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  • Recursive Iterators

    - by soandos
    I am having some trouble making an iterator that can traverse the following type of data structure. I have a class called Expression, which has one data member, a List<object>. This list can have any number of children, and some of those children might be other Expression objects. I want to traverse this structure, and print out every non-list object (but I do want to print out the elements of the list of course), but before entering a list, I want to return "begin nest" and after I just exited a list, I want to return "end nest". I was able to do this if I ignored the class wherever possible, and just had List<object> objects with List<object> items if I wanted a subExpression, but I would rather do away with this, and instead have an Expressions as the sublists (it would make it easier to do operations on the object. I am aware that I could use extension methods on the List<object> but it would not be appropriate (who wants an Evaluate method on their list that takes no arguments?). The code that I used to generate the origonal iterator (that works) is: public IEnumerator GetEnumerator(){ return theIterator(expr).GetEnumerator(); } private IEnumerable theIterator(object root) { if ((root is List<object>)){ yield return " begin nest "; foreach (var item in (List<object>)root){ foreach (var item2 in theIterator(item)){ yield return item2; } } yield return " end nest "; } else yield return root; } A type swap of List<object> for expression did not work, and lead to a stackOverflow error. How should the iterator be implemented? Update: Here is the swapped code: public IEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return this.GetEnumerator(); } private IEnumerable theIterator(object root) { if ((root is Expression)) { yield return " begin nest "; foreach (var item in (Expression)root) { foreach (var item2 in theIterator(item)) yield return item2; } yield return " end nest "; } else yield return root; }

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • WCF REST adding data using POST or PUT 400 Bad Request

    - by user55474
    HI How do i add data using wcf rest architecture. I dont want to use the channelfactory to call my method. Something similar to the webrequest and webresponse used for GET. Something similar to the ajax WebServiceProxy restInvoke Or do i always have to use the Webchannelfactory implementation I am getting a 400 BAD request by using the following Dim url As String = "http://localhost:4475/Service.svc/Entity/Add" Dim req As WebRequest = WebRequest.Create(url) req.Method = "POST" req.ContentType = "application/xml; charset=utf-8" req.Timeout = 30000 req.Headers.Add("SOAPAction", url) Dim xEle As XElement xEle = <Entity xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <Name>Entity1</Name> </Entity> Dim sXML As String = xEle .Value req.ContentLength = sXML.Length Dim sw As New System.IO.StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream()) sw.Write(sXML) sw.Close() Dim res as HttpWebResponse = req.GetResponse() Sercice Contract is as follows <OperationContract()> _ <WebInvoke(Method:="PUT", UriTemplate:="Entity/Add")> _ Function AddEntity(ByVal e1 As Entity) DataContract is as follows <Serializable()> _ <DataContract()> _ Public Class Entity private m_Name as String <DataMember()> _ Public Property Name() As String Get Return m_Name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) m_Name = value End Set End Property End Class thanks

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  • Adding an ASP.NET Web User Control to a Control Dynamically

    - by RandomBen
    I have a simple ASP.NET Web User Control. It looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="NewsArticle.ascx.cs" Inherits="Website.Controls.NewsArticle" %> <div> <asp:Literal ID="ltlBody" runat="server" /> </div> My code behind looks like this: namespace Website.Controls { public partial class NewsArticle : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public String bodyText { //get { return ltlBody.Text; } set { ltlBody.Text = value; } } } } On a .aspx page I have <asp:Panel ID="pNews" runat="server" /> In the code behind I have: foreach (vwNews news in newsQuery) { NewsArticle article = new NewsArticle(); aticle.bodyText = news.Body; pNews.Controls.Add(article); } Every time I run this code the newsQuery is populated correctly and I get to the line aticle.bodyText = news.Body; and then I received the error article.bodyText threw an exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' I am not sure what is causing this error message or how to fix it. I would think that there should not be an issue. I tried creating a constructor for my Web User Control so that it would give default values to my properties but that didn't work. Any idea how to make this work? It doesn't seem like it should be that

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  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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  • how to lucene serch in android

