Search Results

Search found 21301 results on 853 pages for 'duplicate values'.

Page 764/853 | < Previous Page | 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770 771  | Next Page >

• PHP Saving information to MySQL but not using hard coded code

  - by Homer_J

  Hi guys, Thanks everyone for assisting me but know I'm well and truely stuck...hopefully someone can advise? My current code that saves to a MySQL database: $q1 = $_POST["q1"]; $q2 = $_POST["q2"]; $q3 = $_POST["q3"]; $q4 = $_POST["q4"]; $q5 = $_POST["q5"]; $q6 = $_POST["q6"]; $q7 = $_POST["q7"]; $q8 = $_POST["q8"]; $proc = mysqli_prepare($link, "INSERT INTO tresults_bh_main (respondent_id, ip, browser, q1, q2, q3, q4, q5, q6, q7, q8) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?);"); mysqli_stmt_bind_param($proc, "issiiiiiiii", $respondent_id, $ip, $browser, $q1, $q2, $q3, $q4, $q5, $q6, $q7, $q8); At the moment this is all hard coded and I need it to use variables: I have an array which stores the following information: $qs['questions'] - stores, for example q1, q2, q3, q4 etc - obviously these change both in terms of of numbers, ie. q10, q11, q12 and also the amount in the array - so there could be 4 q's or 10 q's stored in the array. What I struggling to get my head around is how I would set-up this hard coded page to work with my variables. If anyone can help, much appreciated. Homer.

  Read the article

• If I use a facade class with generic methods to access the JPA API, how should I provide additional processing for specific types?

  - by Shaun

  Let's say I'm making a fairly simple web application using JAVA EE specs (I've heard this is possible). In this app, I only have about 10 domain/data objects, and these are represented by JPA Entities. Architecturally, I would consider the JPA API to perform the role of a DAO. Of course, I don't want to use the EntityManager directly in my UI (JSF) and I need to manage transactions, so I delegate these tasks to the so-called service layer. More specifically, I would like to be able to handle these tasks in a single DataService class (often also called CrudService) with generic methods. See this article by Adam Bien for an example interface: http://www.adam-bien.com/roller/abien/entry/generic_crud_service_aka_dao My project differs from that article in that I can't use EJBs, so my service classes are essentially just named beans and I handle transactions manually. Regardless, what I want is a single interface for simple CRUD operations on my data objects because having a different class for each data type would lead to a lot of duplicate and/or unnecessary code. Ideally, my views would be able to use a method such as public <T> List<T> findAll(Class<T> type) { ... } to retrieve data. Using JSF, it might look something like this: <h:dataTable value="#{dataService.findAll(data.class)}" var="d"> ... </h:dataTable> Similarly, after validating forms, my controller could submit the data with a method such as: public <T> void add(T entity) { ... } Granted, you'd probably actually want to return something useful to the caller. In any case, this works well if your data can be treated as homogenous in this manner. Alas, it breaks down when you need to perform additional processing on certain objects before passing them on to JPA. For example, let's say I'm dealing with Books and Authors which have a many-to-many relationship. Each Book has a set of IDs referring to its authors, and each Author has a set of IDs referring to their books. Normally, JPA can manage this kind of relationship for you, but in some cases it can't (for example, the google app engine JPA provider doesn't support this). Thus, when I persist a new book for example, I may need to update the corresponding author entities. My question, then, is if there's an elegant way to handle this or if I should reconsider the sanity of my whole design. Here's a couple ways I see of dealing with it: The instanceof operator. I could use this to target certain classes when special processing is needed. Perhaps maintainability suffers and it isn't beautiful code, but if there's only 10 or so domain objects it can't be all that bad... could it? Make a different service for each entity type (ie, BookService and AuthorService). All services would inherit from a generic DataService base class and override methods if special processing is needed. At this point, you could probably also just call them DAOs instead. As always, I appreciate the help. Let me know if any clarifications are needed, as I left out many smaller details.

  Read the article

• CakePHP - Paginating an Array

  - by Ashok

  Cake handles pagination of a model with a simple $this-paginate(), but what should I use if I want to paginate a array of values? The Scenario is like this: $this->set('sitepages', $this->paginate()); This code in my index() returns an array like Array ( [0] => Array ( [Sitepage] => Array ( [id] => 13 [name] => Home [urlslug] => home [parent_id] => 1 [page_title] => Welcome to KIAMS, Pune [order] => 1 ) ) [1] => Array ( [Sitepage] => Array ( [id] => 26 [name] => About Us [urlslug] => aboutus [parent_id] => 1 [page_title] => [order] => 2 ) ) [2] => Array ( [Sitepage] => Array ( [id] => 27 [name] => Overview of KIAMS [urlslug] => aboutus/overview [parent_id] => 26 [page_title] => [order] => 2 ) ) I retrieved the same data using $this-Sitepage-find('all') and then performed some manipulations as required and form a array which is very similar to the above one, but the ordering gets changed. I want to paginate this new array and pass it to the view. I tried $this->set('sitepages',$this->paginate($newarray)) But the data is not getting paginated. Can some one please help with paginating the $newarray in CakePHP?

