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  • VB.NET editing existing that with a form

    - by user127147
    Hi there, I have a simple questions that puzzles me. I need a little bit of refreashment with VB as I have been away for a while. I have a form that adds new contacts. New contacts are added by pressing an appropriate button and they appear as an entry in the list on the form. I try now to add an edit button that will edit existing entries. User will select a given entry on the list and press edit button and will be presented with an appropriate form (AddContFrm). Right now it simply adds another entry with the same title. Logic is handled in a class called Contact.vb Here is my code. Public Class Contact Public Contact As String Public Title As String Public Fname As String Public Surname As String Public Address As String Private myCont As String Public Property Cont() Get Return myCont End Get Set(ByVal value) myCont = Value End Set End Property Public Overrides Function ToString() As String Return Me.Cont End Function Sub NewContact() FName = frmAddCont.txtFName.ToString frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(FName) frmAddCont.Hide() End Sub Public Sub Display() Dim C As New Contact 'C.Cont = InputBox("Enter a title for this contact.") C.Cont = frmAddCont.txtTitle.Text C.Fname = frmAddCont.txtFName.Text C.Surname = frmAddCont.txtSName.Text C.Address = frmAddCont.txtAddress.Text 'frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C.Cont.ToString) frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C) End Sub End Class AddContFrm Public Class frmAddCont Public Class ControlObject Dim Title As String Dim FName As String Dim SName As String Dim Address As String Dim TelephoneNumber As Integer Dim emailAddress As String Dim Website As String Dim Photograph As String End Class Private Sub btnConfirmAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnConfirmAdd.Click Dim C As New Contact C.Display() Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub frmAddCont_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class and frmStart.vb Public Class frmStart Private Sub btnAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnAdd.Click frmAddCont.Show() End Sub Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDel.Click Dim DelCont As Contact DelCont = Me.lstContact.SelectedItem() lstContact.Items.Remove(DelCont) End Sub Private Sub lstContact_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles lstContact.SelectedIndexChanged End Sub Private Sub btnEdit_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEdit.Click Dim C As Contact If lstContact.SelectedItem IsNot Nothing Then C = DirectCast(lstContact.SelectedItem, Contact) C.Display() End If End Sub End Class

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  • Does className exist in Mootools ?

    - by anna mae
    Hi, I want to update this very simple JS to Mootools 1.2 and it's not easy. This function : function changeclass(x){ document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass0"; document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass" + x; } is triggered in the DOM by : <div id="someclass"> a href="javascript: changeclass(0)">Unstyled</a a href="javascript: changeclass(1)">link one</a a href="javascript: changeclass(2)">link two</a a href="javascript: changeclass(3)">link three</a </div> to call the according CSS classes like : .ziclass1 h1{ color: rgb(142,11,0); font-family: Verdana; font-size: 2.5em; letter-spacing: 0.1em; } and changes the layout accordingly in : <div id="content" class="ziclass3"> ... </div> I know I can add an event to the triggers like : $(#someclass.each(function(element,index) { element.addEvent('click', function(){ //some code }); But, how do I get #content class classname ? Through an array ? I am a bit confused here. I'd be really grateful for any help to set me on the right track

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  • C#, Can I check on a lock without trying to acquire it?

    - by Biff MaGriff
    Hello, I have a lock in my c# web app that prevents users from running the update script once it has started. I was thinking I would put a notification in my master page to let the user know that the data isn't all there yet. Currently I do my locking like so. protected void butRefreshData_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(UpdateDatabase)); t.Start(this); //sleep for a bit to ensure that javascript has a chance to get rendered Thread.Sleep(100); } public static void UpdateDatabase(object con) { if (Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) { Updater.RepopulateDatabase(); Monitor.Exit(myLock); } else { Common.RegisterStartupScript(con, AlreadyLockedJavaScript); } } And I do not want to do if(Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) Monitor.Exit(myLock); else //show processing labal As I imagine there is a slight possibility that it might display the notification when it isn't actually running. Is there an alternative I can use? Edit: Hi Everyone, thanks a lot for your suggestions! Unfortunately I couldn't quite get them to work... However I combined the ideas on 2 answers and came up with my own solution.

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  • Document management, SCM ?

