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  • How should I handle this Optimistic Concurrency error in this Entity Framework code, I have?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have the following pseduo code in some Repository Pattern project that uses EF4. public void Delete(int someId) { // 1. Load the entity for that Id. If there is none, then null. // 2. If entity != null, then DeleteObject(..); } Pretty simple but I'm getting a run-time error:- ConcurrencyException: Store, Update, Insert or Delete statement affected an unexpected number of rows (0). Now, this is what is happening :- Two instances of EF4 are running inthe app at the same time. Instance A calls delete. Instance B calls delete a nano second later. Instance A loads the entity. Instance B also loads the entity. Instance A now deletes that entity - cool bananas. Instance B tries to delete the entity, but it's already gone. As such, the no-count or what not is 0, when it expected 1 .. or something like that. Basically, it figured out that the item it is suppose to delete, didn't delete (because it happened a split sec ago). I'm not sure if this is like a race-condition or something. Anyways, is there any tricks I can do here so the 2nd call doesn't crash? I could make it into a stored procedure.. but I'm hoping to avoid that right now. Any ideas? I'm wondering If it's possible to lock that row (and that row only) when the select is called ... forcing Instance B to wait until the row lock has been relased. By that time, the row is deleted, so when Instance B does it's select, the data is not there .. so it will never delete.

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  • UIWebview does not show up into UINavigationController

    - by Pato
    Hi I have a tabBar application. In the first tab, I have a navigation bar. In this navigation bar I have a table view. When the user clicks a cell of the table, it goes to another table view, and when the user clicks a cell in that table, it goes to a webview to open a web page. Basically, it goes fine until opening the webview. In the webview, viewDidLoad is called and seems to work properly. However, webViewDidStartLoad is never called and the web page never shows up. I am not using IB. I build the UITabBarController in the AppDelegate, where I also assign an instance of my UINavigationController for each tab. I call the webview from the second UITableViewController as follows: rssWebViewController = [[webViews objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"controller"]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:rssWebViewController animated:YES]; I have checked that the navigationController is there and it seems just fine. The viewDidload of my webview is as follows: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *urlAddress = self.storyUrl; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [[self rssWebView] setDelegate: self]; [[self view] addSubview:[self rssWebView]]; [rssWebView loadRequest:requestObj]; self.rssWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; self.rssWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); } The web view controller interface is defined as follows: @interface RSSWebViewController : UIViewController <UIWebViewDelegate>{ IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; IBOutlet NSString *feedName; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *feedName; @end Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Customize jQuery.aptags plugin - mouseclick submit from .ac_results list

    - by atmorell
    Hello, I am using jquery.autocomplete.js and jquery.apitags to select a few elements from a div (.ac_results) This works great, and I can select multiple elements etc. However the jquery-aptags plugin does only fire when enter is pressed. This might confuse some users if they use the mouse to click instead of the arrows/enter on the keyboard. I think this is the code inside jquery.aptags that submits the tag. // // Hook to the keypress event. // $(this).bind('keypress', { __c: __c }, function (e) { var c = ''; var i = 0; var v = $(this).val(); if (e.keyCode == 13) { e.stopPropagation(); e.preventDefault(); __createSpans(this, v, e.data.__c, true); } }); I am wondering if it is possible to call the method directly from a new event. $('.ac_results > ul > li').livequery(function() { $(this).bind('click', function() { $('#address_city'). //how do I fire the "enter" event from here? }); }); Any thoughts?

