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  • Secure WS client with UsernameToken(SOAP security header)

    - by user79163
    Hi, I'm trying to secure my WS client to be able to call the WS. My code looks like this: SendSmsService smsService = new SendSmsService(); SendSms sendSMS = smsService.getSendSms(); BindingProvider stub = (BindingProvider)sendSMS; //Override endpoint with local copy of wsdl. String URL ="";//here is the wsdl url Map<String,Object> requestContext = stub.getRequestContext(); requestContext.put(BindingProvider.ENDPOINT_ADDRESS_PROPERTY, URL); //Set usernametoken URL fileURL = loader.getResource("client-config.xml"); File file = new File(fileURL.getFile()); FileInputStream clientConfig = null; try { clientConfig = new FileInputStream(file); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } XWSSecurityConfiguration config = null; try { config = SecurityConfigurationFactory.newXWSSecurityConfiguration(clientConfig); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); log.warn("Exception: "+e.getMessage()); } requestContext.put(XWSSecurityConfiguration.MESSAGE_SECURITY_CONFIGURATION, config); //Invoke the web service String requestId = null; try { requestId = sendSMS.sendSms(addresses, senderName, charging, message, receiptRequest); } catch (PolicyException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ServiceException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } and the config file looks like this: <xwss:JAXRPCSecurity xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config" optimize="true"> <xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityConfiguration dumpMessages="true" xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config"> <xwss:UsernameToken name="username" password="password> </xwss:SecurityConfiguration> </xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> util.SecurityEnvironmentHandler </xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> </xwss:JAXRPCSecurity> The SecurityEnviromentHandler is a dummy class that implements javax.security.auth.callback.CallbackHandler. Authentication must be in compliance with Oasis Web Services Security Username Token Profile 1.0. But I'm constantly getting "Security header not valid" error. Where am I going wrong, can anyone tell me. I used wsimport(JAX_WS 2.1 to generate classes for my client) Note:Only thing I know about this WS is WSDL URL and user&pass for authentication

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  • How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

    - by Vincent
    Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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  • Query performs poorly unless a temp table is used

    - by Paul McLoughlin
    The following query takes about 1 minute to run, and has the following IO statistics: SELECT T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT, SUM(T2.UNITS) AS TotalUnits FROM dbo.TRANS AS T JOIN dbo.TRANS AS T2 ON T2.RGN=T.RGN AND T2.CD=T.CD AND T2.FUND_CD=T.FUND_CD AND T2.TRDT<=T.TRDT JOIN TASK_REQUESTS AS T3 ON T3.CD=T.CD AND T3.RGN=T.RGN AND T3.TASK = 'UPDATE_MEM_BAL' GROUP BY T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT (4447 row(s) affected) Table 'TRANSACTIONS'. Scan count 5977, logical reads 7527408, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table 'TASK_REQUESTS'. Scan count 1, logical reads 11, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 58157 ms, elapsed time = 61437 ms. If I instead introduce a temporary table then the query returns quickly and performs less logical reads: CREATE TABLE #MyTable(RGN VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, CD VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY([RGN],[CD])); INSERT INTO #MyTable(RGN, CD) SELECT RGN, CD FROM TASK_REQUESTS WHERE TASK='UPDATE_MEM_BAL'; SELECT T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT, SUM(T2.UNITS) AS TotalUnits FROM dbo.TRANS AS T JOIN dbo.TRANS AS T2 ON T2.RGN=T.RGN AND T2.CD=T.CD AND T2.FUND_CD=T.FUND_CD AND T2.TRDT<=T.TRDT JOIN #MyTable AS T3 ON T3.CD=T.CD AND T3.RGN=T.RGN GROUP BY T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT (4447 row(s) affected) Table 'Worktable'. Scan count 5974, logical reads 382339, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table 'TRANSACTIONS'. Scan count 4, logical reads 4547, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table '#MyTable________________________________________________________________000000000013'. Scan count 1, logical reads 2, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 1420 ms, elapsed time = 1515 ms. The interesting thing for me is that the TASK_REQUEST table is a small table (3 rows at present) and statistics are up to date on the table. Any idea why such different execution plans and execution times would be occuring? And ideally how to change things so that I don't need to use the temp table to get decent performance? The only real difference in the execution plans is that the temp table version introduces an index spool (eager spool) operation.

