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  • ComDlg32.ocx Error: Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by abhilashca
    I'm developing an html editor using ComDlg32.ocx (Commom Dialog Control), using HTML and VBScript. My exact requirement was to prompt Open/Save/Color/Print/Font dialog boxes.Ive written code for prompting Save file dialog box. Also I've added a license file using LPK Tool onto my webpage. My html-source looks like: <body> <!-- lpk file --> <object classid="clsid:5220cb21-c88d-11cf-b347-00aa00a28331"> <param name="LPKPath" value="License/comdlg.lpk" /> </object> <!-- Microsoft Common Dialog Control --> <object classid="CLSID:F9043C85-F6F2-101A-A3C9-08002B2F49FB" codebase="http://activex.microsoft.com/controls/vb6/COMDLG32.CAB" id="objComDlg"></object> </body> Now, here comes my error. Whenever I try to call the vbscript for prompting the Save File dialog box, Im getting an error as : Object doesn't support this property or method: 'objComDlg.Filter' If I comment out the objComDlg.Filter then the error move on to objComDlg.DialogTitle and thus it goes on. And my VBScript look like: FILE_FORMATS = "Rich Text Format (*.rtf)|*.rtf|Microsoft Word (*.doc)|*.doc|ANSI Text Document (*.txt)|*.txt" objComDlg.Filter = FILE_FORMATS <--- Error shows here objComDlg.DialogTitle = "Save As " objComDlg.Flags = cdlOFNFileMustExist Or cdlOFNHideReadOnly objComDlg.CancelError = True objComDlg.ShowSave Does anyone have an idea why this is happening? Is there any proper documentation for using this particular ActiveX control? My current development is in stand-still due to this error. Any help will be appreciated. Looking forward for your response. BTW, I'm using Windows XP SP3 and IE8 for my development. Thanks.

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • ASP.net file operations delay

    - by mtranda
    Ok, so here's the problem: I'm reading the stream from a FileUpload control, reading in chunks of n bytes and writing the array in a loop until I reach the stream's end. Now the reason I do this is because I need to check several things while the upload is still going on (rather than doing a Save(); which does the whole thing in one go). Here's the problem: when doing this from the local machine, I can see the file just fine as it's uploading and its size increases (had to add a Sleep(); clause in the loop to actually get to see the file being written). However, when I upload the file from a remote machine, I don't get to see it until the the file has completed uploading. Also, I've added another call to write the progress to a text file as the progress is going on, and I get the same thing. Local: the file updates as the upload goes on, remote: the token file only appears after the upload's done (which is somewhat useless since I need it while the upload's still happening). Is there some sort of security setting in (or ASP.net) that maybe saves files in a temporary location for remote machines as opposed to the local machine and then moves them to the specified destination? I would liken this with ASP.net displaying error messages when browsing from the local machine (even on the public hostname) as opposed to the generic compilation error page/generic exception page that is shown when browsing from a remote machine (and customErrors are not off) Any clues on this? Thanks in advance.

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

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  • JS: capture a static snapshot of an object at a point in time with a method

    - by Barney
    I have a JS object I use to store DOM info for easy reference in an elaborate GUI. It starts like this: var dom = { m:{ old:{}, page:{x:0,y:0}, view:{x:0,y:0}, update:function(){ this.old = this; this.page.x = $(window).width(); this.page.y = $(window).height(); this.view.x = $(document).width(); this.view.y = window.innerHeight || $(window).height(); } I call the function on window resize: $(window).resize(function(){dom.m.update()}); The problem is with dom.m.old. I would have thought that by calling it in the dom.m.update() method before the new values for the other properties are assigned, at any point in time dom.m.old would contain a snapshot of the dom.m object as of the last update – but instead, it's always identical to dom.m. I've just got a pointless recursion method. Why isn't this working? How can I get a static snapshot of the object that won't update without being specifically told to? Comments explaining how I shouldn't even want to be doing anything remotely like this in the first place are very welcome :)

