Search Results

Search found 37088 results on 1484 pages for 'object element'.

Page 763/1484 | < Previous Page | 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770  | Next Page >

  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

    Read the article

  • How to create a semi transparent window in WPF that allows mouse events to pass through

    - by RMK
    I am trying to create an effect similar to the Lights out /lights dim feature in Adobe Lightroom (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=87hNd3vaENE) except in WPF. What I tried was to create another window over-top of my existing window, make it transparent and put a semi transparent Path geometry on it. But I want mouse events to be able to pass through this semi transparent window (on to windows below). This is a simplified version of what I have: <Window x:Class="LightsOut.MaskWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" AllowsTransparency="True" WindowStyle="None" ShowInTaskbar="False" Topmost="True" Background="Transparent"> <Grid> <Button HorizontalAlignment="Left" Height="20" Width="60">click</Button> <Path IsHitTestVisible="False" Stroke="Black" Fill="Black" Opacity="0.3"> <Path.Data> <RectangleGeometry Rect="0,0,1000,1000 "/> </Path.Data> </Path> </Grid> The window is fully transparent, so on places where the Path doesn't cover, mouse events pass right through. So far so good. The IsHitTestvisible is set to false on the path object. So mouse events will pass through it to other controls on the same form (ie you can click on the Button, because it is on the same form). But mouse events wont pass through the Path object onto windows that are below it. Any ideas? Or better ways to solve this problem? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

    Read the article

  • Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

    - by Thomas Herrmann
    I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

    Read the article

  • Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

    - by pauldoo
    Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

    Read the article

  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

    Read the article

  • vector::erase with pointer member

    - by matt
    I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Multiple table relationships in Zend Help

    - by Zogi
    Hi Guys I have been doing some DB mapping to link two tables to no avail. Everytime I run the code I get the following error: Message: File "Role.php" does not exist or class "Role" was not found in the file Stack trace: #0 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Db\Table\Row\Abstract.php(867): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->_getTableFromString('Role') #1 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\models\admin\User.php(56): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->findDependentRowset('Role') #2 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\controllers\AdminController.php(110): Application_Model_Admin_User->getUsers() #3 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): AdminController->usersAction() #4 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('usersAction') #5 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #6 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #7 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #8 C:\wamp\www\uwi\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #9 {main} Code & DB below: application/models/admin/User.php class Application_Model_Admin_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Role'); public function getUsers() { $rows = $this->fetchAll($this->select()->where('active = ?', 1)); $rows1 = $rows->current(); $rows2 = $rows1->findDependentRowset('Role'); return $rows2; } } application/models/admin/Role.php class Application_Model_Admin_Role extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'role'; protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'Role' => array( 'columns' => array('id'), 'refTableClass' => 'User', 'refColumns' => array('role_id') ); } DB tables CREATE TABLE role ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, name varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, username varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id), FOREIGN KEY(role_id) REFERENCES role(id) );

    Read the article

  • What is the best way in assigning foreign key when using entity framework & LINQ to Entities?

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I need to know the best practice of creating an entity object and assigning the foreign key. Here is my scenario. I have a Product table with pid,name,unit_price etc.. I also have a Rating table with pid (foregin key),rate,votes etc... Currently i am doing the following to create the rating object: var prod = entities.Product.First(p => p.product_id == pid); prod.Rating.Load(); if (prod.Rating != null) { log.Info("Rating already exists!"); // set values and Calcuate the score } else { log.Info("New Rating!!!"); Rating rating = new Rating(); // set values and do inital calculation prod.Rating = rating; } entities.SaveChanges(); Even though this works fine, i would like to know the best practice in doing these kind of assignment. Thanks for your suggestions and info. Best Regards, Abdel Olakara

    Read the article

  • .net user control event handler lost on postback

    - by user154008
    I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

    Read the article

  • Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

    - by Nick VanderPyle
    I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

    Read the article

  • how to determine if a character vector is a valid numeric or integer vector

    - by Andrew Barr
    I am trying to turn a nested list structure into a dataframe. The list looks similar to the following (it is serialized data from parsed JSON read in using the httr package). myList <- list(object1 = list(w=1, x=list(y=0.1, z="cat")), object2 = list(w=2, x=list(y=0.2, z="dog"))) unlist(myList) does a great job of recursively flattening the list, and I can then use lapply to flatten all the objects nicely. flatList <- lapply(myList, FUN= function(object) {return(as.data.frame(rbind(unlist(object))))}) And finally, I can button it up using plyr::rbind.fill myDF <- do.call(plyr::rbind.fill, flatList) str(myDF) #'data.frame': 2 obs. of 3 variables: #$ w : Factor w/ 2 levels "1","2": 1 2 #$ x.y: Factor w/ 2 levels "0.1","0.2": 1 2 #$ x.z: Factor w/ 2 levels "cat","dog": 1 2 The problem is that w and x.y are now being interpreted as character vectors, which by default get parsed as factors in the dataframe. I believe that unlist() is the culprit, but I can't figure out another way to recursively flatten the list structure. A workaround would be to post-process the dataframe, and assign data types then. What is the best way to determine if a vector is a valid numeric or integer vector?