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  • Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • Problem with JavaScript arithmetic

    - by Lynn
    I have a form for my customers to add budget projections. A prominent user wants to be able to show dollar values in either dollars, Kila-dollars or Mega-dollars. I'm trying to achieve this with a group of radio buttons that call the following JavaScript function, but am having problems with rounding that make the results look pretty crummy. Any advice would be much appreciated! Lynn function setDollars(new_mode) { var factor; var myfield; var myval; var cur_mode = document.proj_form.cur_dollars.value; if(cur_mode == new_mode) { return; } else if((cur_mode == 'd')&&(new_mode == 'kd')) { factor = "0.001"; } else if((cur_mode == 'd')&&(new_mode == 'md')) { factor = "0.000001"; } else if((cur_mode == 'kd')&&(new_mode == 'd')) { factor = "1000"; } else if((cur_mode == 'kd')&&(new_mode == 'md')) { factor = "0.001"; } else if((cur_mode == 'md')&&(new_mode == 'kd')) { factor = "1000"; } else if((cur_mode == 'md')&&(new_mode == 'd')) { factor = "1000000"; } document.proj_form.cur_dollars.value = new_mode; var cur_idx = document.proj_form.cur_idx.value; var available_slots = 13 - cur_idx; var td_name; var cell; var new_value; //Adjust dollar values for projections for(i=1;i<13;i++) { var myfield = eval('document.proj_form.proj_'+i); if(myfield.value == '') { myfield.value = 0; } var myval = parseFloat(myfield.value) * parseFloat(factor); myfield.value = myval; if(i < cur_idx) { document.getElementById("actual_"+i).innerHTML = myval; } }

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  • Linq: Why won't Group By work when Querying DataSets?

    - by jrcs3
    While playing with Linq Group By statements using both DataSet and Linq-to-Sql DataContext, I get different results with the following VB.NET 10 code: #If IS_DS = True Then Dim myData = VbDataUtil.getOrdersDS #Else Dim myData = VbDataUtil.GetNwDataContext #End If Dim MyList = From o In myData.Orders Join od In myData.Order_Details On o.OrderID Equals od.OrderID Join e In myData.Employees On o.EmployeeID Equals e.EmployeeID Group By FullOrder = New With { .OrderId = od.OrderID, .EmployeeName = (e.FirstName & " " & e.LastName), .ShipCountry = o.ShipCountry, .OrderDate = o.OrderDate } _ Into Amount = Sum(od.Quantity * od.UnitPrice) Where FullOrder.ShipCountry = "Venezuela" Order By FullOrder.OrderId Select FullOrder.OrderId, FullOrder.OrderDate, FullOrder.EmployeeName, Amount For Each x In MyList Console.WriteLine( String.Format( "{0}; {1:d}; {2}: {3:c}", x.OrderId, x.OrderDate, x.EmployeeName, x.Amount)) Next With Linq2SQL, the grouping works properly, however, the DataSet code doesn't group properly. Here are the functions that I call to create the DataSet and Linq-to-Sql DataContext Public Shared Function getOrdersDS() As NorthwindDS Dim ds As New NorthwindDS Dim ota As New OrdersTableAdapter ota.Fill(ds.Orders) Dim otda As New Order_DetailsTableAdapter otda.Fill(ds.Order_Details) Dim eda As New EmployeesTableAdapter eda.Fill(ds.Employees) Return ds End Function Public Shared Function GetNwDataContext() As NorthwindL2SDataContext Dim s As New My.MySettings Return New NorthwindL2SDataContext(s.NorthwindConnectionString) End Function What am I missing? If it should work, how do I make it work, if it can't work, why not (what interface isn't implemented, etc)?