  Read the article

• JSF: Using same jsp page for different outcomes

  - by ComputerPilot

  Would it be possible to use a navigation-case as shown below with the same view-id but different from-outcomes? In the managed bean, I wanted to compare the from-outcome values and decide on the group panel that I would display on the page. How can I get the from-outcome value in my managed bean? <navigation-case> <from-outcome>modifyphone</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/modifytelephone.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>confirmmodifyphone</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/modifytelephone.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>submitmodifyphone</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/modifytelephone.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case>

  Read the article

• Pass command line arguments to JUnit test case being run programmatically

  - by __nv__

  I am attempting to run a JUnit Test from a Java Class with: JUnitCore core = new JUnitCore(); core.addListener(new RunListener()); core.run(classToRun); Problem is my JUnit test requires a database connection that is currently hardcoded in the JUnit test itself. What I am looking for is a way to run the JUnit test programmatically(above) but pass a database connection to it that I create in my Java Class that runs the test, and not hardcoded within the JUnit class. Basically something like JUnitCore core = new JUnitCore(); core.addListener(new RunListener()); core.addParameters(java.sql.Connection); core.run(classToRun); Then within the classToRun: @Test Public void Test1(Connection dbConnection){ Statement st = dbConnection.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = st.executeQuery("select total from dual"); rs.next(); String myTotal = rs.getString("TOTAL"); //btw my tests are selenium testcases:) selenium.isTextPresent(myTotal); } I know about The @Parameters, but it doesn't seem applicable here as it is more for running the same test case multiple times with differing values. I want all of my test cases to share a database connection that I pass in through a configuration file to my java client that then runs those test cases (also passed in through the configuration file). Is this possible? P.S. I understand this seems like an odd way of doing things.

  Read the article

• Best way to do client/server validation in ASP.NET in 2010?

  - by punkouter

  First there was the ASP.NET validators and we used them... Then some people on the team did things manually in javascript... Then a bunch of jquery validation libraries came out... Then MVC2 came out with attributes as validators.. I work with apps that have alot of forms with alot of various validation (Some fields needs to be compared with other values in a DB so a postball/ajax call is required) .. Right now I have a mess of ASP.NET custom validators and functions that calculate on the server side as well. Can I get some opinions on the best tool/combination to approach this job that can create the smallest/most elegant code? Pure server side solution? AJAX/Jquery? A certain plugin for jquery? For example, I have 2 dates.. I want to make sure that the 1st date is less than the 2nd date... Are there jquery validators that encapsulate this? My feeling is if I can get jquery plugins to handle half the more basic validation for my that could cut my code in half.

  Read the article

• In Lua, can I easily select the Nth result without custom functions?

  - by romkyns

  Suppose I am inserting a string into a table as follows: table.insert(tbl, mystring) and that mystring is generated by replacing all occurrences of "a" with "b" in input: mystring = string.gsub(input, "a", "b") The obvious way to combine the two into one statement doesn't work, because gsub returns two results: table.insert(tbl, string.gsub(input, "a", "b")) -- error! -- (second result of gsub is passed into table.insert) which, I suppose, is the price paid for supporting multiple return values. The question is, is there a standard, built-in way to select just the first return value? When I found select I thought that was exactly what it did, but alas, it actually selects all results from N onwards, and so doesn't help in this scenario. Now I know I can define my own select as follows: function select1(n, ...) return arg[n] end table.insert(tbl, select1(1, string.gsub(input, "a", "b"))) but this doesn't look right, since I'd expect a built-in way of doing this. So, am I missing some built-in construct? If not, do Lua developers tend to use a separate variable to extract the correct argument or write their own select1 functions?