    Read the article

  • How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

    Read the article

  • Send HTTPService Request in flex 3 with '-' in the URl Paramerters to get Google Feeds

    - by Goysar
    I am developing application in flex 3 which interacts with the Google feeds to produce my results. The URL to which i want to send request is something like this http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=football+-soccer&start-index=11&max-results=10 Now i can send and receive results with q parameter, but in the next two parameters has a '-' (start-index and max-results). I am using HTTPService to send the requeset like this. SearchService.url = "http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes"; SearchService.method = "GET"; SearchService.contentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Here SearchService is the HTTPService var params:Object = new Object(); params.q = searchText; params.start-index = 11; params.max-results = 100; service.SearchService.send(params); Now my flex IDE throws me a error stating 'Cannot assign a non-reference value'. Only if i send the request with this parameters, i could put pagination in my application. So how can i send HTTPService request with '-' in the URL parameters?

    Read the article

  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

    Read the article

  • When to Store Temporary Values in Hidden Field vs. Session vs. Database?

    - by viatropos
    I am trying to build a simple OpenID login panel similar to how Stack Overflow's works. The goal is: User clicks OpenID/Oauth provider OpenID/Oauth stuff happens, we end up with the result (already made that) Then we want to confirm that the user wants to actually create a new account (vs. associating account with another OpenID account). In StackOverflow, they keep a hidden field on a form that looks like this: <form action="/users/openidconfirm" method="post"> <p>This is an OpenID we haven't seen on Stack Overflow before:</p> <p class="openid-identifier">https://me.yahoo.com/a/some-hash</p> <p>Do you want to associate this OpenID with your Stack Overflow account?</p> <div> <input type="hidden" name="fkey" value="9792ab2zza1q2a4ac414casdfa137eafba7"> <input type="hidden" name="s" value="c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218"> <input type="submit" value="Associate OpenID"> <input type="button" value="Cancel" onclick="window.location.href = 'http://stackoverflow.com/users/169992/viatropos?s=c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218'"> </div> </form> Initial question is, what are those hashes fkey and s? Not that I really care what these specific hashes are, but what it seems like is happening is they have processed the openid response and saved it to the DB in a temporary object or something, and from there they generate these keys, because they don't look like Oauth keys to me. Main situation is: after I have processed OpenID/Oauth responses, I don't yet want to create a new user/account until the user submits the "confirm" form. Should I store the keys and tokens temporarily in a "Confirm" form like this? Or is there a better way? It seems that using a temp database object would be a lot of work to manage properly. Thanks for the help. Lance

    Read the article

  • Qt and variadic functions

    - by Noah Roberts
    OK, before lecturing me on the use of C-style variadic functions in C++...everything else has turned out to require nothing short of rewriting the Qt MOC. What I'd like to know is whether or not you can have a "slot" in a Qt object that takes an arbitrary amount/type of arguments. The thing is that I really want to be able to generate Qt objects that have slots of an arbitrary signature. Since the MOC is incompatible with standard preprocessing and with templates, it's not possible to do so with either direct approach. I just came up with another idea: struct funky_base : QObject { Q_OBJECT funky_base(QObject * o = 0); public slots: virtual void the_slot(...) = 0; }; If this is possible then, because you can make a template that is a subclass of a QObject derived object so long as you don't declare new Qt stuff in it, I should be able to implement a derived templated type that takes the ... stuff and turns it into the appropriate, expected types. If it is, how would I connect to it? Would this work? connect(x, SIGNAL(someSignal(int)), y, SLOT(the_slot(...))); If nobody's tried anything this insane and doesn't know off hand, yes I'll eventually try it myself...but I am hoping someone already has existing knowledge I can tap before possibly wasting my time on it.