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Java swing hold buttons

    - by Simon Charette
    Hi, I'm trying to create a subclass of JButton or AbstractButton that would call specified .actionPerformed as long as the mouse is held down on the button. So far I was thinking of extending JButton, adding a mouse listener on creation (inside constructor) and calling actionPerformed while the mouse is down. So far i came up with that but I was wondwering if I was on the right track and if so, how to correctly implement the "held down" logic. package components; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import javax.swing.Action; import javax.swing.Icon; import javax.swing.JButton; public class HoldButton extends JButton { private class HeldDownMouseListener implements MouseListener { private boolean mouseIsHeldDown; private HoldButton button; private long millis; public HeldDownMouseListener(HoldButton button, long millis) { this.button = button; this.millis = millis; } @Override public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent arg0) { } @Override public void mouseEntered(MouseEvent arg0) { } @Override public void mouseExited(MouseEvent arg0) { } @Override public void mousePressed(MouseEvent arg0) { mouseIsHeldDown = true; // This should be run in a sub thread? // while (mouseIsHeldDown) { // button.fireActionPerformed(new ActionEvent(button, ActionEvent.ACTION_PERFORMED, "heldDown")); // try { // Thread.sleep(millis); // } catch (InterruptedException e) { // e.printStackTrace(); // continue; // } // } } @Override public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent arg0) { mouseIsHeldDown = false; } } public HoldButton() { addHeldDownMouseListener(); } public HoldButton(Icon icon) { super(icon); addHeldDownMouseListener(); } public HoldButton(String text) { super(text); addHeldDownMouseListener(); } public HoldButton(Action a) { super(a); addHeldDownMouseListener(); } private void addHeldDownMouseListener() { addMouseListener(new HeldDownMouseListener(this, 300)); } } Thanks a lot for your time.

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  • Unable to use stored procs in a generic repository for the entity framework. (ASP.NET MVC 2)

    - by Matt
    Hi, I have a generic repository that uses the entity framework to manipulate the database. The original code is credited to Morshed Anwar's post on CodeProject. I've taken his code and modified is slightly to fit my needs. Unfortunately I'm unable to call an Imported Function because the function is only recognized for my specific instance of the entity framework public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; public ObjectResult<MyObject> CallFunction() { // This does not work because "CallSomeImportedFunction" only works on // My object. I also cannot cast it (TrackItDBEntities)_ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); // Not really sure why though... but either way that kind of ruins the genericness off it. return _ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); } } Anyone know how I can make this work with the repository I already have? Or does anyone know a generic way of calling stored procedures with entity framework? Thanks, Matt

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  • UISlider how to set the initial value

    - by slim
    I'm pretty new at this iphone dev stuff and i'm working on some existing code at a company. The uislider i'm trying to set the initial value on is actually in a UITableViewCell and is a custom control. I was thinking in the cell init cell = (QuantitiesCell *)[self loadCellWithNibName:@"QuantitiesCell" forTableView:ltableView withStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault]; i could just call something like ((QuantitiesCell *)cell).value = 5; The actual QuantitiesCell class has the member value and the following functions -(void)initCell;{ if (listOfValues == nil) { [self initListOfValues]; } quantitiesSLider.maximumValue = [listOfValues count]-1; quantitiesSLider.minimumValue = 0; quantitiesSLider.value = self.value; } -(void)initListOfValues;{ listOfValues = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; int j =0; for (float i = minValue; i <= maxValue+increment; i=i+increment) { [listOfValues addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat: i]]; if (i == value) { quantitiesSLider.value = j; } j++; } } like i said, i'm pretty new at this so if i need to post more of the code to show whats going to get help, let me know, This slider always is defaulting to 1, the slider ranges usually from 1-10, and i want to set it to a specific value of the item i'm trying to edit.

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  • Capistrano fails for multiple host deployments

    - by morris082
    I be at a loss here, and after scouring the seas (read: internet) for solutions I am left with none other than to hit up the stack. any help appreciated. I have capistrano running locally for deployments onto several different environments. (I'm on windows 7, fwiw). All was well until I needed to deploy to multiple :app servers during a single deployment. Usually I'm prompted for my ssh passphrase once when I call 'cap deploy'. I have ssh-agent running (git never pesters for my pass) but despite this Capistrano has always bugged me once each deployment. Regardless, it always worked when deploying to ONE host. Now, when I attempt to deploy to multiple servers at once, it asks for my passphrase what appears to be multiple times: (ips removed by ME) servers: ["redacted", "redacted"]<br /> Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: So with the above I enter my passphrase but this doesn't work. It waits as little while, then spits out this error: connection failed for: <one of the server ips> (NoMethodError: undefined method `overwrite' for nil:NilClass) And that's the end of that. I can "passwordless" ssh into the servers I'm deploying on just fine. I'm pretty certain the ssh-agent is running since I can hit Git w/out entering my passphrase every time Using 'forward_agent' setting in cap deploy did not work. This is my role: role :app, "ip 1 removed", "ip 2 removed" If i set default_run_options[:max_hosts] = 1, it works OK but it asks for my passphrase for every single connection to each host I'm deploying to.. which ends up being a lot. Essentially I'm looking for any of the below (but not limited to): - "You're never going to fix that on windows" - "This is how you get REAL passwordless deployment in capistrano" - "Have you overlooked this setting/feature?" - "I have a rock that can fix anything, you may borrow it" Thanks!