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  • Suggest an alternative way to organize/build a database solution.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    We are using Visual Studio 2010, but this was first conceived with VS2003. I will forward the best suggestions to my team. The current setup almost makes me vomit. It is a C# solution with most projects containing .sql files. Because we support Microsoft, Oracle, and Sybase, and so home-brewed a pre-processor, much like C preprocessor, except that substitutions are performed by a home-brewed C# program without using yacc and tools like that. #ifdefs are used for conditional macro definitions, and yeah - macros are the way this is done. A macro can expand to another macro or two, but this should eventually terminate. Only macros have #ifdef in them - the rest of the SQL-like code just uses these macros. Now, the various configurations: Debug, MNDebug, MNRelease, Release, SQL_APPLY_ALL, SQL_APPLY_MSFT, SQL_APPLY_ORACLE, SQL_APPLY_SYBASE, SQL_BUILD_OUTPUT_ALL, SQL_COMPILE, as well as 2 more. Also: Any CPU, Mixed Platforms, Win32. What drives me nuts is having to configure it correctly as well as choosing the right one out of 12 x 3 = 36 configurations as well as having to substitute database name depending on the type of database: config, main, or gateway. I am thinking that configuration should be reduced to just Debug, Release, and SQL_APPLY. Also, using 0, 1, and 2 seems so 80s ... Finally, I think my intention to build or not to build 3 types of databases for 3 types of vendors should be configured with just a tic tac toe board like: XOX OOX XXX In this case it would mean build MSFT+CONFIG, all SYBASE, and all GATEWAY. Still, the overall thing which uses a text file and a pre-processor and many configurations seems incredibly clunky. It is year 2010 now and someone out there is bound to have a very clean and/or creative tool/solution. The only pro would be that the existing collection of macros has been well tested. Have you ever had to write SQL that would work for several vendors? How did you do it? SqlVars.txt (Every one of 30 users makes a copy of a template and modifies this to suit their needs): // This is the default parameters file and should not be changed. // You can overwrite any of these parameters by copying the appropriate // section to override into SqlVars.txt and providing your own information. //Build types are 0-Config, 1-Main, 2-Gateway BUILD_TYPE=1 REMOVE_COMMENTS=1 // Login information used when applying to a Microsoft SQL server database SQL_APPLY_MSFT_version=SQL2005 SQL_APPLY_MSFT_database=msftdb SQL_APPLY_MSFT_server=ABC SQL_APPLY_MSFT_user=msftusr SQL_APPLY_MSFT_password=msftpwd // Login information used when applying to an Oracle database SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_version=ORACLE10g SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_server=oradb SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_user=orausr SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_password=orapwd // Login information used when applying to a Sybase database SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_version=SYBASE125 SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_database=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_server=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_user=sybusr SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_password=sybpwd ... (THIS GOES ON)

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  • Passing arguments between classes - use public properties or pass a properties class as argument?

    - by devoured elysium
    So let's assume I have a class named ABC that will have a list of Point objects. I need to make some drawing logic with them. Each one of those Point objects will have a Draw() method that will be called by the ABC class. The Draw() method code will need info from ABC class. I can only see two ways to make them have this info: Having Abc class make public some properties that would allow draw() to make its decisions. Having Abc class pass to draw() a class full of properties. The properties in both cases would be the same, my question is what is preferred in this case. Maybe the second approach is more flexible? Maybe not? I don't see here a clear winner, but that sure has more to do with my inexperience than any other thing. If there are other good approaches, feel free to share them. Here are both cases: class Abc1 { public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } and here is approach 2: class Abc2 { //here we make take down all properties public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } class Abc2MethodArgs { //and we put them here. this class will be passed as argument to //Point's draw() method! public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; } Also, if there are any "formal" names for these two approaches, I'd like to know them so I can better choose the tags/thread name, so it's more useful for searching purposes. That or feel free to edit them.

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  • Contact form with php-script does not work

    - by elajjas
    I'm new to the forum and I have been trying to find a thread that could be helpful but nothing have been working out so far. I recently uploaded my site via FTP, and it works fine. Except for one thing, my contact form. The contact form is crucial and it is almost the whole point of the website. I don't get any emails "from the form", either in my spam-folder or inbox. Please have a look at the website which is: http://www.adspot.se The contact form is situated on: http://www.adspot.se/contact.html The php script looks like this: <?php if (isset($_REQUEST['email'])) //if "email" is filled out, send email { //send email $name = $_REQUEST['name'] ; $email = $_REQUEST['email'] ; $message = $_REQUEST['message'] ; mail("[email protected]", $name, $message, "From:" . $email); } ?> I've already tried different types of php-scripts, but it still doesn't seem to work. UPDATE: Changed the form code to: <form method="POST" action="email.php"> <div class="row half"> <div class="6u"> <input name="name" placeholder="Name" type="text" class="text" /> </div> <div class="6u"> <input name="email" placeholder="Email" type="text" class="text" /> </div> </div> <div class="row half"> <div class="12u"> <textarea name="message" placeholder="Message"></textarea> </div> </div> <div class="row half"> <div class="12u"> <ul class="action"> <input type="submit" class="action"> </ul> </div> </div> </form> Now it redirects me to www.adspot.se/email.php but still no emails received...

