Search Results

Search found 36013 results on 1441 pages for 'public fields'.

Page 763/1441 | < Previous Page | 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770  | Next Page >

  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • Reordering methods in ComImport interfaces throws COMException (0x80041001)

    - by Ohad Schneider
    Consider the following code for COM interop with internet shortcuts: [ComImport] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] [Guid("CABB0DA0-DA57-11CF-9974-0020AFD79762")] public interface IUniformResourceLocatorW { void SetUrl([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] string pcszUrl, int dwInFlags); void GetUrl([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] out StringBuilder ppszUrl); void InvokeCommand(IntPtr purlici); } [ComImport] [Guid("FBF23B40-E3F0-101B-8488-00AA003E56F8")] public class InternetShortcut { } The following works as expected: var ishort = new InternetShortcut(); ((IPersistFile)ishort).Load("MyLink.url", 0); ((IUniformResourceLocatorW)ishort).GetUrl(out url); However: If I comment out IUniformResourceLocatorW.SetUrl (which I am not using), IUniformResourceLocatorW.GetUrl throws a COMException (HResult 0x80041001). If I switch between IUniformResourceLocatorW.SetUrl and IUniformResourceLocatorW.GetUrl (that is place the former below the latter) the same exception is thrown If I comment out IUniformResourceLocatorW.InvokeCommand the code runs fine. It's as if the order has to be preserved "up to" the invoked method. Is this behavior by design? documented somewhere? I'm asking because some COM interfaces are composed of many methods with possibly many supporting types and I'd rather avoid defining what I don't need if possible.

    Read the article

  • How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

    - by huffmaster
    So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

    Read the article

  • In a class with no virtual methods or superclass, is it safe to assume (address of first member vari

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I made a private API that assumes that the address of the first member-object in the class will be the same as the class's this-pointer... that way the member-object can trivially derive a pointer to the object that it is a member of, without having to store a pointer explicitly. Given that I am willing to make sure that the container class won't inherit from any superclass, won't have any virtual methods, and that the member-object that does this trick will be the first member object declared, will that assumption hold valid for any C++ compiler, or do I need to use the offsetof() operator (or similar) to guarantee correctness? To put it another way, the code below does what I expect under g++, but will it work everywhere? class MyContainer { public: MyContainer() {} ~MyContainer() {} // non-virtual dtor private: class MyContained { public: MyContained() {} ~MyContained() {} // Given that the only place Contained objects are declared is m_contained // (below), will this work as expected on any C++ compiler? MyContainer * GetPointerToMyContainer() { return reinterpret_cast<MyContainer *>(this); } }; MyContained m_contained; // MUST BE FIRST MEMBER ITEM DECLARED IN MyContainer int m_foo; // other member items may be declared after m_contained float m_bar; };

    Read the article

  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • Java InputStream encoding/charset

    - by Tobbe
    Running the following (example) code import java.io.*; public class test { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { byte[] buf = {-27}; InputStream is = new ByteArrayInputStream(buf); BufferedReader r = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(is, "ISO-8859-1")); String s = r.readLine(); System.out.println("test.java:9 [byte] (char)" + (char)s.getBytes()[0] + " (int)" + (int)s.getBytes()[0]); System.out.println("test.java:10 [char] (char)" + (char)s.charAt(0) + " (int)" + (int)s.charAt(0)); System.out.println("test.java:11 string below"); System.out.println(s); System.out.println("test.java:13 string above"); } } gives me this output test.java:9 [byte] (char)? (int)63 test.java:10 [char] (char)? (int)229 test.java:11 string below ? test.java:13 string above How do I retain the correct byte value (-27) in the line-9 printout? And consequently receive the expected output of the System.out.println(s) command (å).

    Read the article

  • Disposing ActiveX resources owned by another thread

    - by Stefan Teitge
    I've got a problem problem with threading and disposing resources. I've got a C# Windows Forms application which runs expensive operation in a thread. This thread instantiates an ActiveX control (AxControl). This control must be disposed as it uses a high amount of memory. So I implemented a Dispose() method and even a destructor. After the thread ends the destructor is called. This is sadly called by the UI thread. So invoking activexControl.Dispose(); fails with the message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW", as the object belongs to another thread. How to do this correctly or is it just a bad design I use? (I stripped the code down to the minimum including removing any safety concerns.) class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { // do stuff here, e.g. open a form new Thread(new ThreadStart(RunStuff); // do more stuff } private void RunStuff() { DoStuff stuff = new DoStuff(); stuff.PerformStuff(); } } class DoStuff : IDisposable { private AxControl activexControl; DoStuff() { activexControl = new AxControl(); activexControl.CreateControl(); // force instance } ~DoStuff() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { activexControl.Dispose(); } public void PerformStuff() { // invent perpetuum mobile here, takes time } }

    Read the article

  • Java: how to have try-catch as conditional in for-loop?

