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  • Thread sleep and thread join.

    - by Dhruv Gairola
    hi guys, if i put a thread to sleep in a loop, netbeans gives me a caution saying Invoking Thread.sleep in loop can cause performance problems. However, if i were to replace the sleep with join, no such caution is given. Both versions compile and work fine tho. My code is below (check the last few lines for "Thread.sleep() vs t.join()"). public class Test{ //Display a message, preceded by the name of the current thread static void threadMessage(String message) { String threadName = Thread.currentThread().getName(); System.out.format("%s: %s%n", threadName, message); } private static class MessageLoop implements Runnable { public void run() { String importantInfo[] = { "Mares eat oats", "Does eat oats", "Little lambs eat ivy", "A kid will eat ivy too" }; try { for (int i = 0; i < importantInfo.length; i++) { //Pause for 4 seconds Thread.sleep(4000); //Print a message threadMessage(importantInfo[i]); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { threadMessage("I wasn't done!"); } } } public static void main(String args[]) throws InterruptedException { //Delay, in milliseconds before we interrupt MessageLoop //thread (default one hour). long patience = 1000 * 60 * 60; //If command line argument present, gives patience in seconds. if (args.length > 0) { try { patience = Long.parseLong(args[0]) * 1000; } catch (NumberFormatException e) { System.err.println("Argument must be an integer."); System.exit(1); } } threadMessage("Starting MessageLoop thread"); long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); Thread t = new Thread(new MessageLoop()); t.start(); threadMessage("Waiting for MessageLoop thread to finish"); //loop until MessageLoop thread exits while (t.isAlive()) { threadMessage("Still waiting..."); //Wait maximum of 1 second for MessageLoop thread to //finish. /*******LOOK HERE**********************/ Thread.sleep(1000);//issues caution unlike t.join(1000) /**************************************/ if (((System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime) > patience) && t.isAlive()) { threadMessage("Tired of waiting!"); t.interrupt(); //Shouldn't be long now -- wait indefinitely t.join(); } } threadMessage("Finally!"); } } As i understand it, join waits for the other thread to complete, but in this case, arent both sleep and join doing the same thing? Then why does netbeans throw the caution?

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  • How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

    - by Adam Jones
    I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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  • I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

    - by Handleman
    According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

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  • Blit Queue Optimization Algorithm

    - by martona
    I'm looking to implement a module that manages a blit queue. There's a single surface, and portions of this surface (bounded by rectangles) are copied to elsewhere within the surface: add_blt(rect src, point dst); There can be any number of operations posted, in order, to the queue. Eventually the user of the queue will stop posting blits, and ask for an optimal set of operations to actually perform on the surface. The task of the module is to ensure that no pixel is copied unnecessarily. This gets tricky because of overlaps of course. A blit could re-blit a previously copied pixel. Ideally blit operations would be subdivided in the optimization phase in such a way that every block goes to its final place with a single operation. It's tricky but not impossible to put this together. I'm just trying to not reinvent the wheel. I looked around on the 'net, and the only thing I found was the SDL_BlitPool Library which assumes that the source surface differs from the destination. It also does a lot of grunt work, seemingly unnecessarily: regions and similar building blocks are a given. I'm looking for something higher-level. Of course, I'm not going to look a gift horse in the mouth, and I also don't mind doing actual work... If someone can come forward with a basic idea that makes this problem seem less complex than it does right now, that'd be awesome too. EDIT: Thinking about aaronasterling's answer... could this work? Implement customized region handler code that can maintain metadata for every rectangle it contains. When the region handler splits up a rectangle, it will automatically associate the metadata of this rectangle with the resulting sub-rectangles. When the optimization run starts, create an empty region handled by the above customized code, call this the master region Iterate through the blt queue, and for every entry: Let srcrect be the source rectangle for the blt beng examined Get the intersection of srcrect and master region into temp region Remove temp region from master region, so master region no longer covers temp region Promote srcrect to a region (srcrgn) and subtract temp region from it Offset temp region and srcrgn with the vector of the current blt: their union will cover the destination area of the current blt Add to master region all rects in temp region, retaining the original source metadata (step one of adding the current blt to the master region) Add to master region all rects in srcrgn, adding the source information for the current blt (step two of adding the current blt to the master region) Optimize master region by checking if adjacent sub-rectangles that are merge candidates have the same metadata. Two sub-rectangles are merge candidates if (r1.x1 == r2.x1 && r1.x2 == r2.x2) | (r1.y1 == r2.y1 && r1.y2 == r2.y2). If yes, combine them. Enumerate master region's sub-rectangles. Every rectangle returned is an optimized blt operation destination. The associated metadata is the blt operation`s source.