  Read the article

• Pair equal operator overloading for inserting into set

  - by Petwoip

  I am trying to add a pair<int,int> to a set. If a pair shares the same two values as another in the set, it should not be inserted. Here's my non-working code: typedef std::pair<int, int> PairInt; template<> bool std::operator==(const PairInt& l, const PairInt& r) { return (l.first == r.first && l.second == r.second) || (l.first == r.second && l.second == r.first); } int main() { std::set<PairInt> intSet; intSet.insert(PairInt(1,3)); intSet.insert(PairInt(1,4)); intSet.insert(PairInt(1,4)); intSet.insert(PairInt(4,1)); } At the moment, the (4,1) pair gets added even though there is already a (1,4) pair. The final contents of the set are: (1 3) (1 4) (4 1) and I want it to be (1 3) (1 4) I've tried putting breakpoints in the overloaded method, but they never get reached. What have I done wrong?

  Read the article

• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

  Read the article

• PHP foreach help

  - by sea_1987

  Hello I have an array that looks like this, Array ( [cfi_title] => Mr [cfi_firstname] => Firstname [cfi_surname] => Lastname [cfi_email] => [email protected] [cfi_subscribe_promotional] => [cfi_tnc] => [friendsName] => Array ( [0] => Firstname 1 [1] => Firstname 2 [2] => Firstname 3 ) [friendsEmail] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => [email protected] [2] => [email protected] ) [submit_form] => Submit ) My dilema is I need to save the values from the friendsName and friendsEmail arrays into a database, I know I can loop through them but how can I send the matching data, for example I need to save [friendsName][0] and friendsEmail][0] on the same row of database? I know I need to use a foreach but I just cannot figure out the logic.

  Read the article

• What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

  - by hobodave

  Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

  Read the article

• What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

  - by beemaster

  Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

  Read the article

• What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

  - by tvanfosson

  On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

  Read the article

• ASP error 424 Object required

  - by jeff

  I've got a problem with the following code pasted below, the problem seems to be coming from the openastextstream this carries on from another question: Set str_text_stream = obj_file.OpenAsTextStream(ForReading, TristateUseDefault) response.Write "<table>" int_j = 0 int_x = 0 Err.number = 0 Do While Not str_text_stream.AtEndOfStream str_po_insert_sql = "INSERT into tbl_purchase_orders (purchase_order_number, purchase_order_vendor_number, purchase_order_vendor_name) " str_po_insert_sql = str_po_insert_sql & " VALUES (" str_line = str_text_stream.readline arr_line = Split(str_line, """,""", -1) if Ubound(arr_line) <> 2 then Response.write "<tr><td>The line " & str_line & " could not be imported.</td></tr>" int_x = 1 else int_y = Instr(arr_line(2), """,") - 1 str_field_0 = Replace(arr_line(0), """", "") str_field_0 = Replace(str_field_0, "'", "''") str_field_1 = Replace(arr_line(1), "'", "''") str_field_2 = Left(arr_line(2), int_y) str_field_2 = Replace(str_field_2, "'", "''") str_po_insert_sql = str_po_insert_sql & "'" & str_field_0 & "', '" & arr_line(1) & "', '" & str_field_2 & "')" rs_po_insert.Open str_po_insert_sql, dbConnection, 3 if Err.number <> 0 then Response.write "<tr><td>The line " & str_po_insert_sql & " was imported.</td></tr>" end if Err.number = 0 int_j = int_j + 1 end if loop data from test import: "4501366934","800002","Clancy Docwra Ltd",04/05/2010 00:00:00 "4501366935","800004","Clancy Docwra Ltd",04/05/2010 00:00:00 "4501366936","800004","Clancy Docwra Ltd",04/05/2010 00:00:00

  Read the article

• How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

  - by edbras

  How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

  Read the article

• Redundancy in doing sum()

  - by Abhi

  table1 - id, time_stamp, value This table consists of 10 id's. Each id would be having a value for each hour in a day. So for 1 day, there would be 240 records in this table. table2 - id Table2 consists of a dynamically changing subset of id's present in table1. At a particular instance, the intention is to get sum(value) from table1, considering id's only in table2, grouping by each hour in that day, giving the summarized values a rank and repeating this each day. the query is at this stage: select time_stamp, sum(value), rank() over (partition by trunc(time_stamp) order by sum(value) desc) rn from table1 where exists (select t2.id from table2 t2 where id=t2.id) and time_stamp >= to_date('05/04/2010 00','dd/mm/yyyy hh24') and time_stamp <= to_date('25/04/2010 23','dd/mm/yyyy hh24') group by time_stamp order by time_stamp asc If the query is correct, can this be made more efficient, considering that, table1 will actually consist of thousand's of id's instead of 10 ? EDIT: I am using sum(value) 2 times in the query, which I am not able to get a workaround such that the sum() is done only once. Pls help on this

  Read the article

• jQuery: Triggering a click on an img not working

  - by Twecs

  I'm testing in Chrome. I have a bunch of 'add item' icons on screen that the user can click in order to add that one item to the database. I also have a button at the botton of that list, which should add the whole list of items. It seems to me that the easiest way to do this is to trigger the 'click' event for all these icons (the reason I'm doing it via the icons is that items-specific values are stored as attributes of the div in which the icon resides). However, I can't get it to work: the event handlers for the individual icons work perfectly, and the event handler for the add-them-all button does give me an alert if I put that in. But if I add the I read some posts that suggest browsers don't allow you to trigger click events, so I added a 'hover' event listener to the icons to see if the problem is in the type of event I want to trigger. Answer: no, same story: the alert will work, but the trigger won't. I have placed the icon event listener in the code before the button event listener. What's going on? Twecs

  Read the article

• Calendar gets saved successfully.but edit event force close error

  - by Jast Vacaty

  I am trying to add calendar events with my applicatiom. Event gets saved successfully. However when i try to edit that event in Calendar. I get Force Close error. String calId = ""; Cursor userCursor =getContentResolver().query(Uri.parse(content://com.android.calendar/calendars),null, null, null, null); if(userCursor.getCount() > 0){ userCursor.moveToFirst(); calId = userCursor.getString(userCursor.getColumnIndex("_id")); } ContentValues event = new ContentValues(); event.put("title", "title"); event.put("description", "description"); event.put("eventLocation", "Event Location"); event.put("allDay", 0); event.put("hasAlarm",0); event.put("calendar_id",calId); Calendar mCalendar = Calendar.getInstance(); mCalendar.set(2012, 2, 27,7,00,00); long start = mCalendar.getTimeInMillis(); mCalendar.set(2012, 2, 27,8,00,00); long end = mCalendar.getTimeInMillis(); event.put("dtstart", start); event.put("dtend", end); Uri newEvent = Uri.parse(content://com.android.calendar/events); getContentResolver().insert(newEvent, event); ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); userCursor.close(); But when I change event.put("allDay", 0); to event.put("allDay", 1); Event gets saved successfully and gets edited successfully. How do I fix it? Using 2.3.5 device. Appreciate any help. thanks.

  Read the article

• How can I get the contents of my table with dynamic row adding?

  - by user359706

  how to retrieve from the server-side contained a table html constructed this way: <table id="myTable"> <tr> <th> <input type="text"> name </th> <th> <input type="text"> quantity </th> </tr> <tr> <th> <input id="name_1"> phone </th> <th> <input id="quantity_1"> 15 </th> </tr> <tr> <th> <input ="name_2"> id mp3 </th> <th> <input id="quantity_2"> 26 <</th> </tr> ... I can not make use of <asp:Table> ... because for technical reasons I did not find a solution following this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3003912/how-to-dynamic-adding-rows-into-asp-net-table How can retrieve the contents values of my table (dynamic) for each row. Rows will be added in client-side js Thank you.

  Read the article

• "Syntax error in INSERT INTO statement". Why?

  - by Kevin

  My code is below. I have a method where I pass in three parameters and they get written out to an MS Access database table. However, I keep getting a syntax error message. Can anyone tell me why? I got this example from the internet. private static void insertRecord(string day, int hour, int loadKW) { string connString = @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\LoadForecastDB.accdb"; OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(connString); string ins = @"INSERT INTO Forecasts (Day, Hour, Load) VALUES (?,?,?)"; OleDbCommand cmd = new OleDbCommand(ins, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add("@day", OleDbType.VarChar).Value = day; cmd.Parameters.Add("@hour", OleDbType.Integer).Value = hour; cmd.Parameters.Add("@load", OleDbType.Integer).Value = loadKW; conn.Open(); try { int count = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (OleDbException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } finally { conn.Close(); } }

  Read the article

• javascript accordion - tracking time question

  - by JohnMerlino

  Hey all, I was reading up on this javascript tutorial: http://www.switchonthecode.com/tutor...ccordion-menus Basically, it shows you how to create an accordion using pure javascript, not jquery. All made sense to me until the actual part of tracking the animation. He says "Because of all that, the first thing we do in the animation function is figure out how much time has passed since the last animation iteration." And then uses this code: Code: var elapsedTicks = curTick - lastTick; lastTick is equal to the value of when the function was called (Date().getTime()) and curTick is equal to the value when the function was received. I don't understand why we are subtracting one from the other right here. I can't imagine that there's any noticeable time difference between these two values. Or maybe I'm missing something. Is that animate() function only called once every time a menu title is clicked or is it called several times to create the incremental animation effect? setTimeout("animate(" + new Date().getTime() + "," + TimeToSlide + ",'" + openAccordion + "','" + nID + "')", 33); Thanks for any response.

  Read the article

• Waiting for thread to finish Python

  - by lunchtime

  Alright, here's my problem. I have a thread that creates another thread in a pool, applies async so I can work with the returned data, which is working GREAT. But I need the current thread to WAIT until the result is returned. Here is the simplified code, as the current script is over 300 lines. I'm sure i've included everything for you to make sense of what I'm attempting: from multiprocessing.pool import ThreadPool import threading pool = ThreadPool(processes=1) class MyStreamer(TwythonStreamer): #[...] def on_success(self, data): #### Everytime data comes in, this is called #[...] #<Pseudocode> if score >= limit if list exists: Do stuff elif list does not exist: #</Pseudocode> dic = [] dic.append([k1, v1]) did = dict(dic) async_result = pool.apply_async(self.list_step, args=(did)) return_val = async_result.get() slug = return_val[0] idd = return_val[1] #[...] def list_step(self, *args): ## CREATE LIST ## RETURN 2 VALUES class threadStream (threading.Thread): def __init__(self, auth): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.auth = auth def run(self): stream = MyStreamer(auth = auth[0], *auth[0]) stream.statuses.filter(track=auth[1]) t = threadStream(auth=AuthMe) t.start() I receive the results as intended, which is great, but how do I make it so this thread t waits for the async_result to come in?? My problem is everytime new data comes in, it seems that the ## CREATE LIST function is called multiple times if similar data comes in quickly enough. So I'm ending up with many lists of the same name when I have code in place to ensure that a list will never be created if the name already exists. So to reiterate: How do I make this thread wait on the function to complete before accepting new data / continuing. I don't think time.sleep() works because on_success is called when data enters the stream. I don't think Thread.Join() will work either since I have to use a ThreadPool.apply_async to receive the data I need. Is there a hack I can make in the MyStreamer class somehow? I'm kind of at a loss here. Am I over complicating things and can this be simplified to do what I want?

  Read the article

• Error in value of default parameter [Bug in Visual C++ 2008?]

  - by HellBoy

  I am facing following issue while trying to use template in my code I have some C++ code which i call from C functions. Problem is I am getting different values in the following code for statement 1 and 2. Type id : unsigned int statement 1 : 4 statement 2 : 1 C++ Code : template <typename T> void func(T* value, unsigned int len = sizeof(T)) { cout << "Type id : " << typeid(T).name() << endl; cout << "statement 1 " << sizeof(T) << endl; cout << "statement 2 " << len << endl; } template <typename T> void func1(T data) { T val = data; func(&val); } C Code : void test(void *ptr, unsigned int len) { switch(len) { case 1: func1(*(static_cast<uint32_t *>(ptr)) break; } } This happens only on windows. On Linux it works fine.

  Read the article

• How do I deal with different requests that map to the same response?

  - by daxim

  I'm designing a Web service. The request is idempotent, so I chose the GET method. The response is relatively expensive to calculate and not small, so I want to get caching (on the protocol level) right. (Don't worry about memoisation at my part, I have that already covered; my question here is actually also paying attention to the Web as a whole.) There's only one mandatory parameter and a number of optional parameter with default values if missing. For example, the following two map to the same representation of the response. (If this is a dumb way to go about it the interface, propose something better.) GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data HTTP/1.1 GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data;optional_parameter=default1;another_optional_parameter=default2;yet_another_optional_parameter=default3 HTTP/1.1 However, I imagine clients do not know this and would treat them separate and therefore waste cache storage. What should I do to avoid violating the golden rule of caching? Make up a canonical form, document it (e.g. all parameters are required after all and need to be sorted in a specific order) and return a client error unless the required form is met? Instead of an error, redirect permanently to the canonical form of a request? Or is it enough to not mind how the request looks like, and just respond with the same ETag for same responses?

  Read the article

• how to merge two ordered list of objects?

  - by bhavna raghuvanshi

  public class ListMerge { public static void main( String[] args) { Scanner input = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.println ("Input length of arraylist 1:"); int n = input.nextInt(); ArrayList x = new ArrayList(); ArrayList y = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { System.out.println ("Input x[ " + i +"] :" ); x.add(new Integer(i)); } System.out.println ("Input length of arraylist 2:"); int m = input.nextInt(); for (int i = 0; i < m; i++) { System.out.println ("Input y[ " + i +"] :" ); y.add(new Integer(i)); } List<Integer> all = new ArrayList<Integer>(); all.addAll(x); all.addAll(y); System.out.println(all); } } I did this but its not taking values from user. pls tell me why....

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770 771  | Next Page >