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• Server side Xforms form validation and integration into ASP.NET

  - by Nigel

  I have recently been investigating methods of creating web-based forms for an ASP.NET web application that can be edited and managed at runtime. For example an administrator might wish to add a new validation rule or a new set of fields. The holy grail would provide a means of specifying a form along with (potentially very complex) arbitrary validation rules, and allocation of data sources for each field. The specification would then be used to update the deployed form in the web application which would then validate submissions both on the client side and on the server side. My investigations led me to Xforms and a number of technologies that support it. One solution appears to be IBM Lotus Forms, but this requires a very large investment in terms of infrastructure, which makes it infeasible, although the forms designer may be useful as a stand-alone tool for creating the forms. I have also discounted browser plug-ins as the form must be publicly visible and cross-browser compliant. I have noticed that there are numerous javascript libraries that provide client side implementations given an Xforms schema. These would provide a partial solution but server side validation is still a requirement. Another option seems to involve the use of server side solutions such as the Java application Orbeon. Orbeon provides a tool for specifying the forms (although not as rich as Lotus Forms Designer), but the most interesting point is that it can translate an XForms schema into an XHTML form complete with validation. The fact that it is written in Java is not a big problem if it is possible to integrate with the existing ASP.NET application. So my question is whether anyone has done this before. It sounds like a problem that should have been solved but is inherently very complex. It seems possible to use an off-the-shelf tool to design the form and export it to an Xforms schema and xhtml form, and it seems possible to take that xforms schema and form and publish it using a client side library. What seems to be difficult is providing a means of validating the form submission on the server side and integrating the process nicely with .NET (although it seems the .NET community doesn't involve themselves with XForms; please correct me if I'm wrong on this count). I would be more than happy if a product provided something simple like a web service that could validate a submission against a schema. Maybe Orbeon does this but I'd be grateful if somebody in the know could point me in the right direction before I research it further. Many thanks.

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• html widget communicating with server

  - by Nikita Rybak

  I'm making html widget for websites. Let's say, it will display current stock indexes. In short, arbitrary website owner takes code snippet from me and includes it on his webpage http://website.com/index.html. When arbitrary user opens http://website.com/index.html, my code sends request to my server (provider.com), which performs necessary operations and returns information to user's browser. When response has arrived, user will see relevant stock value on http://website.com/index.html. In index.html service could be called like this <script type="text/javascript" src="provider.com/service.js"> </script> <div id="target_area"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> service.show("target_area", options); </script> Now, the problem is in the same origin policy: I can't just send ajax request from website.com to provided.com and return html to embed in client's webpage. I see several solutions, which I list below, but none quite satisfy me. I wonder, if you could suggest something, especially if you had some relevant experience. 1) iframe, plain and simple. Disadvantage: must have fixed dimensions + stupid scroll bars appearing in some browsers. Can be fixed with javascript, but all this browser-specific tinkering doesn't sound good to me. 2) JSONP. Problem: can't return whole chunk of html, must return only data. Then, on browser side, I'll have to use javascript to embed data into html snippet placed statically in index.html. Doesn't sound nice, because data format is not very simple and may even change later. 3) Use hidden iframe to do ajax requests. A bit tricky, but sounds like a way to go. Well, that's my thoughts on the subject. Are there any better ways? BTW, I tried to check some existing widgets too, but didn't find much useful information. All domain names used in this text are fictional and any resemblance is purely coincidental :)

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• Java language features which have no equivalent in C#

  - by jthg

  Having mostly worked with C#, I tend to think in terms of C# features which aren't available in Java. After working extensively with Java over the last year, I've started to discover Java features that I wish were in C#. Below is a list of the ones that I'm aware of. Can anyone think of other Java language features which a person with a C# background may not realize exists? The articles http://www.25hoursaday.com/CsharpVsJava.html and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparison_of_Java_and_C_Sharp give a very extensive list of differences between Java and C#, but I wonder whether I missed anything in the (very) long articles. I can also think of one feature (covariant return type) which I didn't see mentioned in either article. Please limit answers to language or core library features which can't be effectively implemented by your own custom code or third party libraries. Covariant return type - a method can be overridden by a method which returns a more specific type. Useful when implementing an interface or extending a class and you want a method to override a base method, but return a type more specific to your class. Enums are classes - an enum is a full class in java, rather than a wrapper around a primitive like in .Net. Java allows you to define fields and methods on an enum. Anonymous inner classes - define an anonymous class which implements a method. Although most of the use cases for this in Java are covered by delegates in .Net, there are some cases in which you really need to pass multiple callbacks as a group. It would be nice to have the choice of using an anonymous inner class. Checked exceptions - I can see how this is useful in the context of common designs used with Java applications, but my experience with .Net has put me in a habit of using exceptions only for unrecoverable conditions. I.E. exceptions indicate a bug in the application and are only caught for the purpose of logging. I haven't quite come around to the idea of using exceptions for normal program flow. strictfp - Ensures strict floating point arithmetic. I'm not sure what kind of applications would find this useful. fields in interfaces - It's possible to declare fields in interfaces. I've never used this. static imports - Allows one to use the static methods of a class without qualifying it with the class name. I just realized today that this feature exists. It sounds like a nice convenience.