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  • Rails populate edit form for non-column attributes

    - by Rabbott
    I have the following form: <% form_for(@account, :url => admin_accounts_path) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => {:f => f} %> <h2>Account Details</h2> <% f.fields_for :customer do |customer_fields| %> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :company %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :company %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :last_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :phone %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :phone %> </p> <% end %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> As well as attr_accessor :customer And I have a before_create method for the account model which does not store the customer_fields, but instead uses them to submit data to an API.. The only thing I store are in the form partial.. The problem I'm running into is that when a validation error gets thrown, the page renders the new action (expected) but none of the non-column attributes within the Account Detail form will show? Any ideas as to how I can change this code around a bit to make this work me?? This same solution may be the help I need for the edit form, I have a getter for the data which it asks the API for, but without place a :value = "asdf" within each text box, it doesn't populate the fields either..

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • Speed up a web service for auto complete and avoid too many method calls.

    - by jphenow
    So I've got my jquery autocomplete 'working,' but its a little fidgety since I call the webservice method each time a keydown() fires so I get lots of methods hanging and sometimes to get the "auto" to work I have to type it out and backspace a bit because i'm assuming it got its return value a little slow. I've limited the query results to 8 to mininmize time. Is there anything i can do to make this a little snappier? This thing seems near useless if I don't get it a little more responsive. javascript $("#clientAutoNames").keydown(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "WebService.asmx/LoadData", data: "{'input':" + JSON.stringify($("#clientAutoNames").val()) + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (data) { if (data.d != null) { var serviceScript = data.d; } $("#autoNames").html(serviceScript); $('#clientAutoNames').autocomplete({ minLength: 2, source: autoNames, delay: 100, focus: function (event, ui) { $('#project').val(ui.item.label); return false; }, select: function (event, ui) { $('#clientAutoNames').val(ui.item.label); $('#projectid').val(ui.item.value); $('#project-description').html(ui.item.desc); pkey = $('#project-id').val; return false; } }) .data("autocomplete")._renderItem = function (ul, item) { return $("<li></li>") .data("item.autocomplete", item) .append("<a>" + item.label + "<br>" + item.desc + "</a>") .appendTo(ul); } } }); }); WebService.asmx <WebMethod()> _ Public Function LoadData(ByVal input As String) As String Dim result As String = "<script>var autoNames = [" Dim sqlOut As Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader Dim connstring As String = *Datasource* Dim strSql As String = "SELECT TOP 2 * FROM v_Clients WHERE (SearchName Like '" + input + "%') ORDER BY SearchName" Dim cnn As Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection = New Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connstring) Dim cmd As Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand = New Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(strSql, cnn) cnn.Open() sqlOut = cmd.ExecuteReader() Dim c As Integer = 0 While sqlOut.Read() result = result + "{" result = result + "value: '" + sqlOut("ContactID").ToString() + "'," result = result + "label: '" + sqlOut("SearchName").ToString() + "'," 'result = result + "desc: '" + title + " from " + company + "'," result = result + "}," End While result = result + "];</script>" sqlOut.Close() cnn.Close() Return result End Function I'm sure I'm just going about this slightly wrong or not doing a better balance of calls or something. Greatly appreciated!

