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  • Passing a paramter/object to a ruby unit/test before running it using TestRunner

    - by Nahir Khan
    I'm building a tool that automates a process then runs some tests on it's own results then goes to do some other stuff. In trying to clean up my code I have created a separate file that just has the test cases class. Now before I can run these tests, I have to pass the class a couple of parameters/objects before they can be run. Now the problem is that I can't seem to find a way to pass a parameter/object to the test class. Right now I am thinking to generate a Yaml file and read it in the test class but it feels "wrong" to use a temporary file for this. If anyone has a nicer solution that would be great! *********Edit******* Example Code of what I am doing right now: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'test/unit/ui/console/testrunner' require 'yaml' require 'TS_SampleTestSuite' automatingSomething() importantInfo = getImportantInfo() File.open('filename.yml', 'w') do |f| f.puts importantInfo.to_yaml end Test::Unit::UI::Console::TestRunner.run(TS_SampleTestSuite) Now in the example above TS_SampleTestSuite needs importantInfo, so the first "test case" is a method that just reads in the information from the Yaml file filname.yml. I hope that clears up some confusion.

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  • C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

    - by G. Stoynev
    For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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  • Atomic operations on several transactionless external systems

    - by simendsjo
    Say you have an application connecting 3 different external systems. You need to update something in all 3. In case of a failure, you need to roll back the operations. This is not a hard thing to implement, but say operation 3 fails, and when rolling back, the rollback for operation 1 fails! Now the first external system is in an invalid state... I'm thinking a possible solution is to shut down the application and forcing a manual fix of the external system, but then again... It might already have used this information (and perhaps that's why it failed), or we might not have sufficient access. Or it might not even be a good way to rollback the action! Are there some good ways of handling such cases? EDIT: Some application details.. It's a multi user web application. Most of the work is done with scheduled jobs (through Quartz.Net), so most operations is run in it's own thread. Some user actions should trigger jobs that update several systems though. The external systems are somewhat unstable. I Was thinking of changing the application to use the Command and Unit Of Work pattern

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  • Is there a term for this concept, and does it exist in a static-typed language?

    - by Strilanc
    Recently I started noticing a repetition in some of my code. Of course, once you notice a repetition, it becomes grating. Which is why I'm asking this question. The idea is this: sometimes you write different versions of the same class: a raw version, a locked version, a read-only facade version, etc. These are common things to do to a class, but the translations are highly mechanical. Surround all the methods with lock acquires/releases, etc. In a dynamic language, you could write a function which did this to an instance of a class (eg. iterate over all the functions, replacing them with a version which acquires/releases a lock.). I think a good term for what I mean is 'reflected class'. You create a transformation which takes a class, and returns a modified-in-a-desired-way class. Synchronization is the easiest case, but there are others: make a class immutable [wrap methods so they clone, mutate the clone, and include it in the result], make a class readonly [assuming you can identify mutating methods], make a class appear to work with type A instead of type B, etc. The important part is that, in theory, these transformations make sense at compile-time. Even though an ActorModel<T> has methods which change depending on T, they depend on T in a specific way knowable at compile-time (ActorModel<T> methods would return a future of the original result type). I'm just wondering if this has been implemented in a language, and what it's called.

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • Single log file for multiple webapps

    - by Ashish Aggarwal
    In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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  • Java - How to find the redirected url of a url?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am accessing web pages through java as follows: URLConnection con = url.openConnection(); But in some cases, a url redirects to another url. So I want to know the url to which the previous url redirected. Below are the header fields that I got as a response: null-->[HTTP/1.1 200 OK] Cache-control-->[public,max-age=3600] last-modified-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Transfer-Encoding-->[chunked] Date-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Vary-->[Accept-Encoding] Expires-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 14:45:35 GMT] Set-Cookie-->[cl_def_hp=copenhagen; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT, cl_def_lang=en; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT] Connection-->[close] Content-Type-->[text/html; charset=iso-8859-1;] Server-->[Apache] So at present, I am constructing the redirected url from the value of the Set-Cookie header field. In the above case, the redirected url is copenhagen.craigslist.org Is there any standard way through which I can determine which url the particular url is going to redirect. I know that when a url redirects to other url, the server sends an intermediate response containing a header field that tells the url which it is going to redirect but I am not receiving that intermediate response through the url.openConnection(); method.

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  • Silverlight Business Application template with WCF is throwing warning.