    - by tsunade
    Hello, This might not be a hard core programming question, but it's related to some of the tools used by programmers I suspect. So we're a bunch of people each with a bunch of documents and a bunch of different computers on a bunch of operating systems (well, only 2, linux and windows). The best way these documents can be stored/managed is if they were available offline (the laptop might not always be online) but also synchronized between all the machines. Having a server with extra reliable storage be a "base repository" seems like a good idea to me. Using a SCM comes to my mind and I've tried Subversion, and it seems to be a good thing that it uses a centralized repository - but: When checking out the total size of the checkout is roughly double the original size. Big files or big repositories seem to slow it down. Also I've tried rsync, which might work - but it's a bit rough when it comes to the potential conflict. Finally I've tried Unison (which is a wrapping of rsync, I think) and while it works it becomes horribly slow for the big directories we have here since it has to scan everything. So the question is - is there a SCM tool out there that is actually practial to use for a big bunch of both small and big files? If thats a NO - does anyone know other tools that do this job? Thanks for reading :)

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  • Passing a WHERE clause for a Linq-to-Sql query as a parameter

    - by Mantorok
    Hi all This is probably pushing the boundaries of Linq-to-Sql a bit but given how versatile it has been so far I thought I'd ask. I have 3 queries that are selecting identical information and only differ in the where clause, now I know I can pass a delegate in but this only allows me to filter the results already returned, but I want to build up the query via parameter to ensure efficiency. Here is the query: from row in DataContext.PublishedEvents join link in DataContext.PublishedEvent_EventDateTimes on row.guid equals link.container join time in DataContext.EventDateTimes on link.item equals time.guid where row.ApprovalStatus == "Approved" && row.EventType == "Event" && time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) orderby time.StartDate select new EventDetails { Title = row.EventName, Description = TrimDescription(row.Description) }; The code I want to apply via a parameter would be: time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) Is this possible? I don't think it is but thought I'd check out first. Thanks

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  • Java Swing custom shapes (2D Graphics)

    - by juFo
    I need to draw custom shapes. Now when a user clicks on several points on the panel I create a shape using a polygon. public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) { polygon.addPoint(e.getX(), e.getY()); repaint(); } But I don't know if this is the best way to draw custom shapes. It should be possible to edit a drawn shape: resize change its fill color change the stroke color copy/paste it move a single point of the polygon ... I have seen people creating an own class implementing the Shape class and using a GeneralPath. But again I have no idea if this is a good way. Now I can create my own shape with a polygon (or with a GeneralPath) but I have no clue how to attach all the edit functions to my own shape (the edit functions I mean the resize, move, etc from above). I hope somebody could show me a way to do this or maybe write a little bit of code to demonstrate this. Thanks in advance!!

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  • Formatting associative array declaration

    - by Drew Stephens
    When declaring an associative array, how do you handle the indentation of the elements of the array? I've seen a number of different styles (PHP syntax, since that's what I've been in lately). This is a pretty picky and trivial thing, so move along if you're interested in more serious pursuits. 1) Indent elements one more level: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 2) Indent elements two levels: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 3) Indent elements beyond the array constructor, with closing brace aligned with the start of the constructor: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 4) Indent elements beyond the array construct, with closing brace aligned with opening brace: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); Personally, I like #3—the broad indentation makes it clear that we're at a break point in the code (constructing the array), and having the closing brace floating a bit to the left of all of the array's data makes it clear that this declaration is done.

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  • Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Delete only reference to child object

    - by Al
    I'm running in to a bit of a problem where any attempt to delete just the reference to a child also deletes the child record. My schema looks like this Person Organisation OrganisationContacts : Person OrgId PersonId Role When removing an Organisation i want to only delete the record in OrgnaisationContacts, but not touch the Person record. My Mapping looks like this Code: public OrganisationMap() { Table("Organsations"); .... HasMany<OrganisationContact>(x => x.Contacts) .Table("OrganisationContacts ") .KeyColumn("OrgId") .Not.Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } public class OrganisationContactMap : SubclassMap<OrganisationContact> { public OrganisationContactMap() { Table("OrganisationContacts"); Map(x => x.Role, "PersonRole"); Map(x => x.IsPrimary); } } At the moment just removing a contact from the IList either doesn't reflect in the database at all, or it issues two delete statements DELETE FROM OrganisationContact & DELETE FROM Person, or tries to set PersonId to null in the OrganisationContacts table. All of which are not desirable. Any help would be great appreciated.