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  • How should I handle this Optimistic Concurrency error in this Entity Framework code, I have?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have the following pseduo code in some Repository Pattern project that uses EF4. public void Delete(int someId) { // 1. Load the entity for that Id. If there is none, then null. // 2. If entity != null, then DeleteObject(..); } Pretty simple but I'm getting a run-time error:- ConcurrencyException: Store, Update, Insert or Delete statement affected an unexpected number of rows (0). Now, this is what is happening :- Two instances of EF4 are running inthe app at the same time. Instance A calls delete. Instance B calls delete a nano second later. Instance A loads the entity. Instance B also loads the entity. Instance A now deletes that entity - cool bananas. Instance B tries to delete the entity, but it's already gone. As such, the no-count or what not is 0, when it expected 1 .. or something like that. Basically, it figured out that the item it is suppose to delete, didn't delete (because it happened a split sec ago). I'm not sure if this is like a race-condition or something. Anyways, is there any tricks I can do here so the 2nd call doesn't crash? I could make it into a stored procedure.. but I'm hoping to avoid that right now. Any ideas? I'm wondering If it's possible to lock that row (and that row only) when the select is called ... forcing Instance B to wait until the row lock has been relased. By that time, the row is deleted, so when Instance B does it's select, the data is not there .. so it will never delete.

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  • Capistrano fails for multiple host deployments

    - by morris082
    I be at a loss here, and after scouring the seas (read: internet) for solutions I am left with none other than to hit up the stack. any help appreciated. I have capistrano running locally for deployments onto several different environments. (I'm on windows 7, fwiw). All was well until I needed to deploy to multiple :app servers during a single deployment. Usually I'm prompted for my ssh passphrase once when I call 'cap deploy'. I have ssh-agent running (git never pesters for my pass) but despite this Capistrano has always bugged me once each deployment. Regardless, it always worked when deploying to ONE host. Now, when I attempt to deploy to multiple servers at once, it asks for my passphrase what appears to be multiple times: (ips removed by ME) servers: ["redacted", "redacted"]<br /> Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: So with the above I enter my passphrase but this doesn't work. It waits as little while, then spits out this error: connection failed for: <one of the server ips> (NoMethodError: undefined method `overwrite' for nil:NilClass) And that's the end of that. I can "passwordless" ssh into the servers I'm deploying on just fine. I'm pretty certain the ssh-agent is running since I can hit Git w/out entering my passphrase every time Using 'forward_agent' setting in cap deploy did not work. This is my role: role :app, "ip 1 removed", "ip 2 removed" If i set default_run_options[:max_hosts] = 1, it works OK but it asks for my passphrase for every single connection to each host I'm deploying to.. which ends up being a lot. Essentially I'm looking for any of the below (but not limited to): - "You're never going to fix that on windows" - "This is how you get REAL passwordless deployment in capistrano" - "Have you overlooked this setting/feature?" - "I have a rock that can fix anything, you may borrow it" Thanks!

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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  • Creating a REST client API using Reactive Extensions (Rx)

    - by Jonas Follesø
    I'm trying to get my head around the right use cases for Reactive Extensions (Rx). The examples that keeps coming up are UI events (drag and drop, drawing), and suggestions that Rx is suitable for asynchronous applications/operations such as web service calls. I'm working on an application where I need to write a tiny client API for a REST service. I need to call four REST end-points, three to get some reference data (Airports, Airlines, and Statuses), and the fourth is the main service that will give you flight times for a given airport. I have created classes exposing the three reference data services, and the methods look something like this: public Observable<Airport> GetAirports() public Observable<Airline> GetAirlines() public Observable<Status> GetStatuses() public Observable<Flights> GetFlights(string airport) In my GetFlights method I want each Flight to hold a reference the Airport it's departing from, and the Airline operating the flight. To do that I need the data from GetAirports and GetAirlines to be available. My initial thinking was something like this: Write a Rx Query that will Subscribe on the three reference services (Airports, Airlines and Statuses) Add results into a Dictionary (airline code and Airline object) When all three GetAirports, GetAirlines and GetStatuses are complete, then return the GetFlights IObservable. Is this a reasonable scenario for Rx? I'm developing on the Windows Phone 7, so I'm not sure if there are major differences in the Rx implementations across the different platforms.