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  • Unable to fetch Json data from remote url

    - by user3772611
    I am cracking my head to solve this thing. I am unable to fetch the JSON data from remote REST API. I need to fetch the JSOn data nd display the "html_url" field from the JSON data on my website. I saw that you need the below charset and content type for fetching JSON. <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="application/json"> </head> <body> <p>My Instruments page</p> <ul></ul> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.11.0.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { alert("Inside the script"); $.getJSON(" https://pki.zendesk.com/api/v2/help_center/sections/200268985/articles.json", function (obj) { alert("Inside the getJSON"); $.each(obj, function (key, value) { $("ul").append("<li>" + value.html_url + "</li>"); }); }); }); </script> </body> </html> I referred to following example on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/2xTjf/29/ The "http://date.jsontest.com" given in this example also doesn't work in my code. The first alert is pops but not the other one. I am a novice at JSON/ Jquery. i used jsonlint.com to find if it has valid JSON, it came out valid. I tested using chrome REST client too. What am I missing here ? Help me please ! Thanks in anticipation.

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  • Swing: How do I run a job from AWT thread, but after a window was layed out?

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    My complete GUI runs inside the AWT thread, because I start the main window using SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(...). Now I have a JDialog which has just to display a JLabel, which indicates that a certain job is in progress, and close that dialog after the job was finished. The problem is: the label is not displayed. That job seems to be started before JDialog was fully layed-out. When I just let the dialog open without waiting for a job and closing, the label is displayed. The last thing the dialog does in its ctor is setVisible(true). Things such as revalidate(), repaint(), ... don't help either. Even when I start a thread for the monitored job, and wait for it using someThread.join() it doesn't help, because the current thread (which is the AWT thread) is blocked by join, I guess. Replacing JDialog with JFrame doesn't help either. So, is the concept wrong in general? Or can I manage it to do certain job after it is ensured that a JDialog (or JFrame) is fully layed-out? Simplified algorithm of what I'm trying to achieve: Create a subclass of JDialog Ensure that it and its contents are fully layed-out Start a process and wait for it to finish (threaded or not, doesn't matter) Close the dialog I managed to write a reproducible test case: EDIT Problem from an answer is now addressed: This use case does display the label, but it fails to close after the "simulated process", because of dialog's modality. import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class _DialogTest2 { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { final JLabel jLabel = new JLabel("Please wait..."); @Override public void run() { JFrame myFrame = new JFrame("Main frame"); myFrame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); myFrame.setSize(750, 500); myFrame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); myFrame.setVisible(true); JDialog d = new JDialog(myFrame, "I'm waiting"); d.setModalityType(Dialog.ModalityType.APPLICATION_MODAL); d.add(jLabel); d.setSize(300, 200); d.setLocationRelativeTo(null); d.setVisible(true); SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { Thread.sleep(3000); // simulate process jLabel.setText("Done"); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { } } }); d.setVisible(false); d.dispose(); myFrame.setVisible(false); myFrame.dispose(); } }); } }

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • SQL Design Question regarding schema and if Name value pair is the best solution

    - by Aur
    I am having a small problem trying to decide on database schema for a current project. I am by no means a DBA. The application parses through a file based on user input and enters that data in the database. The number of fields that can be parsed is between 1 and 42 at the current moment. The current design of the database is entirely flat with there being 42 columns; some have repeated columns such as address1, address2, address3, etc... This says that I should normalize the data. However, data integrity is not needed at this moment and the way the data is shaped I'm looking at several joins. Not a bad thing but the data is still in a 1 to 1 relationship and I still see a lot of empty fields per row. So my concerns are that this does not allow the database or the application to be very extendable. If they want to add more fields to be parsed (which they do) than I'd need to create another table and add another foreign key to the linking table. The third option is I have a table where the fields are defined and a table for each record. So what I was thinking is to make a table that stores the value and then links to those two tables. The problem is I can picture the size of that table growing large depending on the input size. If someone gives me a file with 300,000 records than 300,000 x 40 = 12 million so I have some reservations. However I think if I get to that point than I should be happy it is being used. This option also allows for more custom displaying of information albeit a bit more work but little rework even if you add more fields. So the problem boils down to: 1. Current design is a flat file which makes extending it hard and it is not normalized. 2. Normalize the tables although no real benefits for the moment but requirements change. 3. Normalize it down into the name value pair and hope size doesn't hurt. There are a large number of inserts, updates, and selects against that table. So performance is a worry but I believe the saying is design now, performance testing later? I'm probably just missing something practical so any comments would be appreciated even if it’s a quick sanity check. Thank you for your time.