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• Switching from MDI to SDI and Back Again

  - by Mike Hofer

  This sounds like it would be a simple task, but I'm running into some issues. I have some fairly straightforward code for my C# application: private void SwitchToSdi() { MainWindow mainWindow = GetMainWindow(); for (int index = mainWindow.MdiChildren.Length - 1; index >= 0; index--) { Form form = mainWindow.MdiChildren[index]; if (!(form is MainWindow)) { form.Visible = false; form.MdiParent = null; form.Visible = true; mainWindow.MdiChildren[index] = null; } } mainWindow.IsMdiContainer = false; } And then, private void SwitchToMdi() { MainWindow mainWindow = GetMainWindow(); mainWindow.IsMdiContainer = true; for (int index = Application.OpenForms.Count - 1; index >= 0; index--) { Form form = Application.OpenForms[index]; if (!(form is MainWindow)) { form.Visible = false; form.MdiParent = mainWindow; form.Visible = true; } } } Note that MainWindow is an MDI parent window, with its IsMdiContainer property set to True. The user can toggle between MDI and SDI in the Options dialog. That much works beautifully. If I switch to SDI, the new windows open up OUTSIDE the main window, which is great. Similarly, if I switch to MDI, they open up inside the container. However, I've noticed a few things. Open MDI child windows don't become SDI windows as I would have expected them to. Open SDI windows don't become MDI child windows as I would have expected them to. Even after I set IsMdiContainer to true in the call to SwitchToMdi(), if I try to open a new window, I get an exception that tells me that the main window isn't an MDI container. o_O Someone please throw me a bone here. This shouldn't be rocket science. But I'm not finding a whole lot of useful help out there on the Intarwebs (read: g00gle is fairly useless). Has anyone actually implemented this behavior in .NET before? How did you achieve it? What am I missing here? Halp!

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• I keep on getting "save operation failure" after any change on my XCode Data Model

  - by Philip Schoch

  I started using Core Data for iPhone development. I started out by creating a very simple entity (called Evaluation) with just one string property (called evaluationTopic). I had following code for inserting a fresh string: - (void)insertNewObject { // Create a new instance of the entity managed by the fetched results controller. NSManagedObjectContext *context = [fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; NSManagedObject *newManagedObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; // If appropriate, configure the new managed object. [newManagedObject setValue:@"My Repeating String" forKey:@"evaluationTopic"]; // Save the context. NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { // Handle the error... } [self.tableView reloadData]; } This worked perfectly fine and by pushing the +button a new "My Repeating String" would be added to the table view and be in persistent store. I then pressed "Design - Add Model Version" in XCode. I added three entities to the existing entity and also added new properties to the existing "Evaluation" entity. Then, I created new files off the entities by pressing "File - New File - Managed Object Classes" and created a new .h and .m file for my four entities, including the "Evaluation" entity with Evaluation.h and Evaluation.m. Now I changed the model version by setting "Design - Data Model - Set Current Version". After having done all this, I changed my insertMethod: - (void)insertNewObject { // Create a new instance of the entity managed by the fetched results controller. NSManagedObjectContext *context = [fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; Evaluation *evaluation = (Evaluation *) [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; // If appropriate, configure the new managed object. [evaluation setValue:@"My even new string" forKey:@"evaluationSpeechTopic"]; // Save the context. NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { // Handle the error... } [self.tableView reloadData]; } This does not work though! Every time I want to add a row the simulator crashes and I get the following: "NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'This NSPersistentStoreCoordinator has no persistent stores. It cannot perform a save operation.'" I had this error before I knew about creating new version after changing anything on the datamodel, but why is this still coming up? Do I need to do any mapping (even though I just added entities and properties that did not exist before?). In the Apple Dev tutorial it sounds very easy but I have been struggling with this for long time, never worked after changing model version.

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• Filtering a dropdown in Angular IE11 issue

  - by Brian S.