    - by HH
    I know how to solve the problem by comparing size to an upper bound but I want a conditional that look for an exception. If an exception occur in conditinal, I want to exit. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class listTest{ public static void main(String[] args){ Stack<Integer> numbs=new Stack<Integer>(); numbs.push(1); numbs.push(2); for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& !numbs.isEmpty(); ){ System.out.println(j); } // I waited for 1 to be printed, not 2. } } Some Errors javac listTest.java listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^ listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^

    Read the article

  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

    Read the article

  • Java - How to declare table[i][j] elements as instance variables?

    - by JDelage
    All, I am trying to code a Connect4 game. For this, I have created a P4Game class and a P4Board class which represents the i X j dimensions of the Connect4 board. In P4Game, I have the following: public class P4Game{ //INSTANCE VARIABLES private int nbLines; private int nbColumns; private P4Board [][] position; //CONSTRUCTOR public P4Game(int nbLines, int nbColumns){ this.nbColumns = nbColumns; this.nbLines = nbLines; P4Board [][] position = new P4Board [nbLines][nbColumns]; //Creates the table to receive the instances of the P4Board object.*/ for (int i=0; i<nbLines; i++){ for (int j=0; j<nbColumns; j++){ this.position[i][j] = new P4Board(i,j); //Meant to create each object at (line=i, column=j) } } } This causes a NullPointerException in the nested loops where I mention this.position[i][j]. I reference those objects in other methods of this class so I need them to be instance variables. I suppose the exception is due to the fact that I have not listed the table element position[i][j] as an instance variable at the beginning of the class. my question to people here is (1) is my assumption correct, and if so (2) what would be the syntax to declare instance variables of this form? Thank you all for your help with what I realize is a very basic question. Hopefully it will also benefit other newbies. Cheers, JDelage

    Read the article

  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

    Read the article

  • Which technology should I use to pop up a simple form in my add-in DLL?

    - by Decker
    I'm building an assembly that runs as an "add-on" to a vendor's Outlook add-in. When it is time for me to execute my "action", I have to put up a simple window with a few simple controls. The vendor's add-in provides me with the parent window's integer handle. I am able to put up a form pretty easily with WinForms by adding are reference to System.Windows.Forms from my assembly and with the following code: FrmHistoryDisplay frm = new FrmHistoryDisplay(); frm.ShowDialog(new ParentWindowWrapper(_parentWindowHandle)); where ParentWindowWrapper is a shim class around the window handle I'm given private class ParentWindowWrapper : IWin32Window { private int _parentWindowHandle; public ParentWindowWrapper(int parentWindowHandle) { _parentWindowHandle = parentWindowHandle; } public IntPtr Handle { get { return new IntPtr(_parentWindowHandle); } } } The Form's ShowDialog method takes an IWin32Window implementor to wrap the parent's window handle. This all works and seems simple enough. I was just wondering whether something similar can be done with a WPF window rather than a WinForm Form? Should I care?

    Read the article

  • How to redirect page

    - by sharun
    Hi i created one java application in which i tried to open my company's standard login page and i planned to redirect the link to open my own design page. Standard login page is displayed, instead of going to my own design page as usual its going to mail page. After sign out the mail page i'm gettting my own design page. But my need is, when i sign in the standard login page it should diplay my own design page. Is it possible? Please Help me. And this is code that i followed import java.io.IOException; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import com.google.appengine.api.users.UserService; import com.google.appengine.api.users.UserServiceFactory; import com.google.appengine.api.users.User; public class New extends HttpServlet { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public void doPost(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { resp.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); resp.setContentType("text/html"); UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if (user != null) { if(user.getEmail().equals("[email protected]")) { resp.getWriter().println("done"); resp.sendRedirect("/login.jsp"); } else { resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()+"<br>"); resp.getWriter().println("Thanks for your interest. But this application is still not available to everybody."); resp.getWriter().println("<a href="+UserServiceFactory.getUserService().createLogoutURL(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI()))+">Log out</a>"); } } else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL("http://mail.yyy.edu.in")); } } } Thanks in advance Regards Sharun.