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  • How do I detect server status in a port scanner java implementation

    - by akz
    I am writing a port scanner in Java and I want to be able to distinct the following 4 use cases: port is open port is open and server banner was read port is closed server is not live I have the following code: InetAddress address = InetAddress.getByName("google.com"); int[] ports = new int[]{21, 22, 23, 80, 443}; for (int i = 0; i < ports.length; i++) { int port = ports[i]; Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(address, port); socket.setSoTimeout(500); System.out.println("port " + port + " open"); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); String line = reader.readLine(); if (line != null) { System.out.println(line); } socket.close(); } catch (SocketTimeoutException ex) { // port was open but nothing was read from input stream ex.printStackTrace(); } catch (ConnectException ex) { // port is closed ex.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { if (socket != null && !socket.isClosed()) { try { socket.close(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } } The problem is that I get a ConnectionException both when the port is closed and the server cannot be reached but with a different exception message: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect when the connection was never established and java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect when the port was closed so I cannot make the distinction between the two use cases without digging into the actual exception message. Same thing happens when I try a different approach for the socket creation. If I use: socket = new Socket(); socket.setSoTimeout(500); socket.connect(new InetSocketAddress(address, port), 1000); I have the same problem but with the SocketTimeoutException instead. I get a java.net.SocketTimeoutException: Read timed out if port was open but there was no banner to be read and java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out if server is not live or port is closed. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

    - by sscirrus
    I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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  • php zencart mod - having problems with attributes array

    - by user80151
    I inherited a zencart mod and can't figure out what's wrong. The customer selects a product and an attribute (model#). This is then sent to another form that they complete. When they submit the form, the product and the attribute should be included in the email sent. At this time, only the product is coming through. The attribute just says "array." The interesting part is, when I delete the line that prints the attribute, the products_options_names will print out. So I know that both the product and the products_options_names are working. The attribute is the only thing that is not working right. Here's what I believe to be the significant code. This is the page that has the form, so the attribute should already be passed to the form. //Begin Adding of New features //$productsimage = $product['productsImage']; $productsname = $product['productsName']; $attributes = $product['attributes']; $products_options_name = $value['products_options_name']; $arr_product_list[] = "<strong>Product Name:</strong> $productsname <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "<strong>Attributes:</strong> $attributes <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "<strong>Products Options Name:</strong> $products_options_name <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "---------------------------------------------------------------"; //End Adding of New features } // end foreach ($productArray as $product) ?> Above this, there is another section that has attributes: <?php echo $product['attributeHiddenField']; if (isset($product['attributes']) && is_array($product['attributes'])) { echo '<div class="cartAttribsList">'; echo '<ul>'; reset($product['attributes']); foreach ($product['attributes'] as $option => $value) { ?> Can anyone help me figure out what is wrong? I'm not sure if the problem is on this page or if the attribute isn't being passed to this page. TIA

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  • BufferedReader no longer buffering after a while?

    - by BobTurbo
    Sorry I can't post code but I have a bufferedreader with 50000000 bytes set as the buffer size. It works as you would expect for half an hour, the HDD light flashing every two minutes or so, reading in the big chunk of data, and then going quiet again as the CPU processes it. But after about half an hour (this is a very big file), the HDD starts thrashing as if it is reading one byte at a time. It is still in the same loop and I think I checked free ram to rule out swapping (heap size is default). Probably won't get any helpful answers, but worth a try. OK I have changed heap size to 768mb and still nothing. There is plenty of free memory and java.exe is only using about 300mb. Now I have profiled it and heap stays at about 200MB, well below what is available. CPU stays at 50%. Yet the HDD starts thrashing like crazy. I have.. no idea. I am going to rewrite the whole thing in c#, that is my solution. Here is the code (it is just a throw-away script, not pretty): BufferedReader s = null; HashMap<String, Integer> allWords = new HashMap<String, Integer>(); HashSet<String> pageWords = new HashSet<String>(); long[] pageCount = new long[78592]; long pages = 0; Scanner wordFile = new Scanner(new BufferedReader(new FileReader("allWords.txt"))); while (wordFile.hasNext()) { allWords.put(wordFile.next(), Integer.parseInt(wordFile.next())); } s = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("wikipedia/enwiki-latest-pages-articles.xml"), 50000000); StringBuilder words = new StringBuilder(); String nextLine = null; while ((nextLine = s.readLine()) != null) { if (a.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (b.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (c.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (d.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { nextLine = s.readLine(); if (e.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { if (f.matcher(s.readLine()).matches()) { pageWords.addAll(Arrays.asList(words.toString().toLowerCase().split("[^a-zA-Z]"))); words.setLength(0); pages++; for (String word : pageWords) { if (allWords.containsKey(word)) { pageCount[allWords.get(word)]++; } else if (!word.isEmpty() && allWords.containsKey(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))) { pageCount[allWords.get(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))]++; } } pageWords.clear(); } } } else if (g.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } words.append(nextLine); words.append(" "); }