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  • How to parameterize a path in ANT?

    - by strelokstrelok
    I have the following defined in a file called build-dependencies.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="artifacts/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="artifacts/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> I include it at the top of my build.xml file. Now I need to make the artifacts folder a parameter so it can be changed during execution of different targets. Having this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> ...and defining an "artifacts" property (and changing it) in the target does not work because it seems that the property substitution happens when the path is defined in build-dependencies.xml How can I solve this? One way I was thinking was to have a parameterized macro and call that before the path is actually used, but that seems not elegant. Something like this: <macrodef name="create-common-jars"> <attribute name="artifacts"/> <sequential> <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> </sequential> </macrodef>

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  • iPhone OS: Why is my managedModelObject not complying with Key Value Coding?

    - by nickthedude
    Ok so I'm trying to build this stat tracker for my app and I have built a data model object called statTracker that keeps track of all the stuff I want it to. I can set and retrieve values using the selectors, but if I try and use KVC (ie setValue: forKey: ) everything goes bad and says my StatTracker class is not KVC compliant: valueForUndefinedKey:]: the entity StatTracker is not key value coding-compliant for the key "timesLauched".' 2010-05-18 15:55:08.573 here's the code that is triggering it: NSArray *statTrackerArray = [[NSArray alloc] init]; statTrackerArray = [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] getStatTracker]; NSNumber *number1 = [[NSNumber alloc] init]; number1 = [NSNumber numberWithInt:(1 + [[(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"timesLauched"] intValue])]; [(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] setValue:number1 forKey:@"timesLaunched" ]; NSError *error; if (![[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"error writing to db"); } Not sure if this is enough code for you folks let me know what you need if you do need more. This would be so sweet if I could use KVC because I could then abstract all this stat tracking stuff into a single method call with a string argument for the value in question. At least that is what I hope to accomplish here. I'm actually now understanding the power of KVC but now I'm just trying to figure out how to make it work. Thanks! Nick

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  • check whether mmap'ed address is correct

    - by reddot
    I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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  • calling template function without <>; type inference

    - by Oops
    Hi, if I have a function template with typename T, where the compiler can set the type by itself, I do not have to write the type explicitely when I call the function like: template < typename T > T min( T v1, T v2 ) { return ( v1 < v2 ) ? v1: v2; } int i1 = 1, i2 = 2; int i3 = min( i1, i2 ); //no explicit <type> but if I have a function template with two different typenames like... template < typename TOut, typename TIn > TOut round( TIn v ) { return (TOut)( v + 0.5 ); } double d = 1.54; int i = round<int>(d); //explicit <int> Is it true that I have to specify at least 1 typename, always? I assume the reason is because C++ can not distinguish functions between different return types, true? but if I use a void function and handover a reference, again I must not explicitely specify the return typename: template < typename TOut, typename TIn > void round( TOut & vret, TIn vin ) { vret = (TOut)(vin + 0.5); } double d = 1.54; int i; round(i, d); //no explicit <int> should the conclusion be to avoid functions with return and more prefer void functions that return via a reference when writing templates? Or is there a possibility to avoid explicitely writing the return type? something like "type inference" for templates... is "type inference" possible in C++0x? I hope I was not too unclear. many thanks in advance Oops