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  • How would you go about tackling this problem? [SOLVED in C++]

    - by incrediman
    Intro: EDIT: See solution at the bottom of this question (c++) I have a programming contest coming up in about half a week, and I've been prepping :) I found a bunch of questions from this canadian competition, they're great practice: http://cemc.math.uwaterloo.ca/contests/computing/2009/stage2/day1.pdf I'm looking at problem B ("Dinner"). Any idea where to start? I can't really think of anything besides the naive approach (ie. trying all permutations) which would take too long to be a valid answer. Btw, the language there says c++ and pascal I think, but i don't care what language you use - I mean really all I want is a hint as to the direction I should proceed in, and perhpas a short explanation to go along with it. It feels like I'm missing something obvious... Of course extended speculation is more than welcome, but I just wanted to clarify that I'm not looking for a full solution here :) Short version of the question: You have a binary string N of length 1-100 (in the question they use H's and G's instead of one's and 0's). You must remove all of the digits from it, in the least number of steps possible. In each step you may remove any number of adjacent digits so long as they are the same. That is, in each step you can remove any number of adjacent G's, or any number of adjacent H's, but you can't remove H's and G's in one step. Example: HHHGHHGHH Solution to the example: 1. HHGGHH (remove middle Hs) 2. HHHH (remove middle Gs) 3. Done (remove Hs) -->Would return '3' as the answer. Note that there can also be a limit placed on how large adjacent groups have to be when you remove them. For example it might say '2', and then you can't remove single digits (you'd have to remove pairs or larger groups at a time). Solution I took Mark Harrison's main algorithm, and Paradigm's grouping idea and used them to create the solution below. You can try it out on the official test cases if you want. //B.cpp //include debug messages? #define DEBUG false #include <iostream> #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> using namespace std; #define FOR(i,n) for (int i=0;i<n;i++) #define FROM(i,s,n) for (int i=s;i<n;i++) #define H 'H' #define G 'G' class String{ public: int num; char type; String(){ type=H; num=0; } String(char type){ this->type=type; num=1; } }; //n is the number of bits originally in the line //k is the minimum number of people you can remove at a time //moves is the counter used to determine how many moves we've made so far int n, k, moves; int main(){ /*Input from File*/ scanf("%d %d",&n,&k); char * buffer = new char[200]; scanf("%s",buffer); /*Process input into a vector*/ //the 'line' is a vector of 'String's (essentially contigious groups of identical 'bits') vector<String> line; line.push_back(String()); FOR(i,n){ //if the last String is of the correct type, simply increment its count if (line.back().type==buffer[i]) line.back().num++; //if the last String is of the wrong type but has a 0 count, correct its type and set its count to 1 else if (line.back().num==0){ line.back().type=buffer[i]; line.back().num=1; } //otherwise this is the beginning of a new group, so create the new group at the back with the correct type, and a count of 1 else{ line.push_back(String(buffer[i])); } } /*Geedily remove groups until there are at most two groups left*/ moves=0; int I;//the position of the best group to remove int bestNum;//the size of the newly connected group the removal of group I will create while (line.size()>2){ /*START DEBUG*/ if (DEBUG){ cout<<"\n"<<moves<<"\n----\n"; FOR(i,line.size()) printf("%d %c \n",line[i].num,line[i].type); cout<<"----\n"; } /*END DEBUG*/ I=1; bestNum=-1; FROM(i,1,line.size()-1){ if (line[i-1].num+line[i+1].num>bestNum && line[i].num>=k){ bestNum=line[i-1].num+line[i+1].num; I=i; } } //remove the chosen group, thus merging the two adjacent groups line[I-1].num+=line[I+1].num; line.erase(line.begin()+I);line.erase(line.begin()+I); moves++; } /*START DEBUG*/ if (DEBUG){ cout<<"\n"<<moves<<"\n----\n"; FOR(i,line.size()) printf("%d %c \n",line[i].num,line[i].type); cout<<"----\n"; cout<<"\n\nFinal Answer: "; } /*END DEBUG*/ /*Attempt the removal of the last two groups, and output the final result*/ if (line.size()==2 && line[0].num>=k && line[1].num>=k) cout<<moves+2;//success else if (line.size()==1 && line[0].num>=k) cout<<moves+1;//success else cout<<-1;//not everyone could dine. /*START DEBUG*/ if (DEBUG){ cout<<" moves."; } /*END DEBUG*/ }

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  • jQuery Accordion + Anchor Tag 'stuck as block' bug?