    - by xyz Sad
    Lucen with android logic ..??? public class TestAndroidLuceneActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); try { Directory directory = new RAMDirectory(); Analyzer analyzer = new StandardAnalyzer(); Document doc = new Document(); doc.add(new Field("header", "ABC", Field.Store.YES,Field.Index.TOKENIZED)); indexWriter.addDocument(doc); doc.add(new Field("header", "DEF", Field.Store.YES,Field.Index.TOKENIZED)); indexWriter.addDocument(doc); doc.add(new Field("header", "GHI", Field.Store.YES,Field.Index.TOKENIZED)); indexWriter.addDocument(doc); doc.add(new Field("header", "JKL", Field.Store.YES,Field.Index.TOKENIZED)); indexWriter.addDocument(doc); indexWriter.optimize(); indexWriter.close(); IndexSearcher indexSearcher = new IndexSearcher(directory); QueryParser parser = new QueryParser("header", analyzer); // Query query = parser.parse("(" + "Anil" + ")"); Query query = parser.parse("(" + "ABC" + ")"); Hits hits = indexSearcher.search(query); for (int i = 0; i < hits.length(); i++) { Document hitDoc = hits.doc(i); Log.i("TestAndroidLuceneActivity", "Lucene: " +hitDoc.get("header")); // Toast.makeText(this, hitDoc.get("header"),Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } indexSearcher.close(); directory.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex.getMessage()); } } } i have this code but i m not able to understnd plz send me related or modifed and set it main.xml show me some out put plzz..its does not serch after "ABC" plz tell me wat is the problem in logic any thing missing???..

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  • Jboss 6 Cluster Singleton Clustered

    - by DanC
    I am trying to set up a Jboss 6 in a clustered environment, and use it to host clustered stateful singleton EJBs. So far we succesfully installed a Singleton EJB within the cluster, where different entrypoints to our application (through a website deployed on each node) point to a single environment on which the EJB is hosted (thus mantaining the state of static variables). We achieved this using the following configuration: Bean interface: @Remote public interface IUniverse { ... } Bean implementation: @Clustered @Stateful public class Universe implements IUniverse { private static Vector<String> messages = new Vector<String>(); ... } jboss-beans.xml configuration: <deployment xmlns="urn:jboss:bean-deployer:2.0"> <!-- This bean is an example of a clustered singleton --> <bean name="Universe" class="Universe"> </bean> <bean name="UniverseController" class="org.jboss.ha.singleton.HASingletonController"> <property name="HAPartition"><inject bean="HAPartition"/></property> <property name="target"><inject bean="Universe"/></property> <property name="targetStartMethod">startSingleton</property> <property name="targetStopMethod">stopSingleton</property> </bean> </deployment> The main problem for this implementation is that, after the master node (the one that contains the state of the singleton EJB) shuts down gracefuly, the Singleton's state is lost and reset to default. Please note that everything was constructed following the JBoss 5 Clustering documents, as no JBoss 6 documents were found on this subject. Any information on how to solve this problem or where to find JBoss 6 documention on clustering is appreciated.

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  • jquery load returns empty, possible MVC 2 problem?

    - by Max Fraser
    I have a site that need to get some data from a different sit that is using asp.net MVC/ The data to get loaded is from these pages: http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations http://charity.hondaclassic.com/Home/CharityList This should be a no brainer but for some reason I get an empty response, here is my JS: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($){ $('.totalDonations').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations'); $('#charityList').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/CharityList'); }); </script> in firebug I see the request is made and come back with a response of 200 OK but the response is empty, if you browse to these pages they work fine! What the heck? Here are the controller actions from the MVC site: public ActionResult TotalDonations() { var total = "$" + repo.All<Customer>().Sum(x => x.AmountPaid).ToString(); return Content(total); } public ActionResult CharityList() { var charities = repo.All<Company>(); return View(charities); } Someone please out what stupid little thing I am missing - this should have taken me 5 minutes and it's been hours!

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • C++: calling non-member functions with the same syntax of member ones

    - by peoro
    One thing I'd like to do in C++ is to call non-member functions with the same syntax you call member functions: class A { }; void f( A & this ) { /* ... */ } // ... A a; a.f(); // this is the same as f(a); Of course this could only work as long as f is not virtual (since it cannot appear in A's virtual table. f doesn't need to access A's non-public members. f doesn't conflict with a function declared in A (A::f). I'd like such a syntax because in my opinion it would be quite comfortable and would push good habits: calling str.strip() on a std::string (where strip is a function defined by the user) would sound a lot better than calling strip( str );. most of the times (always?) classes provide some member functions which don't require to be member (ie: are not virtual and don't use non-public members). This breaks encapsulation, but is the most practical thing to do (due to point 1). My question here is: what do you think of such feature? Do you think it would be something nice, or something that would introduce more issues than the ones it aims to solve? Could it make sense to propose such a feature to the next standard (the one after C++0x)? Of course this is just a brief description of this idea; it is not complete; we'd probably need to explicitly mark a function with a special keyword to let it work like this and many other stuff.

