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  • jQuery Checkbox Error

    - by Zack Fernandes
    Hello, I am working on a jQuery-based todo list interface, and have hit a bit of a wall. The jQuery I am working with is a bit hacked together from various tutorials I have read, as I'm a bit of a beginner. $('#todo input:checkbox').click(function(){ var id = this.attr("value"); if(!$(this).is(":checked")) { alert("Starting."); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/todos/check/"+id, success: function(){ alert("It worked.") } }); } }) This is the HTML I am using, <div id="todo"> <input type="checkbox" checked="yes" value="1"> Hello, world. <br /> </div> Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. For reference, thereason I have alerts in the jQuery is for debugging. The reason I can tell the code isn't working is because I am not getting these alerts. Thanks.

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  • Arduino variable going blank after the first pass

    - by user541597
    I have an Arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y) { int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6") { if (hour > 17) { hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 18) { //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12") { if (hour > 11) { hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12) { hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24") { hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } The sketch starts for example at 1:00am. timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet is equal to the system time. My loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime) { timet = convert(timet) } Whenever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I get the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert, however every time after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop. I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor. This works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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  • Java Script in Rails 3.1 works only in certain parts. Any idea why?

    - by Sergio Nekora
    This might seem a bit weird, but since I am new in RoR and cannot find any similar questions I thought you might know. The situation is that JavaScript does not work throughout my whole site. For instance. For the sake of checking, I place a link with an alert function in the footer. It did not work at the beginning, it felt like the JS was disabled(but it wasn't). But eventually it worked. Now it works in most the pages but it does not work in one that there is also an 'autocomplete' field. Of course, this autocomplete field does not work either. That could lead you to think that there is something wrong with the autocomplete code. However this same code is working in the sidebar. Any ideas why? Could it have anything to do with the fact that one day my assets folder appeared empty? After installing the gmaps4rails gem I realized that all my Js and CSS files were gone from my assests folder. Ok, it might have happened long before and I just realized at that point. I don't really know. Here in the root you can see that the 'Hola sip' click at the button works. here it works However, here same link does not trigger the alert function. here it doesn't

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  • radio input replacement using jquery

    - by altvali
    It may seem a bit odd to ask this since there are several solutions out there but the fact is that all of them look pretty and none of what i've seem save the input value for form submission the right way. I'm looking for something that will replace all radio inputs with divs that get special classes when they are hovered or clicked, and an input type hidden for every group of radio inputs with the same name, hidden input that will be updated with the value corresponding to the div the user clicks on. Long sentence, i know. Here's what i've come up with: $('input:radio').each(function(){ if (this.style.display!='none') { var inputName = $(this).attr('name'); var inputValue = $(this).attr('value'); var isChecked = $(this).attr('checked'); if (!$('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').length) // if the hidden input wasn't already created $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div><input type="hidden" name="'+inputName+'" value="'+inputValue+'" />'); else{ $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div>'); if (isChecked) $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); } //this bind doesn't work $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).click(function(){ if($('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').val()!=inputValue){ $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); $('div[id*='+inputName+'].inputRadioButton').removeClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); } if (!$("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).hasClass('inputRadioButtonSelected')) $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).addClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); }); } }); Please tell me how to fix it. Thank you. Edit I've found the reason. It should normally work but some of my radio inputs generated by an e-commerce software had brackets in them (e.g. id[12] ) and jQuery was parsing that. The fix is adding var inputButton = document.getElementById(inputName+"X"+inputValue); before the bind and replacing $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue) with $(inputButton).

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  • How someone using my Facebook website app can post to their pages timeline

    - by user1334414
    I have a website where businesses create content through a PHP backend system. Each time they create a new piece of content, I want it to publish to their Facebook pages timeline (not the users timeline). I have created the authenticate code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'XXXXXXXXXX', status : true, cookie : true, xfbml : true, oauth : true, }); }; (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk'; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; d.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(js); }(document)); </script> <div class="fb-login-button" scope="manage_pages"> Login with Facebook </div> With manage_pages as a scope. I need to know how they can select which page they want the post to go to (if they have more than 1 page), and also how to automatically post to that pages wall when they submit the content (which is done via a PHP form). Thanks

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  • Symfony Form render with Self Referenced Entity