    Read the article

  • Create a Task list, with tasks without executing

    - by Ernesto Araya Eguren
    I have an async method private async Task DoSomething(CancellationToken token) a list of Tasks private List<Task> workers = new List<Task>(); and I have to create N threads that runs that method public void CreateThreads(int n) { tokenSource = new CancellationTokenSource(); token = tokenSource.Token; for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { workers.Add(DoSomething(token)); } } but the problem is that those have to run at a given time public async Task StartAllWorkers() { if (0 < workers.Count) { try { while (0 < workers.Count) { Task finishedWorker = await Task.WhenAny(workers.ToArray()); workers.Remove(finishedWorker); finishedWorker.Dispose(); } if (workers.Count == 0) { tokenSource = null; } } catch (OperationCanceledException) { throw; } } } but actually they run when i call the CreateThreads Method (before the StartAllWorkers). I searched for keywords and problems like mine but couldn't find anything about stopping the task from running. I've tried a lot of different aproaches but anything that could solve my problem entirely. For example, moving the code from DoSomething into a workers.Add(new Task(async () => { }, token)); would run the StartAllWorkers(), but the threads will never actually start. There is another method for calling the tokenSource.Cancel().

    Read the article

  • Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

    - by DDP
    Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

    Read the article

  • Jboss 6 Cluster Singleton Clustered

    - by DanC
    I am trying to set up a Jboss 6 in a clustered environment, and use it to host clustered stateful singleton EJBs. So far we succesfully installed a Singleton EJB within the cluster, where different entrypoints to our application (through a website deployed on each node) point to a single environment on which the EJB is hosted (thus mantaining the state of static variables). We achieved this using the following configuration: Bean interface: @Remote public interface IUniverse { ... } Bean implementation: @Clustered @Stateful public class Universe implements IUniverse { private static Vector<String> messages = new Vector<String>(); ... } jboss-beans.xml configuration: <deployment xmlns="urn:jboss:bean-deployer:2.0"> <!-- This bean is an example of a clustered singleton --> <bean name="Universe" class="Universe"> </bean> <bean name="UniverseController" class="org.jboss.ha.singleton.HASingletonController"> <property name="HAPartition"><inject bean="HAPartition"/></property> <property name="target"><inject bean="Universe"/></property> <property name="targetStartMethod">startSingleton</property> <property name="targetStopMethod">stopSingleton</property> </bean> </deployment> The main problem for this implementation is that, after the master node (the one that contains the state of the singleton EJB) shuts down gracefuly, the Singleton's state is lost and reset to default. Please note that everything was constructed following the JBoss 5 Clustering documents, as no JBoss 6 documents were found on this subject. Any information on how to solve this problem or where to find JBoss 6 documention on clustering is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • [C++] Multiple inclusion in multiple files

    - by Amumu
    Hi everyone, I am making a small game. In BattleRecord.h: #ifndef _CHARACTER_H_ #define _CHARACTER_H_ #include "Character.h" #endif class BattleRecord { public: Character Attacker; Character Defender; Status status; int DamageDealt; int GoldEarned; int ExpGained; }; In Character.h: #ifndef _EQUIPMENT_H_ #define _EQUIPMENT_H_ #include "Equipment.h" #endif class BattleRecord; class Character { BattleRecord AttackEnemy(Character &Enemy); } In BattleRecord.h: #ifndef _CHARACTER_H_ #define _CHARACTEr_H_ #include "Character.h" #endif #ifndef _BATLE_RECORD_H_ #define _BATLE_RECORD_H_ #include "BattleRecord.h" #endif class GUI { public: //GUI Methods, and two of these: void ViewStats(Character &Player); void Report(BattleRecord Record) } The problem here is, my Character.h and BattleRecord.h need to include each other, and this definitely will cause multiple redefinition problem. Therefore, I used forward declaration in Character.h by adding: class BattleRecord; The problem is sovled. But then, the GUI.h needs BattleRecord.h again for reporting the battle, so I have to include BattleRecord.h into the GUI.h. I also have to include the Character.h in order to pass into the ViewStat function. I got error and stuck with this up to this piont.

