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  • Bad links point to old domain - should I disavow on new domain?

    - by user32573
    I am working with a site which we'll call www.newdomain.com, which was hit by Penguin this month despite no unusual practices. I found lots of really spammy links to their old site, www.olddomain.com, which 301s to the new domain. So I've gone through the process of identifying which links are really bad, made contact to ask for removal, and am at the stage of disavowing links. But wait! None of the bad links point to newdomain.com, and I worry that a disavow request via this domain in Webmaster Tools will damage something. Do the old band links affect the new site? If so, where do I disavow those old bad links? On Webmaster Tools for the new domain?

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  • Challenge a .name registration?

    - by Shtééf
    The Wikipedia page on .name says the following: Registration restrictions: No prior restriction on registration, but registrations can be challenged if not by or on behalf of individual with name similar to that of domain, or fictional character in which registrant has rights But there's no further info on how this actually works. Can a .name domain registration be challenged, and if so, how?

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  • Removing "www." from domain name and SEO

    - by TecMan
    We are doing a big redesign work on our website, and at least 50% of the website folders will be moved to new places with different names (i.e. many URL will be changed). Sure, Google will need some time to index new pages and we expect our SERP positions will be not so good as they are now for some time. We also have an old idea to remove www from our domain name. It seems, it's the right time to do these two works together with publishing the website with updated contents. Or is it better from SEO perspective first publish the new contents, and only after some time, when our SERP positions will return to prior results, tell Google that the domain name without www is our preferred domain name?

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  • Two different domain for specific languages pointing to one site

    - by user25599
    I developing a client's blog and he needs it to be bilingual (english and spanish). Now what he wants is that users can get to the content based on the domain e.g. Jhon enters www.domain.com and he gets the english version and Juan enters www.elsenordominio.com to get the spanish version. All content will be validated by php so the users and search engines only reads the domain related language. What do i need to use header re-direct or 301? is it bad for seo? will google will google penalize me? I hope you guys can help me and forgive me if my english is not good.

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  • .Museum Domain Name Registrar

    - by mmundiff
    Anyone know of a reputable domain name company which deals in .museum domain names? Previously we had used DomainBank without much issue. DomainBank was bought by Dotster and am having nothing but trouble since the switch. Currently the website has been down for two days and it is a MAJOR issue. I know .museum is a seldom used domain name but I really need to switch to a reputable company. GoDaddy doesn't work with them unfortunately. Anyone know of a good company that does?

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  • Content from a domain I used to own is appearing in my twitter feed

    - by user19424
    I had an old domain with a WordPress setup hosted by GoDaddy. I changed the business name and moved everything over to a new site, new domain, and new host a couple of years ago. I let the old domain expire. It was recently purchased by someone for cheap, article spun content. Now, anytime they post a new article, it's automatically posted to my Twitter account. I contacted them to remove this, but given the quality of their spun articles, I doubt they will remove it. Is there any recourse I have through Twitter or the host to get this removed?

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  • Loading cross domain XML with Javascript using a hybrid iframe-proxy/xsl/jsonp concept?

    - by Josef
    On our site www.foo.com we want to download and use http://feeds.foo.com/feed.xml with Javascript. We'll obviously use Access-Control but for browsers that don't support it we are considering the following as a fallback: On www.foo.com, we set document.domain, provide a callback function and load the feed into a (hidden) iframe: document.domain = 'foo.com'; function receive_data(data) { // process data }; var proxy = document.createElement('iframe'); proxy.src = 'http://feeds.foo.com/feed.xml'; document.body.appendChild(proxy); On feeds.foo.com, add an XSL to feed.xml and use it to transform the feed into an html document that also sets document.domain and calls the callback function in its parent with the feed data as json: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:template match="ROOT"> <html><body> <script type="text/javascript"> document.domain = 'foo.com'; parent.receive_data([<xsl:apply-templates/>]); </script> </body></html> </xsl:template> <!-- templates that transform data into json objects go here --> </xsl:stylesheet> Is there a better way to load XML from feeds.foo.com and what are the ramifications of this iframe-proxy/xslt/jsonp trick? (..and in what cases will it fail?) Remarks This does not work in Safari & Chrome but since both support Access-Control it's fine. We want little or no change to feeds.foo.com We are aware of (but not interested in) server-side proxy solutions update: wrote about it

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  • Firefox session cookies

    - by meandmycode
    Generally speaking, when given a cookie that has no expiration period, modern browsers will consider this cookie to be a 'session cookie', they will remove the cookie at the end of the browsing session (generally when the browser instance closes). IE, Opera, Safari and Chrome all support this behavior. However firefox (3.0.9 latest proper release) appears not to follow this rule, from what I can tell it doesn't expire the cookies when the browser is closed, or when the user logs off or restarts the OS.. So, why does firefox refer to these as session cookies, when they last aparently indefinitely? Does anyone know how Firefox handles session cookie expiration?

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  • Cross domain login - what to store in the database?

    - by Jenkz
    I'm working on a system which will allow me to login to the same system via various domains. (www.example.com, www.mydomain.com, sub.domain.com etc) The following threads form the basis of my research so far: Single Sign On across multiple domains Cross web domain login with .net membership What I want to happen is that If I am logged in on the master domain and I visit a page on a client domain to be automatically logged in on the client. Obviously If I am not logged in on the master, I will need to enter my username and password. Walkthrough: 1. User logs in on master site 2. User navigates to client site 3. Client site re-directs to master site to see if User is logged in. 4. If User is logged in on master, record a RFC 4122 token ID and send this back to the client site. 5. Client site then looks up the token ID in the central database and logs this user in. This might eventually end up running on more than once instance of PHP and Apache, so I can't just store: token_id, php_session_id, created Is there any problem with me storing and using this: token_id, username, hashed_password, created Which is deleted on use, or automatically after x seconds.

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • Why can't this user connect to domain share?

    - by Saariko
    Part of my reorganizing credentials in the domain, I have created several users that will be used solely for services (backup, LDAP, etc) The idea is that systems that need specific usage will use a user/service user, that will give them what they need. However, I am having trouble setting the correct needed data. For this example, I have a NAS (Ready NAS 1100 by Netgear), that runs it's own backup jobs. The job reads from a domain share: \domain\qa and copies all data to another location. When using the domain\administrator everything works. When I input the domain\srv.backup user I get an error connecting to the folder. The srv.backup is part of the 'Domain Admins' group, which is a member of 'Administrators' I thought there might be propagation issues, but even when the srv.backup user was a direct member of 'Administrators' the error still occurred. I have 2 DC's (W2K8R2 replicas) - I thought that could also cause a problem, AFAIKT it's not the issue. Sharing permissions are open to everyone The Security on the folder is as follow This is the test window from the NAS dashboard I doubled check that the 'srv.domain' is part of the 'Domain Admins' group As well as tried with a simple 1-9 password. What else do I need to check? thanks.

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  • Xen domain migration locking problem

    - by brodie
    I am trying to live migrate a VM (domain) between two Xen servers. I have xen locking (xend-domain-lock = yes) configured with a ocfs2 shared storage between them. This locking is working fine. If I try to start up the VM on the secondary server it refuses to start (which is correct). The problem I am having is when trying to do live migration, it seems like it is trying to remove the lock twice. The first lock it removes is for "domain test", the second is for "migrating-test" which does not exist. Should their be a lock for this "migrating-test" VM? These are the relevant options in the xen config file: (xend-relocation-server yes) (xend-relocation-port 8002) (xend-relocation-address '') (xend-relocation-hosts-allow '') (xend-domain-lock yes) (xend-domain-lock-path /var/lib/xen/lock) This is the section of the log: [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:4054) Releasing lock for domain test [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) SUSPEND shinfo 000c6ceb [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) delta 21ms, dom0 95%, target 0%, sent 57Mb/s, dirtied 173Mb/s 111 pages 4: sent 111, skipped 0, delta 6ms, dom0 100%, target 0%, sent 606Mb/s, dirtied 606Mb/s 111 pages [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) Total pages sent= 131295 (0.99x) [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) (of which 0 were fixups) [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) All memory is saved [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) Save exit rc=0 [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:123) Domain 22 suspended. [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2757) XendDomainInfo.destroy: domid=22 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2227) Destroying device model [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] INFO (image:567) migrating-test device model terminated [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2234) Releasing devices [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vif/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vif, device = vif/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vkbd/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vkbd, device = vkbd/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing console/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = console, device = console/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vbd/51712 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vbd, device = vbd/51712 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vfb/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vfb, device = vfb/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:4054) Releasing lock for domain migrating-test [2010-06-10 10:45:59 14488] ERROR (XendDomainInfo:4070) Failed to remove unmanaged directory /var/lib/xen/lock/b01515ae-9173-03cb-0cb7-06f3dfbede8b.

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  • Sending mail through local MTA while domain MX records point to Google Apps

    - by Assaf
    My domain's email is managed by Google Apps, so that domain users get Gmail and Calendar, etc. But I also want to be able to send applicative notifications to users outside the domain via email (e.g. "some commented on your post", and so on). However, if I try to send email through code I get blocked by Gmail after a few emails. I send marketing email through MailChimp, to minimize the risk of appearing as spam to my users (one-click unsubscribe, etc.). But I can't send applicative message in this way. I want to install a local MTA (my server runs Ubuntu), but I'm not sure what anti-spam measures I need to implement so that receiving MTAs don't think it's a spam server. What's stopping anyone from setting up a mail server and sending emails using my domain name? AFAIK it's the DNS records that show the MTA's address actually belongs to the domain. But my understanding of this is rather superficial, so someone please correct me if I'm wrong. But what sort of DNS configuration do I need to put in place so that I don't get blacklisted (assuming I don't actually spam anyone)? The MX records already point to Google, and I'd like to keep it this way. So do I just need to define an A record for my internal mail server? Should it show email as coming from a sub-domain, so as not to conflict with the bare domain being managed by google? Edit: Does the following SPF record make sense if I want email from my domain name to be sent by either google's servers or any server with a dns name ending with mydomain.com? "v=spf1 ptr mx:google.com mx:googlemail.com ~all" How should I set up reverse DNS for my server? If I have an A record that points mailsender.mydomain.com to my MTA's ip address, does it mean that reverse lookup will only allow emails sent from [email protected]?

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  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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  • proxy pass domain FROM default apache port 80 TO nginx on another port

    - by user10580
    Im still learning server things so hope the title is descriptive enough. Basically i have sub.domain.com that i want to run on nginx at port 8090. I want to leave apache alone and have it catch all default traffic at port 80. so i am trying something with a virtual name host to proxy pass to sub.domain.com:8090, nothing working yet and go no idea what the right syntax could be. any ideas? most of what i found was to pass TO apache FROM nginx, but i want to the do the opposite. LoadModule proxy_module modules/mod_proxy.so LoadModule proxy_http_module modules/mod_proxy_http.so <VirtualHost sub.domain.com:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyRequests Off ServerName sub.domain.com DocumentRoot /home/app/public ServerAlias sub.domain.com proxyPass / http://appname:8090/ (also tried localhost and sub.domain.com) ProxyPassReverse / http://appname:8090/ </VirtualHost> when i do this i get [warn] module proxy_module is already loaded, skippin [warn] module proxy_http_module is already loaded, skipping [error] (EAI 2)Name or service not known: Could not resolve host name sub.domain.com -- ignoring! and yes, the app is working (i have it running on port 80 with another subdomain) and it works at sub.domain.com:8090

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  • Spring Security RememberMe Services with Session Cookie

    - by Jarrod
    I am using Spring Security's RememberMe Services to keep a user authenticated. I would like to find a simple way to have the RememberMe cookie set as a session cookie rather than with a fixed expiration time. For my application, the cookie should persist until the user closes the browser. Any suggestions on how to best implement this? Any concerns on this being a potential security problem? The primary reason for doing so is that with a cookie-based token, any of the servers behind our load balancer can service a protected request without relying on the user's Authentication to be stored in an HttpSession. In fact, I have explicitly told Spring Security to never create sessions using the namespace. Further, we are using Amazon's Elastic Load Balancing, and so sticky sessions are not supported. NB: Although I am aware that as of Apr. 08, Amazon now supports sticky sessions, I still do not want to use them for a handful of other reasons. Namely that the untimely demise of one server would still cause the loss of sessions for all users associated with it. http://aws.amazon.com/about-aws/whats-new/2010/04/08/support-for-session-stickiness-in-elastic-load-balancing/

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  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • How to hide div serverside by reading cookie

    - by user338109
    I am using following a tutorial from here: http://www.shopdev.co.uk/blog/cookies-with-jquery-designing-collapsible-layouts/ This is the script I use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(function() { // SETUP: // When the info banner is clicked: $('#setup').click(function() { $('#intro').css("display","none"); $.cookie('intro', 'collapsed'); }); // COOKIES // Info banner state var intro = $.cookie('intro'); // READ THE COOKIES if (intro == 'collapsed') { $('#intro').css("display","none"); }; }); </script> The script hides the following div as the cookie is read: <div class="feedback attention" id="intro"> Text goes here <a id="setup" href="#">Ok I get it, please hide this</a> </div> Everything work great but when the page loads the div is shown for a split second. I guess the solution is to present two different pieces of markup serverside according to the cookie info. I have no idea how to go about this.

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  • Storing an encrypted cookie with Rails

    - by J. Pablo Fernández
    I need to store a small piece of data (less than 10 characters) in a cookie in Rails and I need it to be secure. I don't want anybody being able to read that piece of data or injecting their own piece of data (as that would open up the app to many kinds of attacks). I think encrypting the contents of the cookie is the way to go (should I also sign it?). What is the best way to do it? Right now I'm doing this, which looks secure, but many things looked secure to people that knew much more than I about security and then it was discovered it wasn't really secure. I'm saving the secret in this way: encryptor = ActiveSupport::MessageEncryptor.new(Example::Application.config.secret_token) cookies[:secret] = { :value => encryptor.encrypt(secret), :domain => "example.com", :secure => !(Rails.env.test? || Rails.env.development?) } and then I'm reading it like this: encryptor = ActiveSupport::MessageEncryptor.new(Example::Application.config.secret_token) secret = encryptor.decrypt(cookies[:secret]) Is that secure? Any better ways of doing it? Update: I know about Rails' session and how it is secure, both by signing the cookie and by optionally storing the contents of the session server side and I do use the session for what it is for. But my question here is about storing a cookie, a piece of information I do not want in the session but I still need it to be secure.

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  • cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

    - by CJ
    I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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  • Perl Cookie not working

    - by grosseskino
    Hi! I already spent all day looking for an answer for this: I am using Perl with LWP::UserAgent and HTTP::Cookies. My problem is that I can't get past an cookie-base age-check. In Perl I use this code: my $browser = LWP::UserAgent->new; my $resp = $browser->get( $url, 'User-Agent' => 'MySpider/1.0' ); #Cookie Setup my $cookies = HTTP::Cookies->new(); $cookies->set_cookie(1,'age_check', '1','/','.example.com/', 80, ,0,3354512128, 0); $browser->cookie_jar($cookies); The Site is setting the Cookie with JavaScript function saveSplash(domain) { var expDate = new Date(); expDate.setTime(expDate.getTime()+(1*24*3600*1000)); setCookie("age_check", 1, expDate, '/', domain); setCookie("screen_width", getScreenWidth(), expDate, '/', domain); } This is the Cookie saved by my browser: age_check 1 example.com/ 1088 3354512128 30140182 2646218624 30139981 Any idea what I am doing wrong? Thanks in advance guys!

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  • SuSE always logs a user in TVM session

    - by rohan
    Hello all, I recently installed Suse Linux enterprise Desktop 11 on my box. I created an user and logged in first time into a GNOME session without any problems. Last time I logged in I selected the session as TWM and that got me into the T windows manager just fine. Now when I log out and try to log back into a GNOME session, it will still log me into the TVM session. I have tried restarting the box but that has not helped. However, when I remote log in to the machine it will let me got on the GNOME session just fine. I'm guessing this is probably a really simple fix, however I am a Linux newbie and doing a google search isn't yielding me what I'm looking for. Thanks in advance for your help, Rohan

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  • SuSE always logs a user in TVM session

    - by rohan
    Hello all, Our sa recently installed Suse Linux enterprise Desktop 11 on my work box and I logged in first time into a GNOME session without any problems. Last time I logged in I selected the session as TWM and that got me into the T windows manager just fine. Now when I log out and try to log back into a GNOME session, it will still log me into the TVM session. I have tried restarting the box but that has not helped. Though when I remote log in to the machine it will let me get on the GNOME session just fine. I'm guessing this is probably a really simple fix, however I am a Linux newbie and doing a google search isn't yielding me what I'm looking for. My sa cant figure what is wrong either Thanks in advance for your help, Rohan

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