    - by benarth
    I have an Entity containing Self-Referenced mapping. class Category { /** * @var integer * * @ORM\Column(name="id", type="integer") * @ORM\Id * @ORM\GeneratedValue(strategy="AUTO") */ private $id; /** * @var string * * @ORM\Column(name="name", type="string", length=100) */ private $name; /** * @ORM\OneToMany(targetEntity="Category", mappedBy="parent") */ private $children; /** * @ORM\ManyToOne(targetEntity="Category", inversedBy="children") * @ORM\JoinColumn(name="parent_id", referencedColumnName="id") */ private $parent; } In my CategoryType I have this : public function buildForm(FormBuilderInterface $builder, array $options) { $plan = $this->plan; $builder->add('name'); $builder->add('parent', 'entity', array( 'class' => 'xxxBundle:Category', 'property' => 'name', 'empty_value' => 'Choose a parent category', 'required' => false, 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) use ($plan) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('u') ->where('u.plan = :plan') ->setParameter('plan', $plan) ->orderBy('u.id', 'ASC'); }, )); } Actually, when I render the form field Category this is something like Cat1 Cat2 Cat3 Subcat1 Subcat2 Cat4 I would like to know if it's possible and how to display something more like, a kind of a simple tree representation : Cat1 Cat2 Cat3 -- Subcat1 -- Subcat2 Cat4 Regards.

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  • [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

    - by Juliet
    You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

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  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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  • I would like to know how to put a "change image" layer like in facebook on a mouseover event

    - by netadictos
    Hello: I have a photo gallery I would like that every time a user does mouseover the image, there is a button on the top of this image that appears. The user can click on it. But every time that the user mouse out of the photo it must disappear. It works like the "change photo" in Facebook, with the photo of your profile. The problem I am having is that when I try to get over the button that appears (in my code is a link), it disappear because javascript understands that the mouse is just out of the image, even if this button/link is over the image. The image that I use is positioned absolutely over the image. This is my code, where you can see that I create a dom element that I append on the link of the image and then when there is a mouseout, I remove it. $('a.ftelement').mouseover(function() { var fav = $('<a></a>'); fav.attr("class","imgfavorito"); fav.attr("id","fav"+$J(this).attr("id")).html("<img src=\"/im/favorito.gif\"/>"); fav.appendTo(this); }); $('a.ftelement').mouseout(function() { $("a.imgfavorito").remove() }); The result is this graphically (http://www.freeimagehosting.net/uploads/41fbac8994.gif):

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  • JQuery datepicker icon trigger broken after inserting data to database

    - by crisgine callano
    at first i got to load my icon for the JQuery datepicker but after i insert the value to my database the icon image is broken. im using Codeigniter framework. here's my html code: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html lang="en-US"> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>CRUD</title> <?php echo link_tag(base_url() . 'css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.23.custom.css'); ?> </head> <body> <div> <?php echo form_label('BDay:', 'bday'); $data = array( 'name' => 'bday', 'id' => 'datepicker' ); echo form_input($data); ?> </div> </body> </html> and here's my jscript: <script> $(function() { $( "#datepicker" ).datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showOn: "button", buttonImage: "<?php echo base_url() . '/images/icons/calendar_24.png' ?>", buttonImageOnly: true, onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ $("input[name='bday']").val(dateText); } }); }); am i missing something? thanks!

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  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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  • Asp.net Hidden field not having value in code behind, but *is* retaining value after postbacks

    - by KallDrexx
    In my ASCX, I have an asp.net hidden field defined as <asp:HiddenField ID="hdnNewAsset" runat="server" />. In the Code Behind I have the following code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { _service = new ArticleDataService(PortalId); if (!IsPostBack) { string rawId = Request[ArticleQueryParams.ArticleId]; DisplayArticleDetails(rawId); } if (hdnNewAsset.Value.Trim() != string.Empty) ProcessNewAsset(); } Now, in my frontend, I have a javascript function to react to an event and set the hidden field and trigger a postback: function assetSelected(assetGuid) { $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]').val(assetGuid); __doPostBack() } What's happening is that my hidden field is being set in the markup (chrome shows [ <input type=?"hidden" name=?"dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset" id=?"dnn_ctr466_Main_ctl00_hdnNewAsset" value=?"98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4">? ] for $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]')). However, when the postback occurs, hdnNewAsset.Value is an empty string. What's even more puzzling is that at the beginning of Page_Load Request.Params["dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset"] shows 98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4, and after the postback my hidden field has the same value (so the hidden field is persisting across postbacks), yet I cannot access this value via hdnNewAsset.Value. Can anyone see what I"m doing wrong?