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  • ContentNegotiatingViewResolver Issue

    - by Jay
    How to map a url of this kind "/myapp/sample" to map to the default MarshallingView instead of a JSTLView. @RequestMapping("/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } The above code works fine. When i tried to use http://.../vets.xml, I was able to download the xml. But, @RequestMapping("/myapp/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } doesn't resolve to the XML MarshalView, instead it resolves to JSTLView. Any thoughts? below is the spring v 3 configuration from the petclinic example, that i'm using. <bean id="vets" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <bean id="test" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <oxm:jaxb2-marshaller id="marshaller"> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Vets"/> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Test1"/> </oxm:jaxb2-marshaller>

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • Java object graph -> xml when direction of object association needs to be reversed.

    - by Sigmoidal
    An application I have been working on has objects with a relationship similar to below. In the real application both objects are JPA entities. class Underlying{} class Thing { private Underlying underlying; public Underlying getUnderlying() { return underlying; } public void setUnderlying(final Underlying underlying) { this.underlying = underlying; } } There is a requirement in the application to create xml of the form: <template> <underlying> <thing/> <thing/> <thing/> </underlying> </template> So we have a situation where the object graph expresses the relationship between Thing and Underlying in the opposite direction to how it's expressed in the xml. I expect to use JAXB to create the xml but ideally I don't want to have to create a new object hierarchy to reflect the associations in the xml. Is there any way to create xml of the form required from the entities in their current form (through the use of xml annotations or something)? I don't have any experience using JAXB but from the limited research I've done it doesn't seem like it's possible to reverse the direction of association in any straightforward way. Any help/advice would be greatly appreciated. One other option that has been suggested is to use XLST to transform the xml into the correct format. I have done no research on this topic as yet but I'll add to the question when I have some more info. Thanks, Matt.

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  • C# iterator is executed twice when composing two IEnumerable methods

    - by achristoph
    I just started learning about C# iterator but got confused with the flow of the program after reading the output of the program. The foreach with uniqueVals seems to be executed twice. My understanding is that the first few lines up to the line before "Nums in Square: 3" should not be there. Can anyone help to explain why this happens? The output is: Unique: 1 Adding to uniqueVals: 1 Unique: 2 Adding to uniqueVals: 2 Unique: 2 Unique: 3 Adding to uniqueVals: 3 Nums in Square: 3 Unique: 1 Adding to uniqueVals: 1 Square: 1 Number returned from Unique: 1 Unique: 2 Adding to uniqueVals: 2 Square: 2 Number returned from Unique: 4 Unique: 2 Unique: 3 Adding to uniqueVals: 3 Square: 3 Number returned from Unique: 9 static class Program { public static IEnumerable<T> Unique<T>(IEnumerable<T> sequence) { Dictionary<T, T> uniqueVals = new Dictionary<T, T>(); foreach (T item in sequence) { Console.WriteLine("Unique: {0}", item); if (!uniqueVals.ContainsKey(item)) { Console.WriteLine("Adding to uniqueVals: {0}", item); uniqueVals.Add(item, item); yield return item; Console.WriteLine("After Unique yield: {0}", item); } } } public static IEnumerable<int> Square(IEnumerable<int> nums) { Console.WriteLine("Nums in Square: {0}", nums.Count()); foreach (int num in nums) { Console.WriteLine("Square: {0}", num); yield return num * num; Console.WriteLine("After Square yield: {0}", num); } } static void Main(string[] args) { var nums = new int[] { 1, 2, 2, 3 }; foreach (int num in Square(Unique(nums))) Console.WriteLine("Number returned from Unique: {0}", num); Console.Read(); } }

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  • Get more error information from unhandled error