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  • navigateToURL with GET parameters in local SWF

    - by Michael Brewer-Davis
    I'm running a Flex application locally (local-with-filesystem or local-trusted), and I'm trying to call navigateToURL to a local page using GET parameters. Flash Player seems to be ignoring the parameters when opening the local page, though. I've been scouring the Flash security pages to find a documented prohibition for this, but haven't found anything. Pointers? How would you work around this issue? My Flex app: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function onClick(event:MouseEvent):void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("target.html"); request.data = new URLVariables(); request.data.text = "stackoverflow.com"; navigateToURL(request); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Button label="Go" click="onClick(event)" /> </mx:Application> And my target.html: <html> <head> <script language="JavaScript"> <!-- function showURL() { alert(window.location.href); } //--> </script> </head> <body onload="showURL()" /> </html>

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  • How to Store State in Silverlight WCF RIA Services

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am developing a silverlight 3 application using WCF RIA services. I am using the AuthenticationBase class to handle my authentication. As I understand it under the hood this uses the ASP .NET authentication libraries. When I log into the site the authentication service handles login state so that if I close the site and open it straight away I am still logged in according to the server. When the webpage is refreshed or closed and reloaded I can call the method, WebContextBase.Current.Authentication.LoadUser() And it goes back to the authentication service (running on the server) and figures out whether I am still logged into the site. If a timeout has occured the answer will be no. If that is the case I can show a login dialog. The problem I want to solve is that the authentication service consumes the password, and there is no way I can ever retrieve that password again. If the user logs into the site I want to store the password on the server, and return a token to the client side to match up with that password. I have some other services on the server side that need that password. So where should I store that password on the server? How can that be done? How does the WCF authentication store state?

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  • Oracle output: cursor, file, or very long string?

    - by Klay
    First, the setup: I have a table in an Oracle10g database with spatial columns. I need to be able to pass in a spatial reference so that I can reproject the geometry into an arbitrary coordinate system. Ultimately, I need to compress the results of this projection to a zip file and make it available for download through a Silverlight project. I would really appreciate ideas as to the best way to accomplish this. In the examples below, the SRID is the Spatial reference ID integer used to convert the geometric points into a new coordinate system. In particular, I can see a couple of possibilities. There are many more, but this is an idea of how I'm thinking: a) Pass SRID to a dynamic view -- perform projection, output a cursor -- send cursor to UTL_COMPRESS -- write output to a file (somehow) -- send URL to Silverlight app b) Use SRID to call Oracle function from Silverlight app -- perform projection, output a string -- build strings into a file -- compress file using SharpZipLib library in .NET -- send bytestream back to Silverlight app I've done the first two steps of b), and the conversion of 100 points took about 7 seconds, which is unacceptably slow. I'm hoping it would be faster doing the processing totally in Oracle. If anyone can see potential problems with either way of doing this, or can suggest a better way, it would be very helpful. Thanks!

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  • Why can't I wrap the ServletRequest when trying to capture JSP Output

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to dispatch in a servlet request handler to the JSP processor and capture the content of it. I am providing wrapper instances for the ServletRequest and ServletResponse, they implement the corresponding HTTPServletRequest/-Response interfaces, so they should be drop-in replacements. All methods are currently passed to the original Servlet Request object (I am planning to modify some of them soon). Additionally I have introduced some new methods. (If you want to see the code: http://code.google.com/p/gloudy/source/browse/trunk/gloudyPortal/src/java/org/gloudy/gloudlet/impl/RenderResponseImpl.java) The HttpServletResponse uses it's own output streams to capture the output. When I try to call request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request, response); With my request and response wrappers the method returns and no content has been captured. When I tried to pass the original request object it worked! But that's not what I need in the long run... request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request.getServletRequest(), response); This works. getservletRequest() returns the original Request, given by the servlet container. Does anyone know why this is not working with my wrappers?

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  • Problem with TTWebController… alternative view controller template for UIWebView?

    - by prendio2
    I have a UIWebView with content populated from a Last.fm API call. This content contains links, many of which are handled by parsing info from the URL in: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)aWbView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType; …and passing that info on to appropraite view controllers. When I cannot handle a URL I would like to push a new view controller on the stack and load the webpage into a UIWebView there. The TTWebController in Three20 looks very promising since it has also implemented a navigation toolbar, loading indicators etc. Somewhat naively perhaps I thought I would be able to use this controller to display web content in my app, without implementing Three20 throughout the app. I followed the instructions on github to add Three20 to my project and added the following code to deal with URLs in shouldStartLoadWithRequest: TTWebController* browser = [[TTWebController alloc]init]; [browser openURL:@"http://three20.info"]; //initially test with this URL [self.navigationController pushViewController:navigator animated:YES]; This crashes my app however with the following notice: *** -[TTNavigator setParentViewController:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3d5db70 What else do I need to do to implement the TTWebController in my app? Or do you know of an alternative view controller template that I can use instead of the Three20 implementation?

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  • Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for MSSQL

    - by taspeotis
    Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some psuedo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

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  • In facebook connect, how can I check if a user is a fan of my facebook page? Is it possible to track

    - by Tony
    I am trying to determine if a user is a facebook fan. I load the facebook JS library and initialize: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US"></script> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML","Connect","Api"], function() { FB.init("my_api_key","xd_receiver.htm") }); FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan(my_profile_id,"some_UID",callback); }); However when I call the API client with FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan, I get a JS error - FB.ApiClient is undefined I am also using the FBML fan tag to display the "become a fan" button: <fb:fan profile_id="my_profile_id" stream="0" connections="10" logobar="1" width="300"></fb:fan> And would like to be notified when either the "become a fan" button is clicked or a user has successfully become a fan. The business logic is pretty simple - If they become a fan, track it in my database. Then if they try to become a fan again, check with the library if they are a fan and say "You are already a fan" if they are a fan, show the widget if not.

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  • Strange GWT serialization exception when overiding method of serialized object

    - by Flueras Bogdan
    Hi there! I have a GWT serializable class, lets call it Foo. Foo implements IsSerializable, has primitive and serializable members as well as other transient members and a no-arg constructor. class Foo implements IsSerializable { // transient members // primitive members public Foo() {} public void bar() {} } Also a Service which handles RPC comunication. // server code public interface MyServiceImpl { public void doStuff(Foo foo); } public interface MyServiceAsync { void doStuff(Foo foo, AsyncCallback<Void> async); } How i use this: private MyServiceAsync myService = GWT.create(MyService.class); Foo foo = new Foo(); ... AsyncCallback callback = new new AsyncCallback {...}; myService.doStuff(foo, callback); In the above case the code is running, and the onSuccess() method of callback instance gets executed. But when I override the bar() method on foo instance like this: Foo foo = new Foo() { public void bar() { //do smthng different } } AsyncCallback callback = new new AsyncCallback {...}; myService.doStuff(foo, callback); I get the GWT SerializationException. Please enlighten me, because I really don't understand why.

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  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

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  • PHP - Best practice to retain form values across postback

    - by Adam
    Hello, Complete PHP novice here, almost all my previous work was in ASP.NET. I am now working on a PHP project, and the first rock I have stumbled upon is retaining values across postback. For the most simple yet still realistic example, i have 10 dropdowns. They are not even databound yet, as that is my next step. They are simple dropdowns. I have my entire page inclosed in a tag. the onclick() event for each dropdown, calls a javascript function that will populate the corrosponding dropdowns hidden element, with the dropdowns selected value. Then, upon page reload, if that hidden value is not empty, i set the selected option = that of my hidden. This works great for a single postback. However, when another dropdown is changed, the original 1'st dropdown loses its value, due to its corrosponding hidden value losing its value as well! This draws me to look into using querystring, or sessions, or... some other idea. Could someone point me in the right direction, as to which option is the best in my situation? I am a PHP novice, however I am being required to do some pretty intense stuff for my skill level, so I need something flexable and preferribly somewhat easy to use. Thanks! -----edit----- A little more clarification on my question :) When i say 'PostBack' I am referring to the page/form being submitted. The control is passed back to the server, and the HTML/PHP code is executed again. As for the dropdowns & hiddens, the reason I used hidden variables to retain the "selected value" or "selected index", is so that when the page is submitted, I am able to redraw the dropdown with the previous selection, instead of defaulting back to the first index. When I use the $_POST[] command, I am unable to retrieve the dropdown by name, but I am able to retrieve the hidden value by name. This is why upon dropdown-changed event, I call javascript which sets the selected value from the dropdown into its corrosponding hidden.