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  • exec() in BeanShell macro causes jEdit to hang when it returns non-zero exit code

    - by rossmeissl
    I have a jEdit BeanShell macro that runs my Markdown files through Maruku when I save them: if (buffer.getMode().toString().equals("markdown")) { cmd = "C:\\Ruby\\bin\\maruku.bat -o " + buffer.getDirectory() + buffer.getName().replaceAll("markdown$", "html") + " " + buffer.getPath(); exec(cmd); } This works great when the Markdown file is valid. But if I've made a mistake, jEdit just waits around forever for the exec() call to "succeed," which it never will. When this happens, I have to kill jEdit's javaw.exe process and run Maruku manually from the command line to discover the error, e.g.: E:\bp\plan\supply_chain>maruku business_plan.markdown ___________________________________________________________________________ | Maruku tells you: +--------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Could not find ref_id = "17" for md_link(["17"],"17") | Available refs are [] +--------------------------------------------------------------------------- !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/errors_management.rb:49:in `maruku_error' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:716:in `to_html_link' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:970:in `send' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:970:in `array_to_html' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:961:in `each' \___________________________________________________________________________ Not creating a link for ref_id = "17". Then I restart jEdit, fix the error, and re-save the file, at which point the macro succeeds. How can I make my macro more resilient to either die helpfully (display Maruku's error output) or, at the very least, die silently so I don't have to kill jEdit?

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  • Dynamically change ViewPagerIndicator titles

    - by msal
    My current project uses some ListFragments to show rows of data. The rows get updated dynamically every some seconds. The amount of rows varies with every update and in every ListFragment. I would like to show the amount of rows to the user, and think that the perfect place for that would be next to the Fragment's title in the ViewPagerIndicator. I provided a sample image for better comprehension: Sadly I am pretty clueless how to achieve this. I tried the following: public class PagerAdapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter { private int numOne = 0; private int numTwo = 0; // ... @Override public CharSequence getPageTitle(int position) { switch (position) { case 0: return "List 1 (" + numOne + ")"; case 1: return "List 2 (" + numTwo + ")"; default: return ""; } public void setNumOne(int num) { this.numOne = num; } public void setNumTwo(int num) { this.numTwo = num; } } When I now call the setNumXXX() method, nothing happens, until I move between fragments, what seems to trigger the getPageTitle() to fire. My question is: How can I force an update of the title(s), everytime when the num value changes?

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • google maps not working anymore at the drop of a hat

    - by Vordreller
    2 days ago, I was working on a project that involves google maps. The website showed the maps on the pages just fine. Now, I come back to my workstation, nothing has changed, expect for the fact that the google maps won't show up anymore. The code is identical, nobody has touched my machine since I was gone, I've checked the html, everything is perfect and still this isn't working... The Javascript console is giving no errors and the code is identical to a backup I make everytime I call it a day. 2 days ago it was working, today it isn't. I've even copied the source code, put it into an html file and tried that, but the same result. I'm at a loss here. This is my code: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var map; var directionsPanel; var directions; function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); //the route description directionsPanel = document.getElementById("route"); directions = new GDirections(map, directionsPanel); directions.load({COMMAND}); } } //]]> </script> The {COMMAND} is something that the PHP template will parse, I've checked it, the format is 100% correct and like I allready said, code now is identical to the backup, and if it worked back then, it should work now. Did google update their API overnight and did a function that I use here become deprecated? I don't know what's going on here...

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  • Eclipse and JavaFX? is it just me?

