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  • IIS6, ASP.NET MVC 1 and random slowdowns

    - by Mr Snuffle
    I've recently deployed a MVC application to an IIS6 web server. One strange behaviour I've been having is the load times will randomly blow up to 30sec+ and then return to normal. Our tests have shown this occurring on multiple connections at the same time. Once the wait has passed, the site become responsive again. It's completely random when this will occur, but will probably happen about once every 15 minutes or so. My first thought was the application was being restarted by the web server for some reason, but I determined this wasn't the case because the process recycling is set very infrequently, and I placed some logging in the application startup. It's also nothing to do with the database connection. This slowdown happens simply by moving between static pages too. I've watched the database with a SQL profiler, and nothing is hitting it when these slowdowns occur. Finally, I've placed entry and exit logging on my controller actions, the slowdown always happens outside of the controller. The entry and exit time for a controller action is always appropriately fast. Does anyone have any ideas of what could be causing this? I've tried running it locally on IIS7 and I haven't had the issue. I can only think it's something to do with our hosting provider.

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  • Is it possible to include a Sexpr before the expression has been evaluated in Sweave / R ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    Hello, I'm writing a Sweave document, and I want to include a small section that details the R and package versions, platofrms and how long ti took to evalute the doucment, however, I want to put this in the middle of the document ! I was using a \Sexpr{elapsed} to do this (which didn't work), but thought if I put the code printing elapsed in a chunk that evaluates at the end, I could then include the chunk half way through, which also fails. My document looks something like this % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{longtable} \usepackage{geometry} \usepackage{Sweave} \geometry{left=1.25in, right=1.25in, top=1in, bottom=1in} \begin{document} <<label=start, echo=FALSE, include=FALSE>>= startt<-proc.time()[3] @ Text and Sweave Code in here % This document was created on \today, with \Sexpr{print(version$version.string)} running on a \Sexpr{print(version$platform)} platform. It took approx sec to process. <<>>= <<elapsed>> @ More text and Sweave code in here <<label=bye, include=FALSE, echo=FALSE>>= odbcCloseAll() endt<-proc.time()[3] elapsedtime<-as.numeric(endt-startt) @ <<label=elapsed, include=FALSE, echo=FALSE>>= print(elapsedtime) @ \end{document} But this doesn't seem to work (amazingly !) Does anyone know how I could do this ? Thanks Paul.

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  • CSS3 animations - how to make different animations to different elements on scroll

    - by DeanDeey
    I have a question about the doing CSS3 animations on scroll.. I found a code, that shows the DIV element after the user scrolls down: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { /* Every time the window is scrolled ... */ $(window).scroll( function(){ /* Check the location of each desired element */ $('.hideme').each( function(i){ var bottom_of_object = $(this).position().top + $(this).outerHeight(); var bottom_of_window = $(window).scrollTop() + $(window).height(); /* If the object is completely visible in the window, fade it it */ if( bottom_of_window > bottom_of_object ){ $(this).animate({'opacity':'1'},500); } }); }); }); </script> I'm building a site, which one will have about 5 different boxes, which one will be shown when the user scrolls down to each box. But my question is, how i make the animation inside those boxes. Foe example: in each box there is title, content and images. How do i make all the elements appear after each other, because with this code all the class elements are shown at once. But i would like that if user scrolls down, first the tittle appears, then the content and at the end the images. And then when user scrolls to the next box, the same process repeat's itself. I use some CSS3 delays, but in this case i don't know how long will user take to scroll down. thanks!

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  • Programming style question on how to code functions

    - by shawnjan
    Hey all! So, I was just coding a bit today, and I realized that I don't have much consistency when it comes to a coding style when programming functions. One of my main concerns is whether or not its proper to code it so that you check that the input of the user is valid OUTSIDE of the function, or just throw the values passed by the user into the function and check if the values are valid in there. Let me sketch an example: I have a function that lists hosts based on an environment, and I want to be able to split the environment into chunks of hosts. So an example of the usage is this: listhosts -e testenv -s 2 1 This will get all the hosts from the "testenv", split it up into two parts, and it is displaying part one. In my code, I have a function that you pass it in a list, and it returns a list of lists based on you parameters for splitting. BUT, before I pass it a list, I first verify the parameters in my MAIN during the getops process, so in the main I check to make sure there are no negatives passed by the user, I make sure the user didnt request to split into say, 4 parts, but asking to display part 5 (which would not be valid), etc. tl;dr: Would you check the validity of a users input the flow of you're MAIN class, or would you do a check in your function itself, and either return a valid response in the case of valid input, or return NULL in the case of invalid input? Obviously both methods work, I'm just interested to hear from experts as to which approach is better :) Thanks for any comments and suggestions you guys have!