    - by Manoj
    Hi, I am using the Silvelight Business Application template. I wrote a function which uses Membership.getUserList function to return the user list. I tried exposing it as Service using WCF. But when I try to compile the client side code it throws a warning saying "Client Proxy Generation for user_authentication.Web.Service1 failed'. Why does it happen? The complete warning message is: Warning 4 Client proxy generation for service 'user_authentication.Web.Service1' failed: Generating metadata files... Warning: Unable to load a service with configName 'user_authentication.Web.Service1'. To export a service provide both the assembly containing the service type and an executable with configuration for this service. Details:Either none of the assemblies passed were executables with configuration files or none of the configuration files contained services with the config name 'user_authentication.Web.Service1'. Warning: No metadata files were generated. No service contracts were exported. To export a service, use the /serviceName option. To export data contracts, specify the /dataContractOnly option. This can sometimes occur in certain security contexts, such as when the assembly is loaded over a UNC network file share. If this is the case, try copying the assembly into a trusted environment and running it.

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  • Codeigniter/mySQL question. Checking if several inserts are possible before actual insertion.

    - by Ethan
    Hey SO, So I'm trying to perform a couple inserts at once that are kind of co-dependent on each other. Let's say I'm doing a dog rating website. Anyone can add a dog to my database, but in doing so they also need to add a preliminary rating of the dog. Other people can then rate the dog afterwards. The dogs to ratings is a many to one relationship: a dog has many ratings. This means for my preliminary add, since I have the person both rate and add the dog, I need to take the rating, and set a foreign key to the dog's primary key. As far as I know, this means I have to actually add the dog, then check what that new addition's primary key is, and then put that in my rating before insertion. Now suppose something were to go wrong with the rating's insert, be it a string that's too long, or something that I've overlooked somehow. If the rating's failed, the dog has already been inserted, but the rating has not. In this case, I'd like the dog to not have been added in the first place. Does this mean I have to write code that says "if the rating fails, do a remove for the dog," or is there a way to predict what the key will be for the dog should everything go as planned. Is there a way to say "hold that spot," and then if everything works, add it? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • Nullability (Regular Expressions)

    - by danportin
    In Brzozowski's "Derivatives of Regular Expressions" and elsewhere, the function d(R) returning ? if a R is nullable, and Ø otherwise, includes clauses such as the following: d(R1 + R2) = d(R1) + d(R2) d(R1 · R2) = d(R1) ? d(R2) Clearly, if both R1 and R2 are nullable then (R1 · R2) is nullable, and if either R1 or R2 is nullable then (R1 + R2) is nullable. It is unclear to me what the above clauses are supposed to mean, however. My first thought, mapping (+), (·), or the Boolean operations to regular sets is nonsensical, since in the base case, d(a) = Ø (for all a ? S) d(?) = ? d(Ø) = Ø and ? is not a set (nor is the return type of d, which is a regular expression). Furthermore, this mapping isn't indicated, and there is a separate notation for it. I understand nullability, but I'm lost on the definition of the sum, product, and Boolean operations in the definition of d: how are ? or Ø returned from d(R1) ? d(R2), for instance, in the definition off d(R1 · R2)?

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  • Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

    - by mafutrct
    I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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  • getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

    - by Roger Joys
    I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

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  • need help with mvc & routes

    - by geoff
    I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

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  • Is this a bug? Or is it a setting in ASP.NET 4 (or MVC 2)?

    - by John Gietzen
    I just recently started trying out T4MVC and I like the idea of eliminating magic strings. However, when trying to use it on my master page for my stylesheets, I get this: <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> rending like this: <link href="&lt;%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> Whereas these render correctly: <link href="<%: Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css") %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css + "" %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> It appears that, as long as I have double quotes inside of the code segment, it works. But when I put anything else in there, it escapes the leading "less than". Is this something I can turn off? Is this a bug? Edit: This does not happen for <script src="..." ... />, nor does it happen for <a href="...">. Edit 2: Minimal case: <link href="<%: string.Empty %>" /> vs <link href="<%: "" %>" />

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  • How to read a parameter passed to a facelet from a backing bean