  I have a requirement for a select html element that can be duplicated multiple times on a page. The options for these select elements all come from a master list. All of the select elements can only show all of the items in the master list that have not been selected in any of the other select elements unless they just were duplicated. So I wrote a custom filter to do this in Angular and it seems to work just fine provided you are not using IE11. In IE when you select a new item from a duplicated select element, it seems to select the option after the one you selected even though the model still has the correct one set. I realize this sounds convoluted, so I created a jFiddle example. Using IE 11 try these steps: Select Bender Click the duplicate link Select Fry Notice that the one that is selected is Leela but the model still has Fry (id:2) as the one selected Now if you do the same thing in Chrome everything works as expected. Can anyone tell me how I might get around this or what I might be doing wrong? Here is the relevant Angular code: myapp.controller('Ctrl', function ($scope) { $scope.selectedIds = [{}]; $scope.allIds = [{ name: 'Bender', value: 1}, {name: 'Fry', value: 2}, {name: 'Leela', value: 3 }]; $scope.dupDropDown = function(currentDD) { var newDD = angular.copy(currentDD); $scope.selectedIds.push(newDD); } }); angular.module('appFilters',[]).filter('ddlFilter', function () { return function (allIds, currentItem, selectedIds) { //console.log(currentItem); var listToReturn = allIds.filter(function (anIdFromMasterList) { if (currentItem.id == anIdFromMasterList.value) return true; var areThereAny = selectedIds.some(function (aSelectedId) { return aSelectedId.id == anIdFromMasterList.value; }); return !areThereAny; }); return listToReturn; } }); And here is the relevant HTML <div ng-repeat="aSelection in selectedIds "> <a href="#" ng-click="dupDropDown(aSelection)">Duplicate</a> <select ng-model="aSelection.id" ng-options="a.value as a.name for a in allIds | ddlFilter:aSelection:selectedIds"> <option value="">--Select--</option> </select> </div>

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• Efficiency of Java "Double Brace Initialization"?

  - by Jim Ferrans

  In Hidden Features of Java the top answer mentions Double Brace Initialization, with a very enticing syntax: Set<String> flavors = new HashSet<String>() {{ add("vanilla"); add("strawberry"); add("chocolate"); add("butter pecan"); }}; This idiom creates an anonymous inner class with just an instance initializer in it, which "can use any [...] methods in the containing scope". Main question: Is this as inefficient as it sounds? Should its use be limited to one-off initializations? (And of course showing off!) Second question: The new HashSet must be the "this" used in the instance initializer ... can anyone shed light on the mechanism? Third question: Is this idiom too obscure to use in production code? Summary: Very, very nice answers, thanks everyone. On question (3), people felt the syntax should be clear (though I'd recommend an occasional comment, especially if your code will pass on to developers who may not be familiar with it). On question (1), The generated code should run quickly. The extra .class files do cause jar file clutter, and slow program startup slightly (thanks to coobird for measuring that). Thilo pointed out that garbage collection can be affected, and the memory cost for the extra loaded classes may be a factor in some cases. Question (2) turned out to be most interesting to me. If I understand the answers, what's happening in DBI is that the anonymous inner class extends the class of the object being constructed by the new operator, and hence has a "this" value referencing the instance being constructed. Very neat. Overall, DBI strikes me as something of an intellectual curiousity. Coobird and others point out you can achieve the same effect with Arrays.asList, varargs methods, Google Collections, and the proposed Java 7 Collection literals. Newer JVM languages like Scala, JRuby, and Groovy also offer concise notations for list construction, and interoperate well with Java. Given that DBI clutters up the classpath, slows down class loading a bit, and makes the code a tad more obscure, I'd probably shy away from it. However, I plan to spring this on a friend who's just gotten his SCJP and loves good natured jousts about Java semantics! ;-) Thanks everyone!

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• Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• System architecture: simple approach for setting up background tasks behind a web application -- wil

  - by Tim Molendijk

  I have a Django web application and I have some tasks that should operate (or actually: be initiated) on the background. The application is deployed as follows: apache2-mpm-worker; mod_wsgi in daemon mode (1 process, 15 threads). The background tasks have the following characteristics: they need to operate in a regular interval (every 5 minutes or so); they require the application context (i.e. the application packages need to be available in memory); they do not need any input other than database access, in order to perform some not-so-heavy tasks such as sending out e-mail and updating the state of the database. Now I was thinking that the most simple approach to this problem would be simply to piggyback on the existing application process (as spawned by mod_wsgi). By implementing the task as part of the application and providing an HTTP interface for it, I would prevent the overhead of another process that is holding all of the application into memory. A simple cronjob can be setup that sends a request to this HTTP interface every 5 minutes and that would be it. Since the application process provides 15 threads and the tasks are quite lightweight and only running every 5 minutes, I figure they would not be hindering the performance of the web application's user-facing operations. Yet... I have done some online research and I have seen nobody advocating this approach. Many articles suggest a significantly more complex approach based on a full-blown messaging component (such as Celery, which uses RabbitMQ). Although that's sexy, it sounds like overkill to me. Some articles suggest setting up a cronjob that executes a script which performs the tasks. But that doesn't feel very attractive either, as it results in creating a new process that loads the entire application into memory, performs some tiny task, and destroys the process again. And this is repeated every 5 minutes. Does not sound like an elegant solution. So, I'm looking for some feedback on my suggested approach as described in the paragraph before the preceeding paragraph. Is my reasoning correct? Am I overlooking (potential) problems? What about my assumption that application's performance will not be impeded?