    - by DA
    Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue. UPDATE 2: After some more playing, I've narrowed things down a bit more: the bug has nothing to do with lists. The issue is any anchor tag within a jQuery Accordion will appear as display: block (even though it appears that the CSS still indicates display: inline) the bug has nothing to do with the actual CSS that jQuery UI uses to create the accordion. I created a test page that uses the fully rendered jQuery Accordion post-processed source code and the accompanying CSS. In that situation, the anchor tags remain inline. In conclusion: It appears that the process of rendering the accordion via javascript is messing up the display of the anchor tags. It may be a show/hide issue?

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  • C when to allocate and free memory - before function call, after function call...etc

    - by Keith P
    I am working with my first straight C project, and it has been a while since I worked on C++ for that matter. So the whole memory management is a bit fuzzy. I have a function that I created that will validate some input. In the simple sample below, it just ignores spaces: int validate_input(const char *input_line, char* out_value){ int ret_val = 0; /*false*/ int length = strlen(input_line); cout << "length = " << length << "\n"; out_value =(char*) malloc(sizeof(char) * length + 1); if (0 != length){ int number_found = 0; for (int x = 0; x < length; x++){ if (input_line[x] != ' '){ /*ignore space*/ /*get the character*/ out_value[number_found] = input_line[x]; number_found++; /*increment counter*/ } } out_value[number_found + 1] = '\0'; ret_val = 1; } return ret_val; } Instead of allocating memory inside the function for out_value, should I do it before I call the function and always expect the caller to allocate memory before passing into the function? As a rule of thumb, should any memory allocated inside of a function be always freed before the function returns?

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  • How do I update the UI during an event using ASP.NET?

    - by Phil Hale
    I'm a bit stuck with a problem. I feel like the solution should be fairly straight forward but I'm completely out of ideas for some reason. Here's the problem. I've got a user control with a couple of buttons. Think of them as 'On' and 'Off'. When either button is clicked an async method is called. If the method is successful an event is fired. Within the event I want to update the enabled property of the two buttons so that only a single button is clickable at any one time. The problem is that any changes I make to the properties are not shown on screen because the postback is already complete. I tried wrapping the buttons in an UpdatePanel but I get an "Update method can only be called on UpdatePanel with ID 'xxxx' before Render' error. I understand why the problem occurs but I can't think of a solution. Help! Ideally what I'd like to do is simply call a method within the event that will update the UI, but I don't know if that's possible.

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  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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  • XSLT: insert parameter value inside of an html attribute

    - by usr
    How to make the following code insert the youtubeId parameter: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE xsl:stylesheet [ <!ENTITY nbsp "&#x00A0;"> ]> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxml="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" xmlns:YouTube="urn:YouTube" xmlns:umbraco.library="urn:umbraco.library" exclude-result-prefixes="msxml umbraco.library YouTube"> <xsl:output method="xml" omit-xml-declaration="yes"/> <xsl:param name="videoId"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <a href="{$videoId}">{$videoId}</a> <object width="425" height="355"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/{$videoId}&amp;hl=en"></param> <param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param> <embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/{$videoId}&amp;hl=en" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" wmode="transparent" width="425" height="355"></embed> </object>$videoId {$videoId} {$videoId} <xsl:value-of select="/macro/videoId" /> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> As you can see I have experimented quite a bit. <xsl:value-of select="/macro/videoId" /> actually outputs the videoId but all other occurences do not. This must be an easy question to answer but I just cannot get it to work.

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  • Insert Stored Procedure does not Create Database Record

    - by SidC
    Hello All, I have the following stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE Pro_members_Insert @id int outPut, @LoginName nvarchar(50), @Password nvarchar(15), @FirstName nvarchar(100), @LastName nvarchar(100), @signupDate smalldatetime, @Company nvarchar(100), @Phone nvarchar(50), @Email nvarchar(150), @Address nvarchar(255), @PostalCode nvarchar(10), @State_Province nvarchar(100), @City nvarchar(50), @countryCode nvarchar(4), @active bit, @activationCode nvarchar(50) AS declare @usName as varchar(50) set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(LoginName,'') from members where LoginName=@LoginName if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-3 RAISERROR('User Already exist.', 16, 1) return end set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(email,'') from members where Email=@Email if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-4 RAISERROR('Email Already exist.', 16, 1) return end declare @MemID as int select @memID=isnull(max(ID),0)+1 from members INSERT INTO members ( id, LoginName, Password, FirstName, LastName, signupDate, Company, Phone, Email, Address, PostalCode, State_Province, City, countryCode, active,activationCode) VALUES ( @Memid, @LoginName, @Password, @FirstName, @LastName, @signupDate, @Company, @Phone, @Email, @Address, @PostalCode, @State_Province, @City, @countryCode, @active,@activationCode) if @@error <> 0 set @ID=-1 else set @id=@memID Note that I've "inherited" this sproc and the database. I am trying to insert a new record from my signup.aspx page. My SQLDataSource is as follows: <asp:SqlDataSource runat="server" ID="dsAddMember" ConnectionString="rmsdbuser" InsertCommandType="StoredProcedure" InsertCommand="Pro_members_Insert" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient"> The click handler for btnSave is as follows: Protected Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click Try dsAddMember.DataBind() Catch ex As Exception End Try End Sub When I run this page, signup.aspx, provide required fields and click submit, the page simply reloads and the database table does not reflect the newly-inserted record. Questions: 1. How do I catch the error messages that might be returned from the sproc? 2. Please advise how to change signup.aspx so that the insert occurs. Thanks, Sid