    Read the article

  • Assign delegate event handler from dynamically added child control

    - by mickyjtwin
    I have a control that handles commenting. In this control, I have set a delegate event handler for sending an email. I then have various types of controls, e.g. blog, articles etc, each of which may or may not have the commenting control added (which is done dynamically with me not knowing the id's), i.e. the commenting control is added outside this control. Each of these controls handles it's emailing differently(hence the event). What I'm trying to determine, is how to assign the event in the parent control. At the moment, I'm having to recursively search through all the controls on the page until I find the comment control, and set it that way. Example below explains: COMMENTING CONTROL public delegate void Commenting_OnSendEmail(); public partial class Commenting : UserControl { public Commenting_OnSendEmail OnComment_SendEmail(); private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(OnComment_SendEmail != null) { OnComment_SendEmail(); } } } PARENT CONTROL public partial class Blog : UserControl { private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Commenting comControl = (Commenting)this.FindControl<Commenting>(this); if(comControl != null) { comCtrol.OnComment_SendEmail += new Commenting_OnSendMail(Blog_Comment_OnSendEmail); } } } Is there an easier way?

    Read the article

  • Regex for removing certain variable numeric values from some text

    - by stephemurdoch
    I want to substitute all 4 instances of the number 300 from the code below, with 470. <div> <object width="300" height="300"> <embed src="link-removed" width="300" height="300"></embed> </object> <p> <a href="another-link">link</a> </p> </div> The width and height of the code being pasted might not always be 300 by 300. So I figure I probably need a regular expression that subs any numeric value that follows the strings "width=" and "height=", whilst remembering to account for the quotations marks that surround the number. Can anyone tell me if that's the best way, and if so, what would be the best regex? In case it matters, the code being pasted is stored as "text" in the db rather than as a string, as it's quite lengthy (i've removed a few hundred chars from what you see pasted here)...

    Read the article

  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Rhinomocks DynamicMock question

    - by epitka
    My dynamic mock behaves as Parial mock, meaning it executes the actual code when called. Here are the ways I tried it var mockProposal = _mockRepository.DynamicMock<BidProposal>(); SetupResult.For(mockProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Repeat.Once().Return( copyPlan); //Expect.Call(mockProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Repeat.Once().Return( // copyPlan); // mockProposal.Expect(x => x.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Return(copyPlan).Repeat.Once(); Instead of just returning what I expect it runs the code in the method CreateMarketingPlan Here is the error: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.SetMarketingPlanName(MarketingPlanDescription description) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 76 at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.set_MarketingPlanDescription(MarketingPlanDescription value) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 91 at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.Create(PPOBenefits ppoBenefits, MarketingPlanDescription marketingPlanDescription, MarketingPlanType marketingPlanType) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 23 at Policy.Entities.BidProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(PPOBenefits ppoBenefits, MarketingPlanDescription marketingPlanDescription, MarketingPlanType marketingPlanType) in BidProposal.cs: line 449 at Tests.Policy.Services.MarketingPlanCopyServiceTests.can_copy_MarketingPlan_with_all_options() in MarketingPlanCopyServiceTests.cs: line 32 Update: I figured out what it was. Method was not "virtual" so it could not be mocked because non-virtual methods cannot be proxied.

    Read the article

  • transfer database from local machine to hosting server

    - by c11ada
    hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

    Read the article

  • Struts 2 how to display messages saved in a Interceptor which would redirec to another action?

    - by mui13
    in my interceptor, if user doesn't have enough right, there would be a warn message: public String intercept(ActionInvocation invocation) throws Exception { ActionContext actionContext = invocation.getInvocationContext(); Map<String, Object> sessionMap = actionContext.getSession(); User loginUser = (User) sessionMap.get("user"); Object action = invocation.getAction(); if (loginUser != null && loginUser.getRole().getId() != Constant.AUTHORITY_ADMIN) { ((ValidationAware) action).addFieldError("user.authority", ((DefaultAction) action).getText("user.action.authority.not.enough")); return DefaultAction.HOME_PAGE; } return invocation.invoke(); } then, it would redirect to "HOME_PAGE" action, if success, display information in the jsp. So how to display the warn message? i have used two interceptors configed in strust.xml, for admin right requirment: <interceptor-stack name="authorityStack"> <interceptor-ref name="authority" /> <interceptor-ref name="defaultStack" /> <interceptor-ref name="store"> <param name="operationMode">STORE</param> </interceptor-ref> </interceptor-stack> default is: <interceptor-stack name="default"> <interceptor-ref name="login" /> <interceptor-ref name="defaultStack" /> <interceptor-ref name="store"> <param name="operationMode">AUTOMATIC</param> </interceptor-ref> </interceptor-stack>

    Read the article

  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770  | Next Page >