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  • php download file slows

    - by hobbywebsite
    OK first off thanks for your time I wish I could give more than one point for this question. Problem: I have some music files on my site (.mp3) and I am using a php file to increment a database to count the number of downloads and to point to the file to download. For some reason this method starts at 350kb/s then slowly drops to 5kb/s which then the file says it will take 11hrs to complete. BUT if I go directly to the .mp3 file my browser brings up a player and then I can right click and "save as" which works fine complete download in 3mins. (Yes both during the same time for those that are thinking it's my connection or ISP and its not my server either.) So the only thing that I've been playing around with recently is the php.ini and the .htcaccess files. So without further ado, the php file, php.ini, and the .htcaccess: download.php <?php include("config.php"); include("opendb.php"); $filename = 'song_name'; $filedl = $filename . '.mp3'; $query = "UPDATE songs SET song_download=song_download+1 WHER song_linkname='$filename'"; mysql_query($query); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($filedl)); header('Content-type: audio/mp3'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($filedl)); readfile('/music/' . $filename . '/' . $filedl); include("closedb.php"); ?> php.ini register_globals = off allow_url_fopen = off expose_php = Off max_input_time = 60 variables_order = "EGPCS" extension_dir = ./ upload_tmp_dir = /tmp precision = 12 SMTP = relay-hosting.secureserver.net url_rewriter.tags = "a=href,area=href,frame=src,input=src,form=,fieldset=" ; Defines the default timezone used by the date functions date.timezone = "America/Los_Angeles" .htaccess Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^(www.MindCollar.com)?$ [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://www.MindCollar.com/$1 [R=301,L] <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /errors/404.php ErrorDocument 403 /errors/403.php ErrorDocument 500 /errors/500.php </IfModule> Options -Indexes Options +FollowSymlinks <Files .htaccess> deny from all </Files> thanks for you time

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  • Loading of external SWF results in a "Could not find resource bundle messaging" error

    - by Leeron
    I'm using flash.display.Loader to load this example SWF as a use-case for loading SWFs that uses flex charting components in an application I'm working on. This is the code I'm using to load the swf: Main.mxml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="onCreationComplete(event);"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.events.FlexEvent; import myLoaderClass; private function onCreationComplete( e:FlexEvent ):void { trace("Init!"); var l:myLoaderClass = new myLoaderClass(); this.addChild(l); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> myLoaderClass: package { import mx.core.UIComponent; import flash.display.DisplayObject; import flash.display.DisplayObjectContainer; import flash.display.Loader; import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.StageAlign; import flash.display.StageScaleMode; import flash.events.Event; import flash.events.ProgressEvent; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.text.TextField; import flash.text.TextFieldType; import flash.utils.Dictionary; public class JittRunner extends UIComponent { private var displayedObjects:Dictionary; public function JittRunner():void { displayedObjects = new Dictionary(); if (stage) init(); else addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); } private function init(e:Event = null):void { removeEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); var mLoader:Loader = new Loader(); var mRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest('ChartSampler.swf'); mLoader.load(mRequest); } } } The thing is, the minute the swf is loaded I'm getting the following runtime error: Error: Could not find resource bundle messaging at mx.resources::ResourceBundle$/getResourceBundle()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\resources\ResourceBundle.as:143] at mx.utils::Translator$cinit() at global$init() at mx.messaging.config::ServerConfig$cinit() at global$init() at _app_FlexInit$/init() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::docFrameHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3217] at mx.managers::SystemManager/docFrameListener()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3069] What am I doing wrong here?

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  • How can I embed a conditional comment for IE with innerHTML?