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• C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

  - by ryeguy

  When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

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• Really "wow" them in the interview

  - by Juliet

  Let me put it to you this way: I'm a top-notch programmer, but a notoriously bad interviewee. I've flunked 3 interviews consecutively because I get so nervous that my voice tightens at least 2 octaves higher and I start visibly shaking -- mind you, I can handle whatever technical questions the interviewer throws at me in that state, but I think it looks bad to come off as a quivering, squeaky-voiced young woman during a job interview. I've just got the personality type of a shy computer programmer. No matter how technical I am, I'm going to get passed up in favor of a smooth talker. I have another interview coming up shortly, and I want to really impress the company. Here are my trouble spots: What can I do to be less nervous during my interview? I always get really excited when I hear I have a face-to-face interview, but get more and more anxious as D-Day the interview approaches. My employers wants me to explain what I used to do at my prior employment. I'm a very chatty person and tend to talk/squeak for 10 minutes at a time. How long or short should I time my answers? On that note, when I'm explaining what I did at prior jobs, what exactly is my interviewer looking for? At some point, my interviewer will ask "do you have any questions for me while you're here?" I should, but what kinds of questions should I ask to show that I'm interested in being employed? My interviewer always asks why I'm looking for a new job. The real reason is that my present salary is $27K/yr [Edit to add: and I've yet to get a raise since I started], and I want to make more money -- otherwise the work environment is fine. How do I sugarcoat "I want to make more money" into something that sounds nicer? I have only one prior programmer job, and I've worked there for 18 months, but I have the skill of someone with 4 to 6 years of experience. What can I say to compete against applicants with more work experience? I took a low-paying $27K/yr programming job just to get my foot in IT, and I've been trying to leverage that job as a stepping stone to better opportunities. I get interviews because I consistently out-score senior-level developers in aptitude tests, and my desired salary range is right in the ballpark of what most companies want to offer. Unfortunately, while I've been a programming as a hobby for 10 years and I'm geared to graduate with my BA in Comp Sci in May '09, employers see me as a junior-level programmer with no degree. I want to prove them wrong and get a job that matches my skill level. I'd appreciate any advice anyone has to offer, especially if they can help me get a better job in the process.

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• stdio's remove() not always deleting on time.

  - by Kyte

  For a particular piece of homework, I'm implementing a basic data storage system using sequential files under standard C, which cannot load more than 1 record at a time. So, the basic part is creating a new file where the results of whatever we do with the original records are stored. The previous file's renamed, and a new one under the working name is created. The code's compiled with MinGW 5.1.6 on Windows 7. Problem is, this particular version of the code (I've got nearly-identical versions of this floating around my functions) doesn't always remove the old file, so the rename fails and hence the stored data gets wiped by the fopen(). FILE *archivo, *antiguo; remove("IndiceNecesidades.old"); // This randomly fails to work in time. rename("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "IndiceNecesidades.old"); // So rename() fails. antiguo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.old", "rb"); // But apparently it still gets deleted, since this turns out null (and I never find the .old in my working folder after the program's done). archivo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "wb"); // And here the data gets wiped. Basically, anytime the .old previously exists, there's a chance it's not removed in time for the rename() to take effect successfully. No possible name conflicts both internally and externally. The weird thing's that it's only with this particular file. Identical snippets except with the name changed to Necesidades.dat (which happen in 3 different functions) work perfectly fine. // I'm yet to see this snippet fail. FILE *antiguo, *archivo; remove("Necesidades.old"); rename("Necesidades.dat", "Necesidades.old"); antiguo = fopen("Necesidades.old", "rb"); archivo = fopen("Necesidades.dat", "wb"); Any ideas on why would this happen, and/or how can I ensure the remove() command has taken effect by the time rename() is executed? (I thought of just using a while loop to force call remove() again so long as fopen() returns a non-null pointer, but that sounds like begging for a crash due to overflowing the OS with delete requests or something.)

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• How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

  - by Richard Poole

  I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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• Hidden Features of PHP?

  - by George Mauer

  EDIT: This didn't really start as a hidden features of PHP topic, but thats what it ended up as, so go nuts. I know this sounds like a point-whoring question but let me explain where I'm coming from. Out of college I got a job at a PHP shop. I worked there for a year and a half and thought that I had learned all there was to learn about programming. Then I got a job as a one-man internal development shop at a sizable corporation where all the work was in C#. In my commitment to the position I started reading a ton of blogs and books and quickly realized how wrong I was to think I knew everything. I learned about unit testing, dependency injection and decorator patterns, the design principle of loose coupling, the composition over inheritance debate, and so on and on and on - I am still very much absorbing it all. Needless to say my programming style has changed entirely in the last year. Now I find myself picking up a php project doing some coding for a friend's start-up and I feel completely constrained as opposed to programming in C#. It really bothers me that all variables at a class scope have to be referred to by appending '$this-' . It annoys me that none of the IDEs that I've tried have very good intellisense and that my SimpleTest unit tests methods have to start with the word 'test'. It drives me crazy that dynamic typing keeps me from specifying implicitly which parameter type a method expects, and that you have to write a switch statement to do method overloads. I can't stand that you can't have nested namespaces and have to use the :: operator to call the base class's constructor. Now I have no intention of starting a PHP vs C# debate, rather what I mean to say is that I'm sure there are some PHP features that I either don't know about or know about yet fail to use properly. I am set in my C# universe and having trouble seeing outside the glass bowl. So I'm asking, what are your favorite features of PHP? What are things you can do in it that you can't or are more difficult in the .Net languages?