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

    - by epischel
    Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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  • libav/ffmpeg: avcodec_decode_video2() returns -1 when separating demultiplexing and decoding

    - by unbekannt
    I'm using libav (from a C++ program on Linux and Windows) to decode video streams from a file, which works fine (decoding various formats like H264 and MPEG2) using avformat_open_input(), av_read_frame() and avcodec_decode_video2(). Now I have to separate demultiplexing and decoding. One class will call avformat_open_input() and av_read_frame() and then pass the AVPackets into a queue that is read by another class. There I use avcodec_alloc_context3() to get the AVCodecContext needed for avcodec_decode_video2(). I've tested that with a MPEG2 video stream and it works. Problems arise if I try to decode a H264 stream: avcodec_decode_video2() always returns -1 and outputs "no frame". I understand that additional data (SPS/PPS) is needed to decode this stream, so I've tried to replicate the original AVCodecContext from the demultiplexer in the decoder, but it won't work: Copying the content of the extradata field and setting all other values that differ from the default ones in the decoder: -1 is returned Using the same context (i.e. passing along the pointer) results in a crash I also tried to set CODEC_FLAG2_CHUNKS. avcodec_decode_video2() then always returns packet.size - 3 (??) and frameFinished is never set to 1. In my opinion I have a general problem here that will arise whenever settings from the original CodecContext are needed to decode the AVPackets. I'd be grateful for any hints on how to solve that problem!

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  • UIWebview does not show up into UINavigationController

    - by Pato
    Hi I have a tabBar application. In the first tab, I have a navigation bar. In this navigation bar I have a table view. When the user clicks a cell of the table, it goes to another table view, and when the user clicks a cell in that table, it goes to a webview to open a web page. Basically, it goes fine until opening the webview. In the webview, viewDidLoad is called and seems to work properly. However, webViewDidStartLoad is never called and the web page never shows up. I am not using IB. I build the UITabBarController in the AppDelegate, where I also assign an instance of my UINavigationController for each tab. I call the webview from the second UITableViewController as follows: rssWebViewController = [[webViews objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"controller"]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:rssWebViewController animated:YES]; I have checked that the navigationController is there and it seems just fine. The viewDidload of my webview is as follows: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *urlAddress = self.storyUrl; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [[self rssWebView] setDelegate: self]; [[self view] addSubview:[self rssWebView]]; [rssWebView loadRequest:requestObj]; self.rssWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; self.rssWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); } The web view controller interface is defined as follows: @interface RSSWebViewController : UIViewController <UIWebViewDelegate>{ IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; IBOutlet NSString *feedName; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *feedName; @end Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Facebook SDK Comment Deleting

    - by mwoodworth
    Working with the Facebook php SDK's, I am having a lot of trouble figuring out how to delete comments, given its id and xid. At first I was using the REST API, where you can call 'comments_remove($xid, $id);' to delete a comment. The problem with this method came when the xid parameter only accepts alphanumeric characters and underscores. Based on the documentation (http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/fbml/comments ) a valid XID can be the result of any url_encode. Now I am testing my luck with the new GRAPH api. Looking at http://developers.facebook.com/docs/api under 'Deleting Objects', It seems that comment deleting is definitely supported. However, I have tried sending a DELETE request, and I have also tried sending POST and GET to the object url with the argument 'method=delete'. No matter how I try it, I always get the same error: {"error":{"type":"GraphMethodException","message":"Unsupported delete request."}} I am sending the access token as a parameter as well. The access token that I am sending is the access token saved in the facebook cookie from the single sign on javascript cookie. These are all comments made on my application. Does this happen to anyone else, or am I simply not doing this right? Any help or guidance is GREATLY appreciated.

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