another (important) Edit: These are probably the culprit... And here is a little more detail on that: And here is a side-by-side of it working(in chrome) and not working (in IE):

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  • Stage shifts when using addChild?

    - by josh
    I'm having a very odd bug with ActionScript 3 in Flash CS4. I am adding movie clips to a stage in a for loop and then moving them out of view so that I can pull them in and remove them when I need them. I've narrowed down the issue to a point that I know that every time one of the movie clips are added to the stage using addChild(), the stage shifts to the right by one pixel. I know that sounds odd, but it's literally true... the 0 line on the y axis is shifted to the right one pixel every time the movie clip is added. I have no idea how this could be happening. Here's the code that is doing the work: private function setupSlides():void { for(x = 0; x < TOTAL_SLIDES; x++) { var ClassReference:Class = getDefinitionByName("Slide" + (x+1)) as Class; var s:MovieClip = new ClassReference() as MovieClip; s.x = 9999; s.y = 9999; addChild(s); slides[x] = s; } } Any thoughts?

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  • Querying calender events even if they do not have any for the day

    - by StealthRT
    Hey everyone, i am trying to figure out a way of query my mysql server so that even if a company does not have anything posted for the day the user clicks on their logo, it still adds them to the list. That sounds a little confusing so let me try to explain it another way. Say i have 3 company's in my database: Comp1 Comp2 Comp3 And Comp1 & Comp3 have something for today on the calender but Comp2 does not. I still need it to populate and place that company on the page but have something along the lines of "nothing on the calender for today". The other 2 companys (Comp1 & Comp3) would show the calender posting for that day. This is the code i have right now: SELECT clientinfo.id, clientinfo.theCompName, clientinfo.theURL, clientinfo.picURL, clientinfo.idNumber, clientoffers.idNumber, clientoffers.theDateStart, clientoffers.theDateEnd FROM clientinfo, clientoffers WHERE clientinfo.accountStats = 'OPEN' AND clientinfo.idNumber = clientinfo.idNumber AND '2010-05-08' BETWEEN clientoffers.theDateStart AND clientoffers.theDateEnd GROUP BY clientinfo.idNumber ORDER BY clientinfo.theCompName ASC That executes just fine but for Comp2, it just places the calender info from Comp1 into it when it really doesn't have anything. The output looks like this: Comp1 | 2010-05-08 | this is the calender event 1 | etc etc Comp2 | 2010-05-08 | this is the calender event 1 | etc etc comp3 | 2010-05-09 | this is the calender event 2 | etc etc Any help would be great :o) David

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  • DirectX: Game loop order, draw first and then handle input?

    - by Ricket
    I was just reading through the DirectX documentation and encountered something interesting in the page for IDirect3DDevice9::BeginScene : To enable maximal parallelism between the CPU and the graphics accelerator, it is advantageous to call IDirect3DDevice9::EndScene as far ahead of calling present as possible. I've been accustomed to writing my game loop to handle input and such, then draw. Do I have it backwards? Maybe the game loop should be more like this: (semi-pseudocode, obviously) while(running) { d3ddev->Clear(...); d3ddev->BeginScene(); // draw things d3ddev->EndScene(); // handle input // do any other processing // play sounds, etc. d3ddev->Present(NULL, NULL, NULL, NULL); } According to that sentence of the documentation, this loop would "enable maximal parallelism". Is this commonly done? Are there any downsides to ordering the game loop like this? I see no real problem with it after the first iteration... And I know the best way to know the actual speed increase of something like this is to actually benchmark it, but has anyone else already tried this and can you attest to any actual speed increase?

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