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• Problems using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .NET4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with VS2010 .Net3.5 using Nhibernate with FluentNHibernate + SQLite, and all works fine. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When setting up the connection a FluentConfigurationException is thrown from FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration saying: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more details. The inner exception gives us more information: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4. It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This is exactly the same code that worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• Unique element ID, even if element doesn't have one

  - by Robert J. Walker

  I'm writing a GreaseMonkey script where I'm iterating through a bunch of elements. For each element, I need a string ID that I can use to reference that element later. The element itself doesn't have an id attribute, and I can't modify the original document to give it one (although I can make DOM changes in my script). I can't store the references in my script because when I need them, the GreaseMonkey script itself will have gone out of scope. Is there some way to get at an "internal" ID that the browser uses, for example? A Firefox-only solution is fine; a cross-browser solution that could be applied in other scenarios would be awesome. Edit: If the GreaseMonkey script is out of scope, how are you referencing the elements later? They GreaseMonkey script is adding events to DOM objects. I can't store the references in an array or some other similar mechanism because when the event fires, the array will be gone because the GreaseMonkey script will have gone out of scope. So the event needs some way to know about the element reference that the script had when the event was attached. And the element in question is not the one to which it is attached. Can't you just use a custom property on the element? Yes, but the problem is on the lookup. I'd have to resort to iterating through all the elements looking for the one that has that custom property set to the desired id. That would work, sure, but in large documents it could be very time consuming. I'm looking for something where the browser can do the lookup grunt work. Wait, can you or can you not modify the document? I can't modify the source document, but I can make DOM changes in the script. I'll clarify in the question. Can you not use closures? Closuses did turn out to work, although I initially thought they wouldn't. See my later post. It sounds like the answer to the question: "Is there some internal browser ID I could use?" is "No."

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• "Emulating" Application.Run using Application.DoEvents

  - by Luca

  I'm getting in trouble. I'm trying to emulate the call Application.Run using Application.DoEvents... this sounds bad, and then I accept also alternative solutions to my question... I have to handle a message pump like Application.Run does, but I need to execute code before and after the message handling. Here is the main significant snippet of code. // Create barrier (multiple kernels synchronization) sKernelBarrier = new KernelBarrier(sKernels.Count); foreach (RenderKernel k in sKernels) { // Create rendering contexts (one for each kernel) k.CreateRenderContext(); // Start render kernel kernels k.mThread = new Thread(RenderKernelMain); k.mThread.Start(k); } while (sKernelBarrier.KernelCount > 0) { // Wait untill all kernel loops has finished sKernelBarrier.WaitKernelBarrier(); // Do application events Application.DoEvents(); // Execute shared context services foreach (RenderKernelContextService s in sContextServices) s.Execute(sSharedContext); // Next kernel render loop sKernelBarrier.ReleaseKernelBarrier(); } This snippet of code is execute by the Main routine. Pratically I have a list of Kernel classes, which runs in separate threads, these threads handle a Form for rendering in OpenGL. I need to synchronize all the Kernel threads using a barrier, and this work perfectly. Of course, I need to handle Form messages in the main thread (Main routine), for every Form created, and indeed I call Application.DoEvents() to do the job. Now I have to modify the snippet above to have a common Form (simple dialog box) without consuming the 100% of CPU calling Application.DoEvents(), as Application.Run does. The goal should be to have the snippet above handle messages when arrives, and issue a rendering (releasing the barrier) only when necessary, without trying to get the maximum FPS; there should be the possibility to switch to a strict loop to render as much as possible. How could it be possible? Note: the snippet above must be executed in the Main routine, since the OpenGL context is created on the main thread. Moving the snippet in a separated thread and calling Application.Run is quite unstable and buggy...

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• Scala actors: receive vs react

  - by jqno

  Let me first say that I have quite a lot of Java experience, but have only recently become interested in functional languages. Recently I've started looking at Scala, which seems like a very nice language. However, I've been reading about Scala's Actor framework in Programming in Scala, and there's one thing I don't understand. In chapter 30.4 it says that using react instead of receive makes it possible to re-use threads, which is good for performance, since threads are expensive in the JVM. Does this mean that, as long as I remember to call react instead of receive, I can start as many Actors as I like? Before discovering Scala, I've been playing with Erlang, and the author of Programming Erlang boasts about spawning over 200,000 processes without breaking a sweat. I'd hate to do that with Java threads. What kind of limits am I looking at in Scala as compared to Erlang (and Java)? Also, how does this thread re-use work in Scala? Let's assume, for simplicity, that I have only one thread. Will all the actors that I start run sequentially in this thread, or will some sort of task-switching take place? For example, if I start two actors that ping-pong messages to each other, will I risk deadlock if they're started in the same thread? According to Programming in Scala, writing actors to use react is more difficult than with receive. This sounds plausible, since react doesn't return. However, the book goes on to show how you can put a react inside a loop using Actor.loop. As a result, you get loop { react { ... } } which, to me, seems pretty similar to while (true) { receive { ... } } which is used earlier in the book. Still, the book says that "in practice, programs will need at least a few receive's". So what am I missing here? What can receive do that react cannot, besides return? And why do I care? Finally, coming to the core of what I don't understand: the book keeps mentioning how using react makes it possible to discard the call stack to re-use the thread. How does that work? Why is it necessary to discard the call stack? And why can the call stack be discarded when a function terminates by throwing an exception (react), but not when it terminates by returning (receive)? I have the impression that Programming in Scala has been glossing over some of the key issues here, which is a shame, because otherwise it's a truly excellent book.

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• Problem with return 2 libc method

  - by jth

  Hi, I'am trying to understand the return2libc method. I'am using an ubuntu linux 9.10, 32 bit with ASLR disabled. In theory, it sounds quite easy, overwrite the saved eip with the address of system() (or whatever function you want), then put the address to which system() should return and after that, the parameter for system, the "/bin/bash"-string. But what happens is that my exploit keeps segfaulting the vulnerable program. I assume something with the system()-address went wrong. This is what I did so far: Determined the address of system(): (gdb) print system $1 = {<text variable, no debug info>} 0x167020 <system> (gdb) x/x system 0x167020 <system>: 0x890cec83 I used the subsequent x/x system because those 3 bytes returned by print system looks like an index in some sort of jumptable (PLT?), so I assume 0x890cec83 is the right address which is used to overwrite the saved eip. After that I determined the address of the /bin/bash string in memory, using a small C program which basically consists of this line: printf("Address of string /bin/bash: %p\n", getenv("SHELL")); Then I looked a little bit around in the memory and fount /bin/bash: (gdb) x/s 0xbffff6ca 0xbffff6ca: "/bin/bash" After I gathered this information, I filled the buffer: (gdb) b 9 Breakpoint 1 at 0x8048407: file victim.c, line 9. (gdb) r `perl -e 'print "A"x9 . "\x83\xec\x0c\x89FAKE\xca\f6\ff\bf";'` Breakpoint 1, main (argc=1111638594, argv=0xc360cca) at victim.c:10 10 return 0; (gdb) x/s 0xbffff6ca 0xbffff6ca: "/bin/bash" Stack frame looks like this: (gdb) i f Stack level 0, frame at 0xbffff440: eip = 0x8048407 in main (victim.c:10); saved eip 0x890cec83 source language c. Arglist at 0xbffff438, args: argc=1111638594, argv=0xc360cca Locals at 0xbffff438, Previous frame's sp is 0xbffff440 Saved registers: ebp at 0xbffff438, eip at 0xbffff43c This seems all right to me, saved eip was overwritten with the (hopefully) correct system()-address, return address for system was set to "FAKE" (shouldn't matter) and the address of /bin/bash also seems to be correct. When I'am continuing the execution, victim segfaults on some strange address and certainly not in 0x890cec83: (gdb) cont Continuing. Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x0804840d in main (argc=Cannot access memory at address 0x41414149 ) at victim.c:11 11 } Has anyone an explanation or a hint what happens here and why the execution isn't redirected to 0x890cec83? Thanks in advance, any hint, and be it only vague, would be appreciated. I have no idea why this doesn't work.

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• Is it too early to start designing for Task Parallel Library?

  - by Joe Erickson

  I have been following the development of the .NET Task Parallel Library (TPL) with great interest since Microsoft first announced it. There is no doubt in my mind that we will eventually take advantage of TPL. What I am questioning is whether it makes sense to start taking advantage of TPL when Visual Studio 2010 and .NET 4.0 are released, or whether it makes sense to wait a while longer. Why Start Now? The .NET 4.0 Task Parallel Library appears to be well designed and some relatively simple tests demonstrate that it works well on today's multi-core CPUs. I have been very interested in the potential advantages of using multiple lightweight threads to speed up our software since buying my first quad processor Dell Poweredge 6400 about seven years ago. Experiments at that time indicated that it was not worth the effort, which I attributed largely to the overhead of moving data between each CPU's cache (there was no shared cache back then) and RAM. Competitive advantage - some of our customers can never get enough performance and there is no doubt that we can build a faster product using TPL today. It sounds fun. Yes, I realize that some developers would rather poke themselves in the eye with a sharp stick, but we really enjoy maximizing performance. Why Wait? Are today's Intel Nehalem CPUs representative of where we are going as multi-core support matures? You can purchase a Nehalem CPU with 4 cores which share a single level 3 cache today, and most likely a 6 core CPU sharing a single level 3 cache by the time Visual Studio 2010 / .NET 4.0 are released. Obviously, the number of cores will go up over time, but what about the architecture? As the number of cores goes up, will they still share a cache? One issue with Nehalem is the fact that, even though there is a very fast interconnect between the cores, they have non-uniform memory access (NUMA) which can lead to lower performance and less predictable results. Will future multi-core architectures be able to do away with NUMA? Similarly, will the .NET Task Parallel Library change as it matures, requiring modifications to code to fully take advantage of it? Limitations Our core engine is 100% C# and has to run without full trust, so we are limited to using .NET APIs.