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  • Why can't I extract a C++ type from a Python type using boost::python::extractor?

    - by Robin
    I've wrapped a C++ class using Py++ and everything is working great in Python. I can instantiate the c++ class, call methods, etc. I'm now trying to embed some Python into a C++ application. This is also working fine for the most-part. I can call functions on a Python module, get return values, etc. The python code I'm calling returns one of the classes that I wrapped: import _myextension as myext def run_script(arg): my_cpp_class = myext.MyClass() return my_cpp_class I'm calling this function from C++ like this: // ... excluding error checking, ref counting, etc. for brevity ... PyObject *pModule, *pFunc, *pArgs, *pReturnValue; Py_Initialize(); pModule = PyImport_Import(PyString_FromString("cpp_interface")); pFunc = PyObject_GetAttrString(pModule, "run_script"); pArgs = PyTuple_New(1); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, PyString_FromString("an arg")); pReturnValue = PyObject_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); bp::extract< MyClass& > extractor(pReturnValue); // PROBLEM IS HERE if (extractor.check()) { // This check is always false MyClass& cls = extractor(); } The problem is the extractor never actually extracts/converts the PyObject* to MyClass (i.e. extractor.check() is always false). According to the docs this is the correct way to extract a wrapped C++ class. I've tried returning basic data types (ints/floats/dicts) from the Python function and all of them are extracted properly. Is there something I'm missing? Is there another way to get the data and cast to MyClass?

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  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Fixed div once page is scrolled is flickering

    - by jasondavis
    I am trying to have an advertisement block/div that will be hald way down the page, once you scroll do the page to this point it will stick to the top. Here is a demo of what I am trying to do and the code I am using to do it with... http://jsfiddle.net/jasondavis/6vpA7/3/embedded/result/ In the demo it works perfectly how I am wanting it to be, however when I implement it on my live site, http://goo.gl/zuaZx it works but when you scroll down the div flickers in and out of view on each scroll or down key press. On my site to see the problem live it is the blokc on the right sidebar that says "Recommended Books" Here is the code I am using... $(document).ready( function() { $(window).scroll( function() { if ($(window).scrollTop() > $('#social-container').offset().top) $('#social').addClass('floating'); else $('#social').removeClass('floating'); } ); } );? css #social.floating { position: fixed; top: 0; }? My demo jsfiddle where it works correctly http://jsfiddle.net/jasondavis/6vpA7/3/ The only thing different on my live site is the div/id name is different. As you can see it is somewhat working on my live site except the flickering in and out of view as you scroll down the page. Anyone have any ideas why this would happen on my live site and not on my jsfiddle demo?

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  • ActionScript : Applying frame to a image / background?

    - by Jay
    I am editing a custom calendar application in flash. The purpose of this app is to let you select your own images, and create a calendar out of it. You can basically, drag and drop images of your choice and they apply frame/borders, or drag and drop embellishments. Here is the piece of code that draws a border/frame on the embellishment/image of your choice. tempListener.onLoadInit = function(target_mc:MovieClip) { var mcName = target_mc._name.substring(0, target_mc._name.indexOf("@", 0)); if(mcName == "frame_Image") { target_mc.onPress = function() { if(_root.selectedImage != null) { var index = this._name.substring(this._name.indexOf("@",0)+1, this._name.length); var objPath = nodesFrames.childNodes[index-1].attributes.image; if(_root.selectedImage._name.split("@")[0] == "image") { var mask = _root.selectedImage[_root.selectedImage._parent._name + "_" + _root.selectedImage._name + "_maskMc"]; frameImageWidth = mask._width; frameImageHeight = mask._height; frameImageXScale = -1; frameImageYScale = -1; } else { frameImageXScale = _root.selectedImage._xscale; frameImageYScale = _root.selectedImage._yscale; _root.selectedImage._xscale = 100; _root.selectedImage._yscale = 100; frameImageWidth = _root.selectedImage._width; frameImageHeight = _root.selectedImage._height; } if(_root.selectedImage["frame"]) {} else { _root.selectedImage.createEmptyMovieClip("frame", _root.selectedImage.getNextHighestDepth()); } var image_mcl1:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); image_mcl1.addListener(_root.mclFrameListener); image_mcl1.loadClip("Images/" + objPath, _root.selectedImage["frame"]); } } } I need to somehow apply the chosen frame image, to the entire background - not just to the embellishment or image. How do I go about this? Thanks in advance for your inputs. Please let me know if the question doesn't make sense, I will attach some images that can help you with the context.

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  • mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

    - by axeoth
    See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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  • C# using the "this" keyword in this situation?

    - by Alex
    Hi, I've completed a OOP course assignment where I design and code a Complex Number class. For extra credit, I can do the following: Add two complex numbers. The function will take one complex number object as a parameter and return a complex number object. When adding two complex numbers, the real part of the calling object is added to the real part of the complex number object passed as a parameter, and the imaginary part of the calling object is added to the imaginary part of the complex number object passed as a parameter. Subtract two complex numbers. The function will take one complex number object as a parameter and return a complex number object. When subtracting two complex numbers, the real part of the complex number object passed as a parameter is subtracted from the real part of the calling object, and the imaginary part of the complex number object passed as a parameter is subtracted from the imaginary part of the calling object. I have coded this up, and I used the this keyword to denote the current instance of the class, the code for my add method is below, and my subtract method looks similar: public ComplexNumber Add(ComplexNumber c) { double realPartAdder = c.GetRealPart(); double complexPartAdder = c.GetComplexPart(); double realPartCaller = this.GetRealPart(); double complexPartCaller = this.GetComplexPart(); double finalRealPart = realPartCaller + realPartAdder; double finalComplexPart = complexPartCaller + complexPartAdder; ComplexNumber summedComplex = new ComplexNumber(finalRealPart, finalComplexPart); return summedComplex; } My question is: Did I do this correctly and with good style? (using the this keyword)?

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • javascript, php, cookies

    - by kennedy
    When i declare mac = 123, my internet explorer and firefox will keep refresh non-stop. And if i declare mac = getMacAddress it returns a value 1... I'm able to do a document.write(getMacAddress()) and it would able to display the mac address nicely. 1) Why my explorer will keep refreshing non-stop when i code it manually with "123" 2) why is the document.write able to display out, and when i store it to the cookie, somehow it didnt mange to capture into the cookie and it return a value of "1". Anyone help? create_users.php <script language="JavaScript"> function getMacAddress(){ document.macaddressapplet.setSep( "-" ); return (document.macaddressapplet.getMacAddress()); } function setCookie(c_name,value) { document.cookie = c_name + "=" +escape(value); } //error checking //var mac = getMacAddress(); var mac = "123"; setCookie('cookie_name',mac); window.location = "checkAvailability.php"; </script> checkAvailability.php $javascript_cookie_value = isset($_COOKIE["cookie_name"]) ? $_COOKIE["cookie_name"] : 1; mysql_query("INSERT INTO test (mac) VALUES ('$javascript_cookie_value')");

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  • How to get associated URLRequest from Event.COMPLETE fired by URLLoader

    - by matt lohkamp
    So let's say we want to load some XML - var xmlURL:String = 'content.xml'; var xmlURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest(xmlURL); var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(xmlURLRequest); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace('loaded',xmlURL); trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); If we need to know the source URL for that particular XML doc, we've got that variable to tell us, right? Now let's imagine that the xmlURL variable isn't around to help us - maybe we want to load 3 XML docs, named in sequence, and we want to use throwaway variables inside of a for-loop: for(var i:uint = 3; i > 0; i--){ var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(new URLRequest('content'+i+'.xml')); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace(e.target.src); // I wish this worked... trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); } Suddenly it's not so easy, right? I hate that you can't just say e.target.src or whatever - is there a good way to associate URLLoaders with the URL they loaded data from? Am I missing something? It feels unintuitive to me.

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  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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  • How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

    - by robert
    Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

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  • javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

    - by Bill Dawes
    Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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