    - by Samuel Charpentier
    Ok so I want to conditionally add this line of code; <!--[if ! IE]> <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <![endif]--> Using: document.getElementById("logo") .innerHTML='...'; In a if()/else() statement and it don't write it! If i get rid of the selective comment ( <!--[if ! IE]><![endif]-->) and only put the SVG ( <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> ) it work! what should I do? I found a way around but i think in the Android browser the thing will pop up twice. here's what I've done ( and its Validated stuff!); <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <META CHARSET="UTF-8"> <title>SVG Test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ onload=function() { var ua = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); var isAndroid = ua.indexOf("android") > -1; //&& ua.indexOf("mobile"); if(isAndroid) { document.getElementById("logo").innerHTML='<img src="fin_palais.png"/>'; } } //]]> </script> </head> <body> <div id="logo"> <!--[if lt IE 9]> <img src="fin_palais.png"/> <![endif]--> <!--[if gte IE 9]><!--> <embed src="fin_palais.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <!--<![endif]--> </div> </body>

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

    - by Cheeso
    I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • Applying styles to a GridView matching certain criteria

    - by NickK
    Hi everyone. I'm fairly new to ASP.Net so it's probably just me being a bit stupid, but I just can't figure out why this isn't working. Basically, I have a GridView control (GridView1) on a page which is reading from a database. I already have a CSS style applied to the GridView and all I want to do is change the background image applied in the style depending on if a certain cell has data in it or not. The way I'm trying to handle this change is updating the CSS class applied to each row through C#. I have the code below doing this: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s.Length > 0) { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } In theory, the data from Cell[7] will either be null or be a string (in this case, likely a person's name). The problem is that when the page loads, every row in the GridView has the new style applied to it, whether it's empty or not. However, when I change it to use hard coded examples, it works fine. So for example, the below would work exactly how I want it to: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s == "Smith") //Matching a name in one of the rows { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } It seems as if the top piece of code is always returning the string with a value greater than 0, but when I check the database the fields are all null (except for my test record of "Smith"). I'm probably doing something very simple that's wrong here, but I can't see what. Like I said, I'm still very new to this. One thing I have tried is changing the argument in the if statement to things like: if (s != null), if (s != "") and if (s == string.empty) all with no luck. Any help is greatly appreciated and don't hesitate to tell me if I'm just being stupid here. :)

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  • SQL Server - Get Inserted Record Identity Value when Using a View's Instead Of Trigger

    - by CuppM
    For several tables that have identity fields, we are implementing a Row Level Security scheme using Views and Instead Of triggers on those views. Here is a simplified example structure: -- Table CREATE TABLE tblItem ( ItemId int identity(1,1) primary key, Name varchar(20) ) go -- View CREATE VIEW vwItem AS SELECT * FROM tblItem -- RLS Filtering Condition go -- Instead Of Insert Trigger CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go If I want to insert a record and get its identity, before implementing the RLS Instead Of trigger, I used: DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); With the trigger, SCOPE_IDENTITY() no longer works - it returns NULL. I've seen suggestions for using the OUTPUT clause to get the identity back, but I can't seem to get it to work the way I need it to. If I put the OUTPUT clause on the view insert, nothing is ever entered into it. -- Nothing is added to @ItemIds DECLARE @ItemIds TABLE (ItemId int); INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId INTO @ItemIds VALUES ('MyName'); If I put the OUTPUT clause in the trigger on the INSERT statement, the trigger returns the table (I can view it from SQL Management Studio). I can't seem to capture it in the calling code; either by using an OUTPUT clause on that call or using a SELECT * FROM (). -- Modified Instead Of Insert Trigger w/ Output CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go -- Calling Code INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); The only thing I can think of is to use the IDENT_CURRENT() function. Since that doesn't operate in the current scope, there's an issue of concurrent users inserting at the same time and messing it up. If the entire operation is wrapped in a transaction, would that prevent the concurrency issue? BEGIN TRANSACTION DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = IDENT_CURRENT('tblItem'); COMMIT TRANSACTION Does anyone have any suggestions on how to do this better? I know people out there who will read this and say "Triggers are EVIL, don't use them!" While I appreciate your convictions, please don't offer that "suggestion".

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

    - by serverman
    Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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