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  • Architectural Design for a Data-Driven Silverlight WP7 app

    - by Rosarch
    I have a Silverlight Windows Phone 7 app that pulls data from a public API. I find myself doing much of the same thing over and over again: In the UI, set a loading message or loading progress bar in place of where the content is Get the content, which may be already in memory, cached in isolated file storage, or require an HTTP request If the content can not be acquired (no network connection, etc), display an error message If the content is acquired, display it in the UI Keep the content in main memory for subsequent queries The content that is displayed to the user can be taken directly from a data source, such as an ObservableCollection, or it may be a query on a data source. I would like to factor out this repetitive process into a framework where ideally only the following needs to be specified: Where to display the content in the UI The UI elements to show while loading, on failure, and on success The URI of the HTTP request How to parse the HTTP response into the data structure that will kept in memory The location of the file in isolated storage, if it exists How to parse the file contents into the data structure that will be kept in memory It may sound like a lot, but two strings, three FrameworkElements, and two methods is less than the overhead that I currently have. Also, this needs to work for however the data is maintained in memory, and needs to work for direct collections and queries on those collections. My questions are: Has something like this already been implemented? Are my thoughts about the topic above fundamentally wrong in some way? Here is a design I'm thinking of: There are two components, a View and a Model. The View is given the FrameworkElements for loading, failure, and success. It is also given a reference to the corresponding Model. The View is a UserControl that is placed somewhere in the UI. The Model a class that is given the URI for the data, a method of how to parse the data, and optionally a filename and how to parse the file. It is responsible for retrieving the data and notifying the View whenever the current status (loading/fail/success) changes. If the data downloaded from the network is different from the cache, the network data takes precedence. When the app closes or is tombstoned, the model writes the data to the cache. How does that sound?

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  • Defined variables and arrays vs functions in php

    - by Frank Presencia Fandos
    Introduction I have some sort of values that I might want to access several times each page is loaded. I can take two different approaches for accessing them but I'm not sure which one is 'better'. Three already implemented examples are several options for the Language, URI and displaying text that I describe here: Language Right now it is configured in this way: lang() is a function that returns different values depending on the argument. Example: lang("full") returns the current language, "English", while lang() returns the abbreviation of the current language, "en". There are many more options, like lang("select"), lang("selectact"), etc that return different things. The code is too long and irrelevant for the case so if anyone wants it just ask for it. Url The $Url array also returns different values depending on the request. The whole array is fully defined in the beginning of the page and used to get shorter but accurate links of the current page. Example: $Url['full'] would return "http://mypage.org/path/to/file.php?page=1" and $Url['file'] would return "file.php". It's useful for action="" within the forms and many other things. There are more values for $Url['folder'], $Url['file'], etc. Same thing about the code, if wanted, just request it. Text [You can skip this section] There's another array called $Text that is defined in the same way than $Url. The whole array is defined at the beginning, making a mysql call and defining all $Text[$i] for current page with a while loop. I'm not sure if this is more efficient than multiple calls for a single mysql cell. Example: $Text['54'] returns "This is just a test array!" which this could perfectly be implemented with a function like text(54). Question With the 3 examples you can see that I use different methods to do almost the same function (no pun intended), but I'm not sure which one should become the standard one for my code. I could create a function called url() and other called text() to output what I want. I think that working with functions in those cases is better, but I'm not sure why. So I'd really appreciate your opinions and advice. Should I mix arrays and functions in the way I described or should I just use funcions? Please, base your answer in this: The source needs to be readable and reusable by other developers Resource consumption (processing, time and memory). The shorter the code the better. The more you explain the reasons the better. Thank you PS, now I know the differences between $Url and $Uri.

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  • Controlling the USB from Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

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  • Java: Is there a way to efficiently insert or remove many elements from the middle of a LinkedList?

    - by allyourcode
    I was expecting to find this in Java's LinkedList, since the point of linked lists is to be able to efficiently insert (and remove) anywhere (assuming you have some kind of pointer to the location where you want to insert or remove). I'm not finding anything in the API though. Am I overlooking something? The closest thing I can find to this are the add and remove method in ListIterator. This has some limitations though. In particular, other iterators become invalid as soon as the underlying LinkedList is modified via remove, according to the API. This is born out in my tests as well; the following program results in a IllegalStateException: import java.util.*; public class RemoveFromLinkedList { public static void main(String[] args) { LinkedList<Integer> myList= new LinkedList<Integer>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myList.add(i); } ListIterator<Integer> i1 = myList.listIterator(); ListIterator<Integer> i2 = myList.listIterator(); for (int i = 0; i < 3; ++i) { i1.next(); i2.next(); } System.out.println("i1.next() should be 3: " + i1.next()); i1.remove(); i1.remove(); // Exception! System.out.println("i2.next() should be 5: " + i2.next()); } } Ideally, what I'm expecting is something like this: // In my imagination only. This is the way Java actually works, afaict. // Construct two insertion/deletion points in LinkedList myLinkedList. myIterator = myLinkedList.iterator(); for (...) { myIterator.next(); } start = myIterator.clone(); for (...) { myIterator.next(); } // Later... after = myLinkedList.spliceAfter(myIterator, someOtherLinkedList); // start, myIterator, and after are still all valid; thus, I can do this: // Removes everything I just spliced in, as well as some other stuff before that. myLinkedList.remove(start, after); // Now, myIterator is invalid, but not start, nor after. C++ has something like this for its list class (template). Only iterators pointing to moved elements become invalidated, not ALL iterators.