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  • Facebook Connect Login redirecting in Chrome and Safari

    - by Lobe
    I am having a problem with Facebook Connect that I can't seem to get my head around. A user clicks on the fb-login button, the pop up appears and they authenticate, the pop up closes and the on-login function is called. This happens in IE and Firefox as is expected. However in Chrome and Safari, the pop up redirects to the canvas url and doesn't close. Also the on-login function isn't called. I have googled and it seems to be something to do with the xd-receiver.htm file, however it seems weird that it is working in IE and Firefox but not Chrome or Safari. Thanks The facebook javascript <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript">FB.init("xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx","xd_receiver.htm");</script> And the button <fb:login-button v="2" size="large" onlogin='window.location = "http://www.xxxxxxxxxx.com/development/redirect.php?size=large";'>Connect</fb:login-button> Obviously with Appid and domain hidden. Any ideas? EDIT: After a bit more playing around it turned out that I didn't have my base domain set in Facebook settings. Why it works in some browsers and not others beats me, however it works now. Thanks NSD for your suggestion.

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  • How to maintain a persistant network-connection between two applications over a network?

    - by John
    I was recently approached by my management with an interesting problem - where I am pretty sure I am telling my bosses the correct information but I really want to make sure I am telling them the correct stuff. I am being asked to develop some software that has this function: An application at one location is constantly processing real-time data every second and only generates data if the underlying data has changed in any way. On the event that the data has changed send the results to another box over a network Maintains a persistent connection between the both machines, altering the remote box if for some reason the network connection went down From what I understand, I imagine that I need to do some reading on doing some sort of TCP/IP socket-level stuff. That way if the connection is dropped the remote location will be aware that the data it has received may be stale. However management seems to be very convinced that this can be accomplished using SOAP. I was under the impression that SOAP is more or less a way for a client to initiate a procedure from a server and get some results via the HTTP protocol. Am I wrong in assuming this? I haven't been able to find much information on how SOAP might be able to solve a problem like this. I feel like a lot of people around my office are using SOAP as a buzzword and that has generated a bit of confusion over what SOAP actually is - and is capable of. Any thoughts on how to accomplish this task would be appreciated!

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  • Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

    - by JimBadger
    I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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  • CSS3 image rotation and reposition to fit in div

    - by blid
    I'll start with JS Fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/zy2xy/4/ <div id="page" style="position: relative; background: #ccc; width: 500px; height: 600px;"> <div id="container" style="top: 50px; left: 100px; width: 200px; height: 200px; position: absolute; background: #fff;"> <img src="http://lorempixel.com/200/100/"> </div> </div>????????? I've got a whole page div #page, and inside that another div #container positioned absolute against #page. What I want to achieve, is to rotate image inside it 90deg, 180deg or 270deg but always move that image to top left corner of #container. I tried a little bit with transform-origin but I couldn't find any solution.

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  • PHP Ampersand in String

    - by John
    Hello. I'm having a bit of a problem. I am trying to create an IRC bot, which has an ampersand in its password. However, I'm having trouble putting the ampersand in a string. For example... <?php $var = "g&abc123"; echo $var; ?> I believe this should print g&abc123. However it's printing g. I have tried this as well: <?php $arr = array("key" => "g&abc123"); print_r($arr); ?> This prints it correctly with the g&abc123, however when I say echo $arr['key']; it prints g again. Any help would be appreciated. I'm running PHP5.3.1. EDIT: Also, I just noticed that if I use g&abc123&abc123 it prints g&abc123. Any suggestions?

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