    - by Andrew Simpson
    I am using C# in a desktop application. I am calling a DLL written in C that I do not have the source code for. Whenever I call this DLL I get an untrapped error which I trap in an UnhandledException event/delegate. The error is : object reference not set to an instance of an object But the stack trace is empty. When I Googled this the info back was that the error was being hanlded eleswhere and then rethrown. But this can only be in the DLL I do not have the source code for. So, is there anyway I can get more info about this error? This is my code... in program.cs... AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); static void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { try { Exception _ex = (Exception)e.ExceptionObject; //the stact trace property is empty here.. } finally { Application.Exit(); } } My DLL... [DllImport("AutoSearchDevice.dll", EntryPoint = "Start", ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern int Start(int ASD_HANDLE); An I call it like so: public static void AutoSearchStart() { try { Start(m_pASD); } catch (Exception ex) { } }

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  • DuplicateKeyException in LINQ, but I've set auto increment and auto sync

    - by Fritos
    I'm getting a DuplicateKeyException error in my C# code. I've set Auto Generated = true, and Auto-Sync = OnInsert in my dbml. I'm not even touching the PK field in any manually written code (as seen below [My primary key field is actually called PK]). using (DeviceExerciseDataDataContext context = new DeviceExerciseDataDataContext()) { foreach(Data tgudData in data.Data) { tgd = new tableData(); tgd.FK = key; tgd.Time = tgudData.TimeStamp; tgd.Calories = Convert.ToInt32(tgudData.Calories); tgd.HeartRate = tgudData.AvgHr; tgd.BenchAngle = tgudData.Angle; tgd.WorkoutTarget = 0; tgd.Reps = tgudData.Reps; context.tableDatas.InsertOnSubmit(tgd); } context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code for the column in the designer (columns are named PK and FK) [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_PK", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="Int NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int PK { get { return this._PK; } set { if ((this._PK != value)) { this.OnPKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._PK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("PK"); this.OnPKChanged(); } } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_FK", DbType="Int")] public System.Nullable<int> FK { get { return this._FK; } set { if ((this._FK != value)) { this.OnFKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._FK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("FK"); this.OnFKChanged(); } } }

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  • Unit Testing Private Method in Resource Managing Class (C++)

    - by BillyONeal
    I previously asked this question under another name but deleted it because I didn't explain it very well. Let's say I have a class which manages a file. Let's say that this class treats the file as having a specific file format, and contains methods to perform operations on this file: class Foo { std::wstring fileName_; public: Foo(const std::wstring& fileName) : fileName_(fileName) { //Construct a Foo here. }; int getChecksum() { //Open the file and read some part of it //Long method to figure out what checksum it is. //Return the checksum. } }; Let's say I'd like to be able to unit test the part of this class that calculates the checksum. Unit testing the parts of the class that load in the file and such is impractical, because to test every part of the getChecksum() method I might need to construct 40 or 50 files! Now lets say I'd like to reuse the checksum method elsewhere in the class. I extract the method so that it now looks like this: class Foo { std::wstring fileName_; static int calculateChecksum(const std::vector<unsigned char> &fileBytes) { //Long method to figure out what checksum it is. } public: Foo(const std::wstring& fileName) : fileName_(fileName) { //Construct a Foo here. }; int getChecksum() { //Open the file and read some part of it return calculateChecksum( something ); } void modifyThisFileSomehow() { //Perform modification int newChecksum = calculateChecksum( something ); //Apply the newChecksum to the file } }; Now I'd like to unit test the calculateChecksum() method because it's easy to test and complicated, and I don't care about unit testing getChecksum() because it's simple and very difficult to test. But I can't test calculateChecksum() directly because it is private. Does anyone know of a solution to this problem?

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  • Unity 1.2 Dependency injection of internal types

    - by qvin
    I have a facade in a library that exposes some complex functionality through a simple interface. My question is how do I do dependency injection for the internal types used in the facade. Let's say my C# library code looks like - public class XYZfacade:IFacade { [Dependency] internal IType1 type1 { get; set; } [Dependency] internal IType2 type2 { get; set; } public string SomeFunction() { return type1.someString(); } } internal class TypeA { .... } internal class TypeB { .... } And my website code is like - IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<IType1, TypeA>(); container.RegisterType<IType2, TypeB>(); container.RegisterType<IFacade, XYZFacade>(); ... ... IFacade facade = container.Resolve<IFacade>(); Here facade.SomeFunction() throws an exception because facade.type1 and facade.type2 are null. Any help is appreciated.