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  • Internet Explorer randomly drops sessions between pages in cakePHP

    - by Emerson Taymor
    Hello everyone, I've come across an extremely unusual bug that my team has literally no idea how to solve. Doing some research, I found some similar solutions that I thought would work, but alas did not. Here is my situation, let me know if I can provide additional insight to help solve the problem. The first step is that someone chooses a country via a flash map. Flash passes this region name (as well as a date) through the URL, which we then convert to a session. The next page contains no Flash and doesn't display the selected region, but it does hold on to it for further down the process. Everything works perfectly in Safari and Firefox; however, in IE sometimes unexpected results occur. Frequently (but not always), the session is dropped completely and no sessions are stored between the first and 2nd pages. Here are the steps that I have taken thus far, unsuccessfully: 1. Changed Security from Medium - Low 2. Changed CheckUserAgent from True - False 3. Changed storing of sessions from PHP - Database Some additional information that may be useful: I have tried printing out the session data in Debug (debug($_SESSION) on my view file and debug set to 2 in config). In Internet Explorer everything prints out as expected EXCEPT when the region and date don't get set. For example: If the region and date don't get set NOTHING is printed out for debug. I don't get the session details at the top, and I don't get the normal dump of calls at the bottom of the page either. I am not using redirection on these pages. Please let me know if you have ANY idea of what is causing this or any solutions. I am beyond frustrated and have tried as much as I can to solve this. Thanks!

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  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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  • How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

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  • Delphi: Error when starting MCI

    - by marco92w
    I use the TMediaPlayer component for playing music. It works fine with most of my tracks. But it doesn't work with some tracks. When I want to play them, the following error message is shown: Which is German but roughly means that: In the project pMusicPlayer.exe an exception of the class EMCIDeviceError occurred. Message: "Error when starting MCI.". Process was stopped. Continue with "Single Command/Statement" or "Start". The program quits directly after calling the procedure "Play" of TMediaPlayer. This error occurred with the following file for example: file size: 7.40 MB duration: 4:02 minutes bitrate: 256 kBit/s I've encoded this file with a bitrate of 128 kBit/s and thus a file size of 3.70 MB: It works fine! What's wrong with the first file? Windows Media Player or other programs can play it without any problems. Is it possible that Delphi's TMediaPlayer cannot handle big files (e.g. 5 MB) or files with a high bitrate (e.g. 128 kBit/s)? What can I do to solve the problem?

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  • Is there a standard pattern for scanning a job table executing some actions?

    - by Howiecamp
    (I realize that my title is poor. If after reading the question you have an improvement in mind, please either edit it or tell me and I'll change it.) I have the relatively common scenario of a job table which has 1 row for some thing that needs to be done. For example, it could be a list of emails to be sent. The table looks something like this: ID Completed TimeCompleted anything else... ---- --------- ------------- ---------------- 1 No blabla 2 No blabla 3 Yes 01:04:22 ... I'm looking either for a standard practice/pattern (or code - C#/SQL Server preferred) for periodically "scanning" (I use the term "scanning" very loosely) this table, finding the not-completed items, doing the action and then marking them completed once done successfully. In addition to the basic process for accomplishing the above, I'm considering the following requirements: I'd like some means of "scaling linearly", e.g. running multiple "worker processes" simultaneously or threading or whatever. (Just a specific technical thought - I'm assuming that as a result of this requirement, I need some method of marking an item as "in progress" to avoid attempting the action multiple times.) Each item in the table should only be executed once. Some other thoughts: I'm not particularly concerned with the implementation being done in the database (e.g. in T-SQL or PL/SQL code) vs. some external program code (e.g. a standalone executable or some action triggered by a web page) which is executed against the database Whether the "doing the action" part is done synchronously or asynchronously is not something I'm considering as part of this question.

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

    - by giveme5minutes
    I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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  • Easy way to lock a file on a remote machine (windows)?

    - by roufamatic
    I've tracked down an error in my logs, and am trying to reproduce it. My theory is that a file sometimes gets locked in a specific folder, and when the application (ASP.NET) tries to delete that folder it hangs. I don't have the application running on my own machine so I'm debugging this on a remote server. But for the life of me, I can't seem to figure out a way to lock a file that prevents it from being deleted by the process. My first thought was to map the network path to a local drive and just leave a command prompt open to that folder. Locally that always fouls up my folder deletes, but apparently SMB is a bit more robust and doesn't grant me a lock. After that I created an infinte loop vbscript in the folder and executed it remotely. The file was deleted out from underneath the executing code. Man! I then tried creating a file on the server in that folder and removing all permissions. That didn't do the trick. I don't have access to the IIS settings so perhaps it's running under a privileged system account. So: what's a program that you know is free and I can quickly use to create an exclusive lock on a file so I can test my delete theory? Like a really, really bad Notepad clone or something. :-)

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  • Emptying the datastore in GAE

    - by colwilson
    I know what you're thinking, 'O not that again!', but here we are since Google have not yet provided a simpler method. I have been using a queue based solution which worked fine: import datetime from models import * DELETABLE_MODELS = [Alpha, Beta, AlphaBeta] def initiate_purge(): for e in config.DELETABLE_MODELS: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, 'purging', _queue = 'purging') class NotEmptyException(Exception): pass def delete_entities(e, queue): try: q = e.all(keys_only=True) db.delete(q.fetch(200)) ct = q.count(1) if ct > 0: raise NotEmptyException('there are still entities to be deleted') else: logging.info('processing %s completed' % queue) except Exception, err: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, then, queue, _queue = queue) logging.info('processing %s deferred: %s' % (queue, err)) All this does is queue a request to delete some data (once for each class) and then if the queued process either fails or knows there is still some stuff to delete, it re-queues itself. This beats the heck out of hitting the refresh on a browser for 10 minutes. However, I'm having trouble deleting AlphaBeta entities, there are always a few left at the end. I think because it contains Reference Properties: class AlphaBeta(db.Model): alpha = db.ReferenceProperty(Alpha, required=True, collection_name='betas') beta = db.ReferenceProperty(Beta, required=True, collection_name='alphas') I have tried deleting the indexes relating to these entity types, but that did not make any difference. Any advice would be appreciated please.

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  • Trap SIGPIPE when trying to write without reader

    - by Matt
    I am trying to implement a named-pipe communication solution in BASH between two processes. The first process runs a script which echo something in a named-pipe: send(){ echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } And the second script is supposed to read the named-pipe via another script which contains: while true;do if read line < $NAMEDPIPE;do someCommands fi done Not that the named pipe has been previously created using the traditional command mkfifo $NAMEDPIPE My problem is that the reader script is not always running so that if the writer script try to write in the named-pipe it stay blocked until a reader connect the pipe. I want to avoid this behavior, and a solution would be to trap a SIGPIPE signal. Indeed, according to man 7 signal is supposed to be send when trying to write in a pipe with no reader. So I changed my red function by: read(){ trap 'echo "SIGPIPE received"' SIGPIPE echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } But when I run the reader script, the script stay blocked, and not "SIGPIPE received" appears... Am I mistaking on the signal mechanism or is there any better solution to my problem ? Thank you for your help.

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  • Files under Program Files have a split personality

    - by regularfry
    I have a Ruby application I'm installing (along with a packaged ruby interpreter) under Program Files on Windows 7 with an NSIS-built installer. In order to debug it, I edited one of the files to add some debugging statements. After that, I uninstalled the package and ran a new version of the installer which includes a new copy of the edited file, without debugging statements. Now, I can't get the new copy to load into ruby. If I run type <filename> in cmd.exe, or open the file in Notepad.exe or Firefox, I see the new version. If I run ruby -e "puts File.read('<filename>')", or open the file in emacs, I see the old version. If, in Windows Explorer, I copy the file to a new filename, everything can see the new contents at that filename. If I delete the original file and rename the copy to replace the original, the split personality returns. This situation survives a reboot, so it's not a simple matter of a file being accidentally held open. What on earth is going on here? Is there some aspect of the install process that might be checkpointing the file in a way I can revert, or at least switch off while I'm debugging the installer?

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  • .NET Regex - Replace multiple characters at once without overwriting?

    - by Everaldo Aguiar
    I'm implementing a c# program that should automatize a Mono-alphabetic substitution cipher. The functionality i'm working on at the moment is the simplest one: The user will provide a plain text and a cipher alphabet, for example: Plain text(input): THIS IS A TEST Cipher alphabet: A - Y, H - Z, I - K, S - L, E - J, T - