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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Is it a good idea to use an integer column for storing US ZIP codes in a database?

    - by Yadyn
    From first glance, it would appear I have two basic choices for storing ZIP codes in a database table: Text (probably most common), i.e. char(5) or varchar(9) to support +4 extension Numeric, i.e. 32-bit integer Both would satisfy the requirements of the data, if we assume that there are no international concerns. In the past we've generally just gone the text route, but I was wondering if anyone does the opposite? Just from brief comparison it looks like the integer method has two clear advantages: It is, by means of its nature, automatically limited to numerics only (whereas without validation the text style could store letters and such which are not, to my knowledge, ever valid in a ZIP code). This doesn't mean we could/would/should forgo validating user input as normal, though! It takes less space, being 4 bytes (which should be plenty even for 9-digit ZIP codes) instead of 5 or 9 bytes. Also, it seems like it wouldn't hurt display output much. It is trivial to slap a ToString() on a numeric value, use simple string manipulation to insert a hyphen or space or whatever for the +4 extension, and use string formatting to restore leading zeroes. Is there anything that would discourage using int as a datatype for US-only ZIP codes?

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  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

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  • WebView and HTML5 <video>

    - by brian moore
    I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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  • Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

    - by evthim
    I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

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  • Delete only reference to child object

    - by Al
    I'm running in to a bit of a problem where any attempt to delete just the reference to a child also deletes the child record. My schema looks like this Person Organisation OrganisationContacts : Person OrgId PersonId Role When removing an Organisation i want to only delete the record in OrgnaisationContacts, but not touch the Person record. My Mapping looks like this Code: public OrganisationMap() { Table("Organsations"); .... HasMany<OrganisationContact>(x => x.Contacts) .Table("OrganisationContacts ") .KeyColumn("OrgId") .Not.Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } public class OrganisationContactMap : SubclassMap<OrganisationContact> { public OrganisationContactMap() { Table("OrganisationContacts"); Map(x => x.Role, "PersonRole"); Map(x => x.IsPrimary); } } At the moment just removing a contact from the IList either doesn't reflect in the database at all, or it issues two delete statements DELETE FROM OrganisationContact & DELETE FROM Person, or tries to set PersonId to null in the OrganisationContacts table. All of which are not desirable. Any help would be great appreciated.

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  • Help with why my app crashed?

    - by Moshe
    I'm writing an iPad app that is a "kiosk" app. The iPad should be hanging on the wall and the app should just run. I did a test, starting the app last night (Friday, December 31) and letting it run. This morning, when I woke up, it was not running. I just checked the iPad's console and I can't figure out why it crashed. The iPad was plugged in and so the battery is not the issued. I did disable the idleTimer in my application delegate. The app was seen running as late as midnight last night. I would like to note that my app acts as a Bluetooth server through Game Kit and large portion of the console output is occupied by bluetooth status messages. When I opened the iPad, the app was paused and there was a system alert which prompted me to check an "Expiring Provisioning Profile". I tapped "dismiss" and the alert went away. The app crashed about a second after I dismissed the system alert. Any ideas how I can diagnose this problem? Why would my app crash? Here is my iPad's Console log, as copied from Xcode's organizer. Edit: A bit of Googling lead me to this site which says that alert views cause the app to lose focus. Could that be involved? What can I do to fix the problem? EDIT2: My Crash log describes the situation as: Application Specific Information: appname failed to resume in time Elapsed total CPU time (seconds): 10.010 (user 8.070, system 1.940), 100% CPU Elapsed application CPU time (seconds): 9.470, 95% CPU

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  • What is the easiest way to get the property value from a passed lambda expression in an extension me

    - by Andrew Siemer
    I am writing a dirty little extension method for HtmlHelper so that I can say something like HtmlHelper.WysiwygFor(lambda) and display the CKEditor. I have this working currently but it seems a bit more cumbersome than I would prefer. I am hoping that there is a more straight forward way of doing this. Here is what I have so far. public static MvcHtmlString WysiwygFor<TModel, TProperty>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> helper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression) { return MvcHtmlString.Create(string.Concat("<textarea class=\"ckeditor\" cols=\"80\" id=\"", expression.MemberName(), "\" name=\"editor1\" rows=\"10\">", GetValue(helper, expression), "</textarea>")); } private static string GetValue<TModel, TProperty>(HtmlHelper<TModel> helper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression) { MemberExpression body = (MemberExpression)expression.Body; string propertyName = body.Member.Name; TModel model = helper.ViewData.Model; string value = typeof(TModel).GetProperty(propertyName).GetValue(model, null).ToString(); return value; } private static string MemberName<T, V>(this Expression<Func<T, V>> expression) { var memberExpression = expression.Body as MemberExpression; if (memberExpression == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Expression must be a member expression"); return memberExpression.Member.Name; } Thanks!

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  • What's the most DRY-appropriate way to execute an SQL command?

    - by Sean U
    I'm looking to figure out the best way to execute a database query using the least amount of boilerplate code. The method suggested in the SqlCommand documentation: private static void ReadOrderData(string connectionString) { string queryString = "SELECT OrderID, CustomerID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); try { while (reader.Read()) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}", reader[0], reader[1])); } } finally { reader.Close(); } } } mostly consists of code that would have to be repeated in every method that interacts with the database. I'm already in the habit of factoring out the establishment of a connection, which would yield code more like the following. (I'm also modifying it so that it returns data, in order to make the example a bit less trivial.) private SQLConnection CreateConnection() { var connection = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); connection.Open(); return connection; } private List<int> ReadOrderData() { using(var connection = CreateConnection()) using(var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "SELECT OrderID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using(var reader = command.ExecuteReader()) { var results = new List<int>(); while(reader.Read()) results.Add(reader.GetInt32(0)); return results; } } } That's an improvement, but there's still enough boilerplate to nag at me. Can this be reduced further? In particular, I'd like to do something about the first two lines of the procedure. I don't feel like the method should be in charge of creating the SqlCommand. It's a tiny piece of repetition as it is in the example, but it seems to grow if transactions are being managed manually or timeouts are being altered or anything like that.

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  • PHP5 getrusage() returning incorrect information?

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to determine CPU usage of my PHP scripts. I just found this article which details how to find system and user CPU usage time (Section 4). However, when I tried out the examples, I received completely different results. The first example: sleep(3); $data = getrusage(); echo "User time: ". ($data['ru_utime.tv_sec'] + $data['ru_utime.tv_usec'] / 1000000); echo "System time: ". ($data['ru_stime.tv_sec'] + $data['ru_stime.tv_usec'] / 1000000); Results in: User time: 29.53 System time: 2.71 Example 2: for($i=0;$i<10000000;$i++) { } // Same echo statements Results: User time: 16.69 System time: 2.1 Example 3: $start = microtime(true); while(microtime(true) - $start < 3) { } // Same echo statements Results: User time: 34.94 System time: 3.14 Obviously, none of the information is correct except maybe the system time in the third example. So what am I doing wrong? I'd really like to be able to use this information, but it needs to be reliable. I'm using Ubuntu Server 8.04 LTS (32-bit) and this is the output of php -v: PHP 5.2.4-2ubuntu5.10 with Suhosin-Patch 0.9.6.2 (cli) (built: Jan 6 2010 22:01:14) Copyright (c) 1997-2007 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2007 Zend Technologies

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  • Do you like languages that let you put the "then" before the "if"?

    - by Matt Hamilton
    I was reading through some C# code of mine today and found this line: if (ProgenyList.ItemContainerGenerator.Status != System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) return; Notice that you can tell without scrolling that it's an "if" statement that works with ItemContainerGenerator.Status, but you can't easily tell that if the "if" clause evaluates to "false" the method will return at that point. Realistically I should have moved the "return" statement to a line by itself, but it got me thinking about languages that allow the "then" part of the statement first. If C# permitted it, the line could look like this: return if (ProgenyList.ItemContainerGenerator.Status != System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated); This might be a bit "argumentative", but I'm wondering what people think about this kind of construct. It might serve to make lines like the one above more readable, but it also might be disastrous. Imagine this code: return 3 if (x > y); Logically we can only return if x y, because there's no "else", but part of me looks at that and thinks, "are we still returning if x <= y? If so, what are we returning?" What do you think of the "then before the if" construct? Does it exist in your language of choice? Do you use it often? Would C# benefit from it?

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  • Document management, SCM ?

    - by tsunade
    Hello, This might not be a hard core programming question, but it's related to some of the tools used by programmers I suspect. So we're a bunch of people each with a bunch of documents and a bunch of different computers on a bunch of operating systems (well, only 2, linux and windows). The best way these documents can be stored/managed is if they were available offline (the laptop might not always be online) but also synchronized between all the machines. Having a server with extra reliable storage be a "base repository" seems like a good idea to me. Using a SCM comes to my mind and I've tried Subversion, and it seems to be a good thing that it uses a centralized repository - but: When checking out the total size of the checkout is roughly double the original size. Big files or big repositories seem to slow it down. Also I've tried rsync, which might work - but it's a bit rough when it comes to the potential conflict. Finally I've tried Unison (which is a wrapping of rsync, I think) and while it works it becomes horribly slow for the big directories we have here since it has to scan everything. So the question is - is there a SCM tool out there that is actually practial to use for a big bunch of both small and big files? If thats a NO - does anyone know other tools that do this job? Thanks for reading :)

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  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

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  • How to access child div elements under a given condition with javascript?

    - by hlovdal
    My main question is to calculate the last alert message, but any other information is also welcome. I am trying to learn javascript (to use with greasemonkey later), but I am struggling a bit to grasp the DOM and how to process it. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function my_test() { var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("div"); // prints "found [object HTMLCollection] with length 8" alert("found " + elements + " with length " + elements.length); // prints "0:[object HTMLDivElement]" alert("0:" + elements[0]); // how to calculate the following? alert("for intereting one is AAAA and three is CCCC"); } </script> </head> <body> <div class="interesing"> <div class="one">AAAA</div> <div class="two">BBBB</div> <div class="three">CCCC</div> </div> <div class="boring"> <div class="one">1111</div> <div class="two">2222</div> <div class="three">3333</div> </div> <input type="button" onclick="my_test()" value="my test" </body> </html> So elements is now an array of elements and I can access each of them individually. But where can I find what methods/properties these elements have?

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  • Using the Loader display object to load X jpegs, then resize each of the images differently while th

    - by Supernovah
    Hey there, I was wondering if this is possible to do I am able to load the image in and have it displayed easily enough by using addChild(myLoader); where myLoader is in the classWide private scope. The problem is, whenever I call my function inside that class which adds the loader to the stage, it clears the old one and puts this new one in even if I add a bit where I change myLoader.name to something related to how many images it has completed. This is a serious hinderance as I can't do anything besides KNOW how many images I will need to load and write the code X times. The problem being is that the urls are read from an XML file. My main desire was to have a classWide private Array which contained my loaders and I would assign them using myArray.push(myLoader) each time the load had completed. There is a problem which is that it compiles but they never get displayed it would work as this is written public class Images extends Sprite { private var imagesLoaded = 0; private var myLoader:Loader; ... public function Images():Void { myLoader = new Loader; //loop calling a myLoader.load(imageURL) for a bunch of urls myLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, imageLoaded); } public function imageLoaded { myArray[imagesLoaded] = myLoader; trace("does\'nt get to here!!"); addChild(myArray[imagesLoaded]); imagesLoaded++; } }

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  • Looking for a RESTful or SOAP pipeline between WordPress and InterWoven TeamSite

    - by deanpeters
    I've been Googling my brains out trying see if there's a simple way to bridge content to and from WordPress to and from TeamSite. I'm coming at this from the perspective of a WordPress developer. I see in the book "The Definitive Guide to Interwoven TeamSite" (http://bit.ly/d3z4wI) mention of objects for the Interwoven LiveSite product: com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.RSS com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.SOAP If I understand the above objects correctly, these allow me to instantiate objects of these data types, which after populating them via various method calls, allow me to render content using com.interwoven.livesite.external.ExternalCall ... but I'm not sure. Nor do I think this approach provides me the 2-way street I seek. As it stands now, from my limited understanding, it appears that the least path of resistance is deploying Interwoven's LiveSite with the existing TeamSite implementation so content can be both consumed and rendered via RSS ... an channel which WordPress can produce and consume; the latter with plugins such as wp-o-matic and/or feedpress. So the question is, does anyone out there have experience with a SOAP or RESTful API approach to InterWoven's TeamSite? If so, can I get some direction on documentation? Or is the addition of LiveSite + RSS the most feasible 2-way channel?

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  • Qt/C++ - confused about caller/callee, object ownership

    - by Isabel
    I am creating a GUI to manipulate a robot arm. The location of the arm can be described by 6 floats (describing the positions of the various arm joints. The interface consists of a QGraphicsView with a diagram of the arm (which can be clicked to change the arm position - adjusting the 6 floats). The interface also has 6 lineEdit boxes, to also adjust those values separately. When the graphics view is clicked, and when the line edit boxes are changed, I'd like the line edit boxes / graphics view to stay in synchronisation. This brings me to confusion about how to store the 6 floats, and trigger events when they're updated. My current idea is this: The robot arm's location should be represented by a class, RobotArmLocation. Objects of this class then have methods such as obj.ShoulderRotation() and obj.SetShoulderRotation(). The MainWindow has a single instance of RobotArmLocation. Next is the bit I'm more confused about, how to join everything up. I am thinking: The MainWindow has a ArmLocationChanged slot. This is signalled whenever the location object is changed. The diagram class will have a SetRobotArmLocation(RobotArmLocation &loc). When the diagram is changed, it's free to change the location object, and fire a signal to the ArmLocationChanged slot. Likewise, changing any of the text boxes will fire a signal to that ArmLocationChanged slot. The slot then has code to synchronise all the elements. This kind of seems like a mess to me, does anyone have any other suggestions? I've also thought of the following, does it have any merrit? The RobotArmLocation class has a ValueChanged slot, the diagram and textboxes can use that directly, and bypass the MainWindow directly (seems cleaner?) thanks for any wisdom!

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  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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  • Maven3 Issues with building a multi-module enterprise project

    - by Sujit K
    I just migrated from Maven2 to Maven3 and I'm able to build each module individually or all the modules in one shot by calling mvn clean install. However, in Maven2, since we have multi-module enterprise project, we build multiple ear's and each ear is built as its own module with its own child pom. To build an individual ear with its dependents, the below command works fine in Maven2 but not in Maven3. Let me explain the issue in Maven3 a bit later. mvn -pl ear_module -rf first_dependent_module -am clean install In Maven2 when the reactor lists the build order, I see first_dependent_module second_dependent_module ear_module End of the day I have my ear module also part of the reactor which is how it should be. The reason we call -rf is we don't want to delete the target folder at the main ${project.basedir} (so not to delete the output created in target from building the other ear modules). With Maven3, however, this is all I see when the reactor lists the build order: first_dependent_module second_dependent_module Maven3 totally ignores the argument (ear_module) set to -pl flag to be also built after its dependents have been. Not sure what I'm missing here. Any help/tips would be greatly appreciated. P.S: The build I'm making is similar to the one below.... Build specific module in multi-module project Thanks, SK

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  • mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

    - by axeoth
    See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Understanding how software testing works and what to test.

    - by RHaguiuda
    Intro: I've seen lots of topics here on SO about software testing and other terms I don't understand. Problem: As a beginner developer I, unfortunately, have no idea how software testing works, not even how to test a simple function. This is a shame, but thats the truth. I also hope this question can help others beginners developers too. Question: Can you help me to understand this subject a little bit more? Maybe some questions to start would help: When I develop a function, how should I test it? For example: when working with a sum function, should I test every input value possible or just some limits? How about testing functions with strings as parameters? In a big program, do I have to test every single piece of code of it? When you guys program do you test every code written? How automated test works and how can I try one? How tools for automated testing works and what they do? I`ve heard about unit testing. Can I have a brief explanation on this? What is a testing framework? If possible please post some code with examples to clarify the ideas. Any help on this topic is very welcome! Thanks.

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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Boost multi_index_container crash in release mode

    - by Zan Lynx
    I have a program that I just changed to using a boost::multi_index_container collection. After I did that and tested my code in debug mode, I was feeling pretty good about myself. However, then I compiled a release build with NDEBUG set, and the code crashed. Not immediately, but sometimes in single-threaded tests and often in multi-threaded tests. The segmentation faults happen deep inside boost insert and rotate functions related to the index updates and they are happening because a node has NULL left and right pointers. My code looks a bit like this: struct Implementation { typedef std::pair<uint32_t, uint32_t> update_pair_type; struct watch {}; struct update {}; typedef boost::multi_index_container< update_pair_type, boost::multi_index::indexed_by< boost::multi_index::ordered_unique< boost::multi_index::tag<watch>, boost::multi_index::member<update_pair_type, uint32_t, &update_pair_type::first> >, boost::multi_index::ordered_non_unique< boost::multi_index::tag<update>, boost::multi_index::member<update_pair_type, uint32_t, &update_pair_type::second> > > > update_map_type; typedef std::vector< update_pair_type > update_list_type; update_map_type update_map; update_map_type::iterator update_hint; void register_update(uint32_t watch, uint32_t update); void do_updates(uint32_t start, uint32_t end); }; void Implementation::register_update(uint32_t watch, uint32_t update) { update_pair_type new_pair( watch_offset, update_offset ); update_hint = update_map.insert(update_hint, new_pair); if( update_hint->second != update_offset ) { bool replaced _unused_ = update_map.replace(update_hint, new_pair); assert(replaced); } }

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  • Managed C++ or C# .NET, Downloading from rapidshare?

    - by cruisx
    I am trying to download a file from rapidshare via C++ .NET but I'm having a bit of trouble. The address used to be "https://ssl.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/premiumzone.cgi" but that no longer works, does anyone know what the new one is? The code works but the file size is always 1KB, I don't think its connecting to the right server. private: void downloadFileAsync(String^ fileUrl) { String^ uriString; //fileUrl = "http://rapidshare.com/files/356458319/Keeping.Up.with.the.Kardashians.S04E10.Delivering.Baby.Mason.HDTV.XviD-MOMENTUM.rar"; uriString = "https://ssl.rapidshare.com/premzone.html";//"https://ssl.rapidshare.com"; NameValueCollection^ postvals = gcnew NameValueCollection(); postvals->Add("login", "bob"); postvals->Add("password", "12345"); // postvals->Add("uselandingpage", "1"); WebClient^ myWebClient = gcnew WebClient(); array<unsigned char>^ responseArray = gcnew array<unsigned char>(10024); responseArray = myWebClient->UploadValues(uriString, "POST", postvals); StreamReader^ strRdr = gcnew StreamReader(gcnew MemoryStream(responseArray)); String^ cookiestr = myWebClient->ResponseHeaders->Get("Set-Cookie"); myWebClient->Headers->Add("Cookie", cookiestr); //myWebClient->DownloadFileCompleted += gcnew AsyncCompletedEventHandler(myWebClient->DownloadFileCompleted); myWebClient-DownloadFileAsync(gcnew Uri(fileUrl),"C:\rapid\"+Path::GetFileName(fileUrl)); }

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