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  • why is a minus sign prepended to my biginteger?

    - by kyrogue
    package ewa; import java.io.UnsupportedEncodingException; import java.security.MessageDigest; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.math.BigInteger; /** * * @author Lotus */ public class md5Hash { public static void main(String[] args) throws NoSuchAlgorithmException { String test = "abc"; MessageDigest md = MessageDigest.getInstance("MD5"); try { md.update(test.getBytes("UTF-8")); byte[] result = md.digest(); BigInteger bi = new BigInteger(result); String hex = bi.toString(16); System.out.println("Pringting result"); System.out.println(hex); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException ex) { Logger.getLogger(md5Hash.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } i am testing conversion of byte to hex and when done, the end result has a minus sign on the beginning of the string, why does this happen? i have read the docs and it says it will add a minus sign, however i do not understand it. And will the minus sign affect the hash result? because i am going to implement it to hash password stored on my database

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • EJB and JPA and @OneToMany - Transaction too long?

    - by marioErr
    Hello. I'm using EJB and JPA, and when I try to access PhoneNumber objects in phoneNumbers attribute of Contact contact, it sometimes take several minutes for it to actually return data. It just returns no phoneNumbers, not even null, and then, after some time, when i call it again, it magically appears. This is how I access data: for (Contact c : contactFacade.findAll()) { System.out.print(c.getName()+" "+c.getSurname()+" : "); for (PhoneNumber pn : c.getPhoneNumbers()) { System.out.print(pn.getNumber()+" ("+pn.getDescription()+"); "); } } I'm using facade session ejb generated by netbeans (basic CRUD methods). It always prints correct name and surname, phonenumbers and description are only printed after some time (it varies) from creating it via facade. I'm guessing it has something to do with transactions. How to solve this? These are my JPA entities: contact @Entity public class Contact implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; private String name; private String surname; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.REMOVE, mappedBy = "contact") private Collection<PhoneNumber> phoneNumbers = new ArrayList<PhoneNumber>(); phonenumber @Entity public class PhoneNumber implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; private String number; private String description; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name="CONTACT_ID") private Contact contact;

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  • java gregorian calendar timer

    - by Ieyasu Sawada
    I have this java program which calculates the time that the person took to respond to the confirm dialog box. But it seems that both time1 and time 2 gets the same value. What have I done wrong here: import javax.swing.JOptionPane; import java.util.*; public class DialogTimer{ public static void main(String args[]){ int time1, time2, milli1, milli2, sec1, sec2, timeDifference; final int MILLISECSINSECOND =1000; JOptionPane.showConfirmDialog(null, "Is stealing ever justified? "); GregorianCalendar before=new GregorianCalendar(); GregorianCalendar after= new GregorianCalendar(); milli1=before.get(GregorianCalendar.MILLISECOND); milli2=after.get(GregorianCalendar.MILLISECOND); sec1=before.get(GregorianCalendar.SECOND); sec2=after.get(GregorianCalendar.SECOND); time1=MILLISECSINSECOND * sec1 + milli1; time2=MILLISECSINSECOND * sec2 + milli2; //timeDifference=time1 - time2; System.out.println(time1); System.out.println(time2); //JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "It took " + (time1 - time2) + " milliseconds for you to answer"); } }

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  • What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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  • Why SetMinimumSize sets the minimal heights but not width?

    - by Roman
    Here is my code: import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; public class PanelModel { public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Colored Trails"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(); mainPanel.setLayout(new BoxLayout(mainPanel, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); JPanel firstPanel = new JPanel(); firstPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(4, 4)); firstPanel.setMaximumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); firstPanel.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(4*100, 4*100)); JButton btn; for (int i=1; i<=4; i++) { for (int j=1; j<=4; j++) { btn = new JButton(); btn.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(100, 100)); firstPanel.add(btn); } } mainPanel.add(firstPanel); frame.add(mainPanel); frame.setSize(520,600); //frame.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(520,600)); frame.setVisible(true); } } When I increase the size of the window (by mouse) I see that my panel does not increase its size. It is the expected behavior (because I set the maximal size of the panel). However, when I decrease the size of the window, I see that width of the panel is decreased too (while the height is constant). So, the setMinimumSize works only partially. Why is that?

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