    - by jeff porter
    I'm looking at learning JavaFX. I've tried setting Eclipse to develop a small app and I've downloaded the Eclipse plugin. Eclipse JavaFX plugin BUT... it just seems, well, flakey. So I have 3 questions... 1: Is there a better plugin? 2: Or is there some great set of tutorials out there that I'm missing? 3: finally, is it meant to be easy to call Java code from FX? I'm stuggling, it there a good example somewhere? On questions 1 & 2, Eclipse underlines code in red that just shouln't be. For example.. see this image... Why does it underline bit of imports in red? I know this is little of an open ended question. So I guess my main question is this... Is my experiance of JavaFX and Eclipse the best I can hope for? Or am I missing something ? (and I'm not looking for a Yes/No response) :-) Just looking for a discussion on how best to learn/develop JavaFx.

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  • PHP - Best practice to retain form values across postback

    - by Adam
    Hello, Complete PHP novice here, almost all my previous work was in ASP.NET. I am now working on a PHP project, and the first rock I have stumbled upon is retaining values across postback. For the most simple yet still realistic example, i have 10 dropdowns. They are not even databound yet, as that is my next step. They are simple dropdowns. I have my entire page inclosed in a tag. the onclick() event for each dropdown, calls a javascript function that will populate the corrosponding dropdowns hidden element, with the dropdowns selected value. Then, upon page reload, if that hidden value is not empty, i set the selected option = that of my hidden. This works great for a single postback. However, when another dropdown is changed, the original 1'st dropdown loses its value, due to its corrosponding hidden value losing its value as well! This draws me to look into using querystring, or sessions, or... some other idea. Could someone point me in the right direction, as to which option is the best in my situation? I am a PHP novice, however I am being required to do some pretty intense stuff for my skill level, so I need something flexable and preferribly somewhat easy to use. Thanks! -----edit----- A little more clarification on my question :) When i say 'PostBack' I am referring to the page/form being submitted. The control is passed back to the server, and the HTML/PHP code is executed again. As for the dropdowns & hiddens, the reason I used hidden variables to retain the "selected value" or "selected index", is so that when the page is submitted, I am able to redraw the dropdown with the previous selection, instead of defaulting back to the first index. When I use the $_POST[] command, I am unable to retrieve the dropdown by name, but I am able to retrieve the hidden value by name. This is why upon dropdown-changed event, I call javascript which sets the selected value from the dropdown into its corrosponding hidden.

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  • ComDlg32.ocx Error: Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by abhilashca
    I'm developing an html editor using ComDlg32.ocx (Commom Dialog Control), using HTML and VBScript. My exact requirement was to prompt Open/Save/Color/Print/Font dialog boxes.Ive written code for prompting Save file dialog box. Also I've added a license file using LPK Tool onto my webpage. My html-source looks like: <body> <!-- lpk file --> <object classid="clsid:5220cb21-c88d-11cf-b347-00aa00a28331"> <param name="LPKPath" value="License/comdlg.lpk" /> </object> <!-- Microsoft Common Dialog Control --> <object classid="CLSID:F9043C85-F6F2-101A-A3C9-08002B2F49FB" codebase="http://activex.microsoft.com/controls/vb6/COMDLG32.CAB" id="objComDlg"></object> </body> Now, here comes my error. Whenever I try to call the vbscript for prompting the Save File dialog box, Im getting an error as : Object doesn't support this property or method: 'objComDlg.Filter' If I comment out the objComDlg.Filter then the error move on to objComDlg.DialogTitle and thus it goes on. And my VBScript look like: FILE_FORMATS = "Rich Text Format (*.rtf)|*.rtf|Microsoft Word (*.doc)|*.doc|ANSI Text Document (*.txt)|*.txt" objComDlg.Filter = FILE_FORMATS <--- Error shows here objComDlg.DialogTitle = "Save As " objComDlg.Flags = cdlOFNFileMustExist Or cdlOFNHideReadOnly objComDlg.CancelError = True objComDlg.ShowSave Does anyone have an idea why this is happening? Is there any proper documentation for using this particular ActiveX control? My current development is in stand-still due to this error. Any help will be appreciated. Looking forward for your response. BTW, I'm using Windows XP SP3 and IE8 for my development. Thanks.

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  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

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