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  • Drag and drop game - why isn't it working now I've moved it to another domain?

    - by vward
    Earlier this year I did some work on a drag and drop game. It was the first thing I'd coded other than basic html. I got it working but then had to put it to one side for a while. I've now come back to work on it. The game I had created was put on the ftp of a domain I no longer have. I took the html and image files and put them on another domain expecting them to work. However now nothing drags! I don't know what could be different. I can barely remember how I coded this in the first place. Is there an additional file that should be on the ftp or something like that? Can anyone shed any light? Thanks Vic Game: http://www.vic-taylor.com/dolls/doll6.html Code: <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.8.17/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable" ).draggable() }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable2" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable3" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable4" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable5" ).draggable(); }); </script> </head> </body> <div id="bodies/palepd.gif"> <img src="bodies/palepd.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable"> <img src="bodies/trousers.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable2"> <img src="bodies/top.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable3"> <img src="bodies/dress.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable4"> <img src="bodies/coat.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable5"> </div> </body>

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  • SQL Query takes about 10 - 20 minutes

    - by masfenix
    I have a select from (nothing to complex) Select * from VIEW This view has about 6000 records and about 40 columns. It comes from a Lotus Notes SQL database. So my ODBC drive is the LotusNotesSQL driver. The query takes about 30 seconds to execute. The company I worked for used EXCEL to run the query and write everything to the worksheet. Since I am assuming it writes everything cell by cell, it used to take up to 30 - 40 minutes to complete. I then used MS access. I made a replica local table on Access to store the data. My first try was INSERT INTO COLUMNS OF LOCAL TABLE FROM (SELECT * FROM VIEW) note that this is pseudocode. This ran successfully, but again took up to 20 - 30 minutes. Then I used VBA to loop through the data and insert it in manually (using an INSERT statement) for each seperate record. This took about 10 - 15 minutes. This has been my best case yet. What i need to do after: After i have the data, I need to filter through it by department. The thing is if I put a where clause in the SQL query (the time jumps from 30 seconds to execute the query, to about 10 minutes + the time to write to local table/excel). I dont know why. MAYBE because the columns are all text columns? If we change some of the columns to integer, would that make it faster in terms of the where clause? I am looking for suggestions on how to approach this. My boss has said we could employ some Java based solution. Will this help? I am not a java person but a c#, and maybe I'll convince them to use c# as well, but i am mainly looking for suggestions on how to cut down the time. I've already cut it down from 40 minutes to 10 minutes, but the want it under 2 minutes. Just to recap: Query takes about 30 seconds to exceute Query takes about 15 - 40 minutes to be used locally in excel/acess Need it under 2 minutes Could use java based solution You may suggest other solutions instead of java.

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  • Very basic table view but getting errors

    - by user342451
    Hi guys, trying to write this code since 2 days now, but i keep getting error, it would be nice if anyone could sort this out, thanks. Basically its the same thing i doing from the tutorial on youtube. awaiting a reply // // BooksTableViewController.m // Mybooks // // #import "BooksTableViewController.h" #import "BooksDetailViewController.h" #import "MYbooksAppDelegate.h" @implementation BooksTableViewController @synthesize BooksArray; @synthesize BooksDetailViewController; /* - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier { if ((self = [super initWithStyle:style reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier])) { // Initialization code } return self; } */ - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = NSLocalizedString(@"XYZ",@"GOD is GREAT"); NSMutableArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"H1",@"2",@"3",nil]; self.booksArray = array; [array release]; } /* // Override to allow orientations other than the default portrait orientation. - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); } */ - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview // Release anything that's not essential, such as cached data } #pragma mark Table view methods - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.booksArray count]; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *identity = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identity]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:identity] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell... cell.textLabel.text = [booksArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } /* - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { booksDetailsViewControler *NC = [[booksDetailsViewControler alloc] initWithNibName:@"BooksDetailsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NC animated:YES]; //[booksDetailViewController changeProductText:[booksArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; } */ NSInteger row = [indexPath row]; if (self.booksDetailViewController == nil) { BooksiDetailViewController *aCellDetails = [[AartiDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@" BooksDetailViewController" bundle:nil]; self.booksDetailViewController = aCellDetails; [aCellDetails release]; } booksDetailViewController.title = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [booksArray objectAtIndex:row]]; //DailyPoojaAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; //[delegate.AartiNavController pushViewController:aartiDetailsViewControler animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:aartiDetailViewController animated:YES]; } /* NSInteger row = [indexPath row]; if (self.booksDetailsViewControler == nil) { AartiDetailsViewControler *aBookDetail = [[BooksDetailsViewControler alloc] initWithNibName:@"booksDetaislView" bundle:nil]; self.booksDetailsViewControler = aBookDetail; [aBookDetail release]; } booksDetailsViewControler.title = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [booksArray objectAtIndex:row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:booksDetailsViewControler animated:YES]; */ - (void)dealloc { [aartiDetailViewController release]; [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • Node.js Cron Job Messing with Date Object

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    I'm trying to schedule several cron jobs to generate serial numbers for different entities within my web app. However I am running into this problem, when I'm looping each table, it says it has something to do with date.js. I'm not doing anything with a date object ? Not at this stage anyway. A couple of guesses is that the cron object is doing a date thing in its code and is referencing date.js. I'm using date.js to get access to things like ISO date. for (t in config.generatorTables) { console.log("t = " + config.generatorTables[t] + "\n\n"); var ts3 = azure.createTableService(); var jobSerialNumbers = new cronJob({ //cronTime: '*/' + rndNumber + ' * * * * *', cronTime: '*/1 * * * * *', onTick: function () { //console.log(new Date() + " calling topUpSerialNumbers \n\n"); manageSerialNumbers.topUpSerialNumbers(config.generatorTables[t], function () { }); }, start: false, timeZone: "America/Los_Angeles" }); ts3.createTableIfNotExists(config.generatorTables[t], function (error) { if (error === null) { var query = azure.TableQuery .select() .from(config.generatorTables[t]) .where('PartitionKey eq ?', '0') ts3.queryEntities(query, function (error, serialNumberEntities) { if (error === null && serialNumberEntities.length == 0) { manageSerialNumbers.generateNewNumbers(config.maxNumber, config.serialNumberSize, config.generatorTables[t], function () { jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } else jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } }); } And this is the error message I'm getting when I examine the server.js.logs\0.txt file: C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56 onsole.log('isDST'); return this.toString().match(/(E|C|M|P)(S|D)T/)[2] == "D" ^ TypeError: Cannot read property '2' of null at Date.isDST (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:110) at Date.getTimezone (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:228) at Object._getNextDateFrom (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:88:30) at Object.sendAt (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:51:17) at Object.getTimeout (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:58:30) at Object.start (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:279:33) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:169:46 at Object.generateNewNumbers (C:\node\w\WebRole1\utils\manageSerialNumbers.js:106:5) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:168:45 at C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\azure\lib\services\table\tableservice.js:485:7 I am using this line in my database.js file: require('../public/javascripts/date'); is that correct that I only have to do this once, because date.js is global? I.e. it has a bunch of prototypes (extensions) for the inbuilt date object. Within manageSerialNumbers.js I am just doing a callback, their is no code executing as I've commented it all out, but still receiving this error. Any help or advice would be appreciated.

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  • Large transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" error?

    - by Michael
    My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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  • asp.net mvc 2 multithread

    - by Chris Cap
    I'm getting some weird behavior in asp.net MVC2 (at least it's not what I'm expecting). I have a controller httppost action that processes credit cards. I'm setting a session variable on the server to let me know if a user has attempted to process a card. I clear that session variable when I'm done. I am doing some very quick posts to test the process and the session variable is coming back null everytime because I clear the session variable at the end of the process. I have some debug prints that show me that the all requests are processed synchronously. That is...the first attempt occurs, it fails, session variable is cleared, second attempt tries and fails and the variable is cleared, etc... My first thought was that this was a side effect of debugging and that it just lined requests up for debugging purposes using the local webserver. So I put it on a development server and the same thing is occurring. Multiple submits/posts are processed synchronously. I even put a System.Threading.Sleep in there to make sure it would stop right after I set the session variable and it still won't even START the second request until the first is done. Has anyone else seen this behavior? My understanding was that a worker process was spawned for each request and that these actions could happen asychronously. Here's some psuedo code if (Session["CardCharged"] != null) return RedirectToAction("Index", "Problem"); Session["CardCharged"] = false; //starting the process System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10000); //charge card here if (!providerResponse.IsApproved) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("failed"); Session["CardCharged"] = null; //have to allow them to charge again since this failed return View(myModel); } Session["CardCharged"] = true; return RedirectToAction("Index", "OrderComplete"); I should mention that my code ALWAYS fails the credit card check for testing purposes. I'm trying to test the situation where processing is STILL occurring and redirect the user elsewhere. I have set a dummy session variable elsewhere to assure that the session id "sticks". So I know the session id is the same for each request. Thanks

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  • Why is Dictionary.First() so slow?