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• Optimizing spacing of mesh containing a given set of points

  - by Feynman

  I tried to summarize the this as best as possible in the title. I am writing an initial value problem solver in the most general way possible. I start with an arbitrary number of initial values at arbitrary locations (inside a boundary.) The first part of my program creates a mesh/grid (I am not sure which is the correct nuance), with N points total, that contains all the initial values. My goal is to optimize the mesh such that the spacing is as uniform as possible. My solver seems to work half decently (it needs some more obscure debugging that is not relevant here.) I am starting with one dimension. I intend to generalize the algorithm to an arbitrary number of dimensions once I get it working consistently. I am writing my code in fortran, but feel free to reply with pseudocode or the language of your choice. Allow me to elaborate with an example: Say I am working on a closed interval [1,10] xmin=1 xmax=10 Say I have 3 initial points: xmin, 5 and xmax num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5,xmax] //my arrays start at 1. Assume "known" starts sorted I store my mesh/grid points in an array called coord. Say I want 10 points total in my mesh/grid. N=10 coord(10) Remember, all this is arbitrary--except the variable names of course. The algorithm should set coord to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} Now for a less trivial example: num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5.5,xmax or just num_ivc=1 known(num_ivc)=[5.5] Now, would you have 5 evenly spaced points on the interval [1, 5.5] and 5 evenly spaced points on the interval (5.5, 10]? But there is more space between 1 and 5.5 than between 5.5 and 10. So would you have 6 points on [1, 5.5] followed by 4 on (5.5 to 10]. The key is to minimize the difference in spacing. I have been working on this for 2 days straight and I can assure you it is a lot trickier than it sounds. I have written code that only works if N is large only works if N is small only works if it the known points are close together only works if it the known points are far apart only works if at least one of the known points is near a boundary only works if none of the known points are near a boundary So as you can see, I have coded the gamut of almost-solutions. I cannot figure out a way to get it to perform equally well in all possible scenarios (that is, create the optimum spacing.)

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• How to call Ajax to run a PHP file while maintaining PHP & Javascript variables.

  - by Umar

  Hi Stackoverflowers. I'm using the Facebook php-sdk to get the users name and friends, right now the loading friends part takes about +3 seconds so I wanted to do it via Ajax, e.g. so the document can load and jQuery then calls an external PHP script which loads the friends (their names and their profile pictures). So to do this I did: $(document).ready(function() { var loadUrl = "http://localhost/fb/getFriends.php" ; $("#friends") .html("Hold on, your friends are loading!") .load(loadUrl); }); But I get a PHP error: Fatal error: Call to a member function api() on a non-object If I do this in the same PHP file (so I don't use Ajax at all to call it) it works fine. Now I think I understand the reason this is happening, but I don't know how to fix it. In my main index.php file I have a bunch of init and session code e.g. FB.init({ appId : '<?php echo $facebook->getAppId(); ?>', session : <?php echo json_encode($session); ?>, // don't refetch the session when PHP already has it status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); So I'm just wondering what is the best way to treat my new separate PHP file getFriends.php in a way where it has access to all PHP/JavaScript session data/variables? If you haven't used the Facebook php-sdk I'll quickly explain what I mean: Lets say I have index.php and getUsername.php, from index.php I want to retrieve the getUsername.php file via Ajax using .load. Now the problem is getUsername.php needs to access PHP session data/Javascript Init functions which were created in index.php, so I'm thinking of ways to solve this (I'm new to PHP so sorry if this sounds silly) but I'm thinking maybe I could do a POST in jQuery Ajax and post the session data? Or maybe I could create a PHP class, so something like: class getUsername extends index{} /*Yes I'm a newbie*/ If you have a look at the php-sdk example.php link posted at the top maybe you'd better understand what variables exactly need to be accessed from a new file. Also on a different note, I'm using PHP to work out page rendering times and it seems that fetching the users name alone : // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } Can take a good 4 seconds, is this normal? Once I get the users details is it good to cache it or something? -Speed isn't as important right now, for now I'm just trying to figure out this Ajax-separating php files thing. Woah this is a long post. Thanks very much for your time.

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• .NET: Avoidance of custom exceptions by utilising existing types, but which?