    - by Antonio
    Hi, I've written a facelet, and a corresponding backing bean, that implements user management (addition, deletion and so on). I'd want to be able to perform some custom processing when, for instance, a new user is added. There is a "create" button in the facelet, whose click event is handled by its backing bean. At the end of the event handler, I'd want to be able to call a method of another backing bean, which is not known because ideally the facelet can be used in several pages, with different custom processing. I thought to implement this feature by providing to the facelet a backing bean name and a method name, like this: <myfacelet:subaccounts backingBean="myBackingBean" createListener="createListener" /> and at the end of the event handler call #{myBackingBean.createListener} someway. I'm using this method (along with some overloads) to obtain a MethodExpression: protected MethodExpression getMethodExpression(String beanName, String methodName, Class<?> expectedReturnType, Class<?>[] expectedParamTypes) { ExpressionFactory expressionFactory; MethodExpression method; ELContext elContext; String el; el = String.format("#{%s['%s']}", beanName, methodName); expressionFactory = getApplication().getExpressionFactory(); elContext = getFacesContext().getELContext(); method = expressionFactory.createMethodExpression(elContext, el, expectedReturnType, expectedParamTypes); return method; } and the click event handler should look like: public void saveSubaccountListener(ActionEvent event) { MethodExpression method; ... method = getMethodExpression( "backingBean", "createSubaccountListener", SubuserBean.class); if (method != null) method.invoke( getFacesContext().getELContext(), new Object[] { _editedSubuser }); } That works fine as long as I provide an existing bean name (myBackingBean), but if I use backingBean the invoke() doesn't work due to the following error: javax.el.PropertyNotFoundException: Target Unreachable, identifier 'backingBean' resolved to null Is there a way I can retrieve from the facelet backing bean the value of a parameter that has been passed to the facelet? In my case, the value of backingBean, which should be myBackingBean? I've searched for and tried different solutions, but with no luck yet.

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  • Whose fault is a NullReferenceException?

    - by stefan.at.wpf
    I'm currently working on a class which exposes an internal List through a property. The List shall and can be modified. The problem is, entries in the internal list could be set to null from outside the class. My code actually looks like this: class ClassWithList { List<object> _list = new List<object>(); // get accessor, which however returns the reference to the list, // therefore the list can be modified (this is intended) public List<object> Data { get { return _list; } } private void doSomeWorkWithTheList() { foreach(object obj in _list) // do some work with the objects in the list without checking for null. } } So now in the doSomeWorkWithTheList() I could always check whether the current list entry is null or I could just asume that the person using this class doesn't have the great idea to set entries to null. So finally the questions end up in: Whose fault is a NullReferenceException in this case? Is it the fault of the class developer not checking everything for null (which would make code generally - not only in this class - more complex) or is it the fault of the user of this class, as setting a List entry to null doesn't really make sense? I'd tend to generally not check values for null except in some really special cases. Is this a bad style or de facto standard / standard in praxis? I know there's probably no ultimate answer for this, I'm just missing enough experience for such thing and therefore wondering what other developers think about such cases and want to hear what's done in reality about checking null (or not).

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • JavaScript - Efficiently find all elements containing one of a large set of strings

    - by noah
    I have a set of strings and I need to find all all of the occurrences in an HTML document. Where the string occurs is important because I need to handle each case differently: String is all or part of an attribute. e.g., the string is foo: <input value="foo"> - Add class ATTR to the element. String is the full text of an element. e.g., <button>foo</button> - Add class TEXT to the element. String is inline in the text of an element. e.g., <p>I love foo</p> - Wrap the text in a span tag with class TEXT. Also, I need to match the longest string first. e.g., if I have foo and foobar, then <p>I love foobar</p> should become <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foobar</span></p>, not <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foo</span>bar</p>. The inline text is easy enough: Sort the strings descending by length and find and replace each in document.body.innerHTML with <span class="TEXT">$1</span>, although I'm not sure if that is the most efficient way to go. For the attributes, I can do something like this: sortedStrings.each(function(it) { document.body.innerHTML.replace(new RegExp('(\S+?)="[^"]*'+escapeRegExChars(it)+'[^"]*"','g'),function(s,attr) { $('[+attr+'*='+it+']').addClass('ATTR'); }); }); Again, that seems inefficient. Lastly, for the full text elements, a depth first search of the document that compares the innerHTML to each string will work, but for a large number of strings, it seems very inefficient. Any answer that offers performance improvements gets an upvote :)

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  • Javascript: How to test JSONP on localhost

    - by hqt
    Here is the way I test JSONP: I run XAMPP, and in folder htdocs I create a javascript folder . I create json1.json file contain some data to process. After that, I run this html file locally, and it will call a function in "other machine" (in this case is localhost) Here is my code : <head> <script> function updateSales(sales) { alert('test jsonp'); // real code here } </script> </head> <body> <h1>JSONP Example</h1> <script src="http://localhost:85/javascript/json1.json?callback=updateSales"></script> </body> But when I run, nothing happen. But if change to other real json on the internet, it will work. It means change line : <script src="http://localhost:85/javascript/json1.json?callback=updateSales"></script> to line: <script src="http://gumball.wickedlysmart.com/?callback=updateSales"></script> It will work smoothly. So, I don't know how to test JSONP by using localhost, please help me. Thanks :)

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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  • MS SQL - Multi-Column substring matching