    - by Rotsor
    Not a real question because I already found out the answer, but still interesting thing. I always thought that hash table is the fastest associative container if you hash properly. However, the following code is terribly slow. It executes only about 1 million iterations and takes more than 2 minutes of time on a Core 2 CPU. The code does the following: it maintains the collection todo of items it needs to process. At each iteration it takes an item from this collection (doesn't matter which item), deletes it, processes it if it wasn't processed (possibly adding more items to process), and repeats this until there are no items to process. The culprit seems to be the Dictionary.Keys.First() operation. The question is why is it slow? Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); HashSet<int> processed = new HashSet<int>(); Dictionary<int, int> todo = new Dictionary<int, int>(); todo.Add(1, 1); int iterations = 0; int limit = 500000; while (todo.Count > 0) { iterations++; var key = todo.Keys.First(); var value = todo[key]; todo.Remove(key); if (!processed.Contains(key)) { processed.Add(key); // process item here if (key < limit) { todo[key + 13] = value + 1; todo[key + 7] = value + 1; } // doesn't matter much how } } Console.WriteLine("Iterations: {0}; Time: {1}.", iterations, watch.Elapsed); This results in: Iterations: 923007; Time: 00:02:09.8414388. Simply changing Dictionary to SortedDictionary yields: Iterations: 499976; Time: 00:00:00.4451514. 300 times faster while having only 2 times less iterations. The same happens in java. Used HashMap instead of Dictionary and keySet().iterator().next() instead of Keys.First().

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  • Why is .NET Post different from CURL? broken?

    - by ironnailpiercethesky
    I dont understand this. I ran this code below and the result json string was the link is expired (meaning invalid). However the curl code does the exact same thing and works. I either get the expected string with the url or it says i need to wait (for a few seconds to 1 minute). Why? whats the difference between the two? It looks very F%^&*ed up that it is behaving differently (its been causing me HOURS of problems). NOTE: the only cookie required by the site is SID (tested). It holds your session id. The first post activates it and the 2nd command checks the status with the returning json string. Feel free to set the CookieContainer to only use SID if you like. WARNING: you may want to change SID to a different value so other people arent activating it. Your may want to run the 2nd url to ensure the session id is not used and says expired/invalid before you start. additional note: with curl or in your browser if you do the POST command you can stick the sid in .NET cookie container and the 2nd command will work. But doing the first command (the POST data) will not work. This post function i have used for many other sites that require post and so far it has worked. Obviously checking the Method is a big deal and i see it is indeed POST when doing the first command. static void Main(string[] args) { var cookie = new CookieContainer(); PostData("http://uploading.com/files/get/37e36ed8/", "action=second_page&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8", cookie); Thread.Sleep(4000); var res = PostData("http://uploading.com/files/get/?JsHttpRequest=12719362769080-xml&action=get_link&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8&pass=undefined", null/*this makes it GET*/, cookie); Console.WriteLine(res); /* curl -b "SID=37468830" -A "DUMMY_User_Aggent" -d "action=second_page&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8" "http://uploading.com/files/get/37e36ed8/" curl -b "SID=37468830" -A "DUMMY_User_Aggent" "http://uploading.com/files/get/?JsHttpRequest=12719362769080-xml&action=get_link&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8&pass=undefined" */ }

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  • Simple jquery Fade Slideshow fails on certain browsers

    - by cmay
    So I have a simple slideshow on my website which just shows one image then shows another until it reaches the end or the user hits skip in which case it shows index.html. The site is served on apache2 with Django. The slideshow works perfectly on most machines, but certain machines it shows some images twice and other images not at all and the timing is off. I am using jquery 1.4.3. Below is the section of html where I push the image urls from the database to the javascript {% for image in latest_images %} {% thumbnail image.image_file "800x600" crop="center" as im %} <script>FadeImageList.push("{{im.url}}");</script> {% endthumbnail %} {% endfor %} Below is the full javascript file var FadeImageList = []; var fadeDuration = 2000; var fadeImgID = '#slideShow'; var homePageID = '#homePage'; var menuID = '#menu'; var skipFlag = 0; $(document).ready(function(){ $(homePageID).fadeOut(50); PlaySlideshow(FadeImageList); }); var PlaySlideshow = function(FadeImageList){ var newImgSrc = FadeImageList.shift(); $('#skip').click(function(){$('#loader').show();skipFlag = 1;}); if(((typeof(newImgSrc) !== "string") || (skipFlag === 1))){ EndSlideShow(); return; } else{ $(fadeImgID).fadeOut(fadeDuration,function(){ $(fadeImgID).attr('src', newImgSrc); $(fadeImgID).fadeIn(fadeDuration,function(){ PlaySlideshow(FadeImageList); }); }); } }; var EndSlideShow = function(fadeSettings){ $(fadeImgID).fadeOut(400,function(){ $(homePageID).fadeIn(400); $("#skip").fadeOut(400); $('#loader').hide(); }); }; The strange thing is I've had it work and fail on identically version numbered browsers on the same os but on different machines. It consistently either works or fails on a machine. I've had it fail in ie 7,8 firefox 3.6.3 and chrome. I've also had it succeed in ie6,7,8 firefox 3.6.3,3.4.2,3.1 and chrome.

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  • refactoring this function in Java

    - by Joel
    Hi folks, I'm learning Java, and I know one of the big complaints about newbie programmers is that we make really long and involved methods that should be broken into several. Well here is one I wrote and is a perfect example. :-D. public void buildBall(){ /* sets the x and y value for the center of the canvas */ double i = ((getWidth() / 2)); double j = ((getHeight() / 2)); /* randomizes the start speed of the ball */ vy = 3.0; vx = rgen.nextDouble(1.0, 3.0); if (rgen.nextBoolean(.05)) vx = -vx; /* creates the ball */ GOval ball = new GOval(i,j,(2 *BALL_RADIUS),(2 * BALL_RADIUS)); ball.setFilled(true); ball.setFillColor(Color.RED); add(ball); /* animates the ball */ while(true){ i = (i + (vx* 2)); j = (j + (vy* 2)); if (i > APPLICATION_WIDTH-(2 * BALL_RADIUS)){ vx = -vx; } if (j > APPLICATION_HEIGHT-(2 * BALL_RADIUS)){ vy = -vy; } if (i < 0){ vx = -vx; } if (j < 0){ vy = -vy; } ball.move(vx + vx, vy + vy); pause(10); /* checks the edges of the ball to see if it hits an object */ colider = getElementAt(i, j); if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i + (2*BALL_RADIUS), j); } if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i + (2*BALL_RADIUS), j + (2*BALL_RADIUS)); } if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i, j + (2*BALL_RADIUS)); } /* If the ball hits an object it reverses direction */ if (colider != null){ vy = -vy; /* removes bricks when hit but not the paddle */ if (j < (getHeight() -(PADDLE_Y_OFFSET + PADDLE_HEIGHT))){ remove(colider); } } } You can see from the title of the method that I started with good intentions of "building the ball". There are a few issues I ran up against: The problem is that then I needed to move the ball, so I created that while loop. I don't see any other way to do that other than just keep it "true", so that means any other code I create below this loop won't happen. I didn't make the while loop a different function because I was using those variables i and j. So I don't see how I can refactor beyond this loop. So my main question is: How would I pass the values of i and j to a new method: "animateBall" and how would I use ball.move(vx + vx, vy + vy); in that new method if ball has been declared in the buildBall method? I understand this is probably a simple thing of better understanding variable scope and passing arguments, but I'm not quite there yet...

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  • Select options not showing in IE

    - by donkapone
    I have a dynamically generated select with some options and it shows the options fine in normal browsers, but its empty options in IE. Here's the generated HTML: <select name="0" id="custom_0" style="border-bottom: #c0cedb 1px solid; border-left: #c0cedb 1px solid; background-color: #ededed; width: 280px; font-size: 0.87em; border-top: #c0cedb 1px solid; border-right: #c0cedb 1px solid"> <option id="1000" value="0" name="00">1x2GB ECC DDRIII 2GB ECC DDRIII</option> <option id="1001" value="10" name="01">2x2GB ECC DDRIII 4GB ECC DDRIII (+10.00 €)</option> </select> I can't really show you the javascript, since there's so much of it and I would be able to make it simple just for a demo. Maybe you had some of you would've had a similar experience and could figure this one out. Thanks I've added some javascript: $('#custom_order').append('<tr id="custom_'+category+'_row"><td'+padding+'>'+header+'<select id="custom_'+category+'" name="'+category+'" style="background-color:#EDEDED;border:1px solid #C0CEDB;width:280px;font-size:0.87em"></select>'+plusspan+'</td></tr>'); for (var i=0;i<components[category]['value'].length;i++){ $('#custom_'+category).append('<option id="'+components[category]['value'][i]['id']+'" value="'+components[category]['value'][i]['price']+'"></option>'); removals(category,i); dependencies(category,i); selectInput(category); } getDiff(category); getDiff() function adds the values to the options with html() function. The weird thing is, if I alert the html of the option just after the getDiff() function, it shows the value filled out. And it I put the getDiff() function in the for loop where the options are generated, it fills the values and shows them in IE, just not the last one. I'm calling getDiff() outside the loop for optimization, and since I can add the values later after all the options are generated. Well at least I thought I could, since it works on Firefox and Chrome.

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