  - by Mr. Disappointment

  Consider the following code (ASP.NET/C#): private void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!SetupHelper.SetUp()) { throw new ShitHitFanException(); } } I've never been too hesitant to simply roll my own exception type, basically because I have found (bad practice, or not) that mostly a reasonable descriptive type name gives us enough as developers to go by in order to know what happened and why something might have happened. Sometimes the existing .NET exception types even accommodate these needs - regardless of the message. In this particular scenario, for demonstration purposes only, the application should die a horrible, disgraceful death should SetUp not complete properly (as dictated by its return value), but I can't find an already existing exception type in .NET which would seem to suffice; though, I'm sure one will be there and I simply don't know about it. Brad Abrams posted this article that lists some of the available exception types. I say some because the article is from 2005, and, although I try to keep up to date, it's a more than plausible assumption that more have been added to future framework versions that I am still unaware of. Of course, Visual Studio gives you a nicely formatted, scrollable list of exceptions via Intellisense - but even on analysing those, I find none which would seem to suffice for this situation... ApplicationException: ...when a non-fatal application error occurs The name seems reasonable, but the error is very definitely fatal - the app is dead. ExecutionEngineException: ...when there is an internal error in the execution engine of the CLR Again, sounds reasonable, superficially; but this has a very definite purpose and to help me out here certainly isn't it. HttpApplicationException: ...when there is an error processing an HTTP request Well, we're running an ASP.NET application! But we're also just pulling at straws here. InvalidOperationException: ...when a call is invalid for the current state of an instance This isn't right but I'm adding it to the list of 'possible should you put a gun to my head, yes'. OperationCanceledException: ...upon cancellation of an operation the thread was executing Maybe I wouldn't feel so bad using this one, but I'd still be hijacking the damn thing with little right. You might even ask why on earth I would want to raise an exception here but the idea is to find out that if I were to do so then do you know of an appropriate exception for such a scenario? And basically, to what extent can we piggy-back on .NET while keeping in line with rationality?

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• Nice, clean, simple way of getting a dataset from ASP.NET to plain HTML jQuery or JavaScript library

  - by David S

  I know this is a probable open ended question, and I have tried looking around so much over the last year or two... maybe I am looking for a perfect place that doesn't exist! of course it's all about perception no less.. Anyway, just to clarify what I am trying to do and why: I want to be able to use (primarily for the moment) ASP.NET or services thereof to get a dataset - whatever the source data, I can obviously get a dataset of rows/Columns. I want to be able to, as simply as possible, get that data over to the client via xml/json/whatever, to then use in a "variety" of ways. "Variety" of ways meaning I would like to "easily" bind that data to say a grid, or a combo dropdown or just simply render to a textbox - BUT by referencing the dataset as I would say on the serverside. Now I know this all sounds simplistic, and I know there are lots of complications.. so I have tried the following so far over the last year or so: ExtJS - very good, nice solid framework, but just found it a bit too much to use in everyday basic apps - great if I was building a whole application with it Yahoo YUI - not looked recently, but I guess some of the concepts with ExtJS were similar? JQuery - of course to get data etc, it was ok, and I guess there are so many 3rd party plugins, that a mix and match might work? Adobe SPRY - ironically this was as close to getting a dataset style structure to Javascript/client, although it seemed to drop off/go quiet..? I maybe wrong.. I did have a very cursory play with Tibco GI and another one I cannot remember the name of! but again, it felt like it was great to build a whole app perhaps? Anyway, I am very amazed by all of the technologies coming out, and really not biased one way or the other, I really just want a very simple way of getting data from the server, and having a basic/very flexible way of working with that data in the client without using server technologies.. I need to keep the server flexible as I may need to use PHP, or java technologies not just .NET So again, sorry for the rambles, but if anyone out there has had a simple experience, or would like to share some ideas, it would be very welcomed!! David.

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• Can you pass by reference in Java?

  - by dbones

  Hi. Sorry if this sounds like a newbie question, but the other day a Java developer mentioned about passing a paramter by reference (by which it was ment just pass a Reference object) From a C# perspective I can pass a reference type by value or by reference, this is also true to value types I have written a noddie console application to show what i mean.. can i do this in Java? namespace ByRefByVal { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //Creating of the object Person p1 = new Person(); p1.Name = "Dave"; PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //should not be null //A copy of the Reference is made and sent to the method PrintUserNameByValue(p1); PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //the actual reference is passed to the method PrintUserNameByRef(ref p1); //<-- I know im passing the Reference PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); Console.ReadLine(); } private static void PrintIfObjectIsNull(Object o) { if (o == null) { Console.WriteLine("object is null"); } else { Console.WriteLine("object still references something"); } } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by value /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByValue(Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //<- this cannot affect the orginal reference, as it was passed in by value. } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by reference /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByRef(ref Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //this has access to the orginonal reference, allowing us to alter it, either make it point to a different object or to nothing. } } class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } } If it java cannot do this, then its just passing a reference type by value? (is that fair to say) Many thanks Bones

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