    Read the article

  • Weird camera Intent behavior

    - by David Erosa
    Hi all. I'm invoking the MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE intent with the MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT extra so that it does save the image to that file. On the onActivityResult I can check that the image is being saved in the intended file, which is correct. The weird thing is that anyhow, the image is also saved in a file named something like "/sdcard/Pictures/Camera/1298041488657.jpg" (epoch time in which the image was taken). I've checked the Camera app source (froyo-release branch) and I'm almost sure that the code path is correct and wouldn't have to save the image, but I'm a noob and I'm not completly sure. AFAIK, the image saving process starts with this callback (comments are mine): private final class JpegPictureCallback implements PictureCallback { ... public void onPictureTaken(...){ ... // This is where the image is passed back to the invoking activity. mImageCapture.storeImage(jpegData, camera, mLocation); ... public void storeImage(final byte[] data, android.hardware.Camera camera, Location loc) { if (!mIsImageCaptureIntent) { // Am i an intent? int degree = storeImage(data, loc); // THIS SHOULD NOT BE CALLED WITHIN THE CAPTURE INTENT!! ....... // An finally: private int storeImage(byte[] data, Location loc) { try { long dateTaken = System.currentTimeMillis(); String title = createName(dateTaken); String filename = title + ".jpg"; // Eureka, timestamp filename! ... So, I'm receiving the correct data, but it's also being saved in the "storeImage(data, loc);" method call, which should not be called... It'd not be a problem if I could get the newly created filename from the intent result data, but I can't. When I found this out, I found about 20 image files from my tests that I didn't know were on my sdcard :) I'm getting this behavior both with my Nexus One with Froyo and my Huawei U8110 with Eclair. Could please anyone enlight me? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

    - by Rudism
    I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

    Read the article

  • How do I iterate over a collection that is in an object passed as parameter in a jasper report?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have an object A that has as an instance variable a collection of object Bs. Example: public class A{ String name; List<B> myList; ... public List<B> getMyList(){ return myList; } ... } I want this object to be the only source of information the jasper report gets, since all the information the report need is in A. I am currently doing something like: A myObjectA = new A(...); InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Object> parameters = new HashMap<String, Object>(); parameters.put("objectA", myObjectA); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JRBeanCollectionDataSource(myObjectA.getMyList())); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); thereby passing "two" parameters, the objectA as a concrete parameter and the collection of object Bs that is in A as a bean data source. How do I iterate over the Bs in A by passing only A? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • how to handle onclick event of button inside popup window in android

    - by henna
    In my application i have a button initially on the screen and in onclick of the button ,popup window should open. In the popup window i have an imagebutton , now on click of this button i want to start an activity. The popup window opens but i dont understand how to handle the onclick of the imagebtn inside popup window. In main.xml i have a button and in popup_example.xml i have an imagebutton. Hi my Java code is as follows: final LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); final Button b=(Button)findViewById(R.id.btn); b.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { PopupWindow pw = new PopupWindow(inflater.inflate(R.layout.popup_example,(ViewGroup)findViewById(R.layout.main))); pw.showAtLocation(v, Gravity.LEFT,0,0); pw.update(8,-70,150,270); //if onclick written here, it gives null pointer exception. ImageButton img=(ImageButton)findViewById(R.id.home); img.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent..... } }); //if onclick is written here it gives runtime exception. }); and i have two xml layouts.........1)main.xml 2)popup_example.xml main.xml popup_example.xml <ImageButton android:id="@+id/home" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:focusable="true" android:src="@drawable/vitalss" android:layout_weight="1" android:background="#8E2323" />

    Read the article

  • Recursive Maze in Java

    - by Api
    I have written a short Java code for solving a simple maze problem to go from S to G. I do not understand where the problem is going wrong. import java.util.Scanner; public class tester { static char [][] grid={ {'.','.'}, {'.','.'}, {'S','G'}, }; static int a=2; static int b=2; static boolean findpath(int x, int y) { if((x > grid.length-1) || (y > grid[0].length-1) || (x < 0 || y < 0)) { return false; } else if(x==a && y==b){ return true; } else if (findpath(x,y-1) == true){ return true; } else if (findpath(x+1,y) == true){ return true; } else if (findpath(x,y+1) == true) { return true; } else if (findpath(x-1,y) == true){ return true; } return false; } public static void main(String[] args){ boolean result=findpath(2,0); System.out.print(result); } } I am giving the starting position directly and goal is defined in a & b. Do help.

    Read the article

  • Seperation of business logic

    - by bruno
    Dear all, When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and seperate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other soluition, is just to seperate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So i'm asking for your oppinions. Thx, Bruno

    Read the article

  • EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

    - by ashraf
    I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770  | Next Page >