    - by hamlin11
    One of my clients is hooked on multi-column substring matching. I understand that Contains and FreeText search for words (and at least in the case of Contains, word prefixes). However, based upon my understanding of this MSDN book, neither of these nor their variants are capable of searching substrings. I have used LIKE rather extensively (Select * from A where A.B Like '%substr%') Sample table A: ID | Col1 | Col2 | Col3 | ------------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma | colorado | Utah | 2 | arkansas | colorado | oklahoma | 3 | florida | michigan | florida | ------------------------------------- The following code will give us row 1 and row 2: select * from A where Col1 like '%klah%' or Col2 like '%klah%' or Col3 like '%klah%' This is rather ugly, probably slow, and I just don't like it very much. Probably because the implementations that I'm dealing with have 10+ columns that need searched. The following may be a slight improvement as code readability goes, but as far as performance, we're still in the same ball park. select * from A where (Col1 + ' ' + Col2 + ' ' + Col3) like '%klah%' I have thought about simply adding insert, update, and delete triggers that simply add the concatenated version of the above columns into a separate table that shadows this table. Sample Shadow_Table: ID | searchtext | --------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma colorado Utah | 2 | arkansas colorado oklahoma | 3 | florida michigan florida | --------------------------------- This would allow us to perform the following query to search for '%klah%' select * from Shadow_Table where searchtext like '%klah%' I really don't like having to remember that this shadow table exists and that I'm supposed to use it when I am performing multi-column substring matching, but it probably yields pretty quick reads at the expense of write and storage space. My gut feeling tells me there there is an existing solution built into SQL Server 2008. However, I don't seem to be able to find anything other than research papers on the subject. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How do you work around memcached's key/value limitations?

    - by mjy
    Memcached has length limitations for keys (250?) and values (roughtly 1MB), as well as some (to my knowledge) not very well defined character restrictions for keys. What is the best way to work around those in your opinion? I use the Perl API Cache::Memcached. What I do currently is store a special string for the main key's value if the original value was too big ("parts:<number") and in that case, I store <number parts with keys named 1+<main key, 2+<main key etc.. This seems "OK" (but messy) for some cases, not so good for others and it has the intrinsic problem that some of the parts might be missing at any time (so space is wasted for keeping the others and time is wasted reading them). As for the key limitations, one could probably implement hashing and store the full key (to work around collisions) in the value, but I haven't needed to do this yet. Has anyone come up with a more elegant way, or even a Perl API that handles arbitrary data sizes (and key values) transparently? Has anyone hacked the memcached server to support arbitrary keys/values?

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  • Read Cookies using Javascript

    - by Ajith
    I want to create a cookie using php,an also i need to read it using javascript.ie, by using setcookie('mycookie','hello',time()+34000) in php i am creating a cookie in my system.Now,i need to read it using javascript.Is it possible?If anybody knows please give me some idea.Please....help me.I am using javscript as follows ` function Get_Cookie( check_name ) { // first we'll split this cookie up into name/value pairs // note: document.cookie only returns name=value, not the other components var a_all_cookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); var a_temp_cookie = ''; var cookie_name = ''; var cookie_value = ''; var b_cookie_found = false; // set boolean t/f default f for ( i = 0; i < a_all_cookies.length; i++ ) { // now we'll split apart each name=value pair a_temp_cookie = a_all_cookies[i].split( '=' ); // and trim left/right whitespace while we're at it cookie_name = a_temp_cookie[0].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, ''); // if the extracted name matches passed check_name if ( cookie_name == check_name ) { b_cookie_found = true; // we need to handle case where cookie has no value but exists (no = sign, that is): if ( a_temp_cookie.length > 1 ) { cookie_value = unescape( a_temp_cookie[1].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, '') ); } // note that in cases where cookie is initialized but no value, null is returned return cookie_value; break; } a_temp_cookie = null; cookie_name = ''; } if ( !b_cookie_found ) { return null; } } if (Get_Cookie('__gsb')) { alert('Found'); } `

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  • ColdFusion Session issue - multiple users behind one proxy IP -- cftoken and cfid seems to be shared

    - by smoothoperator
    Hi Everyone, I have an application that uses coldfusion's session management (instead of the J2EE) session management. We have one client, who has recently switched their company's traffic to us to come viaa proxy server in their network. So, to our Coldfusion server, it appears that all traffic is coming from this one IP Address, for all of the accounts of this one company.. Of the session variables, Part 1 is kept in a cflock, and Part 2 is kept in editable session variables. I may be misundestanding, but we have done it this way as we modify some values as needed throughout the application's usage. We are now running into an issue of this client having their session variables mixed up (?). We have one case where we set a timestamp.. and when it comes time to look it up, it's empty. From the looks of it this is happening because of another user on the same token. My initial thoughts are to look into modifying our existing session management to somehow generate a unique cftoken/cfid, or to start using jsession_ID, if this solves the problem at all. I have done some basic research on this issue and couldn't find anything similar, so I thought I'd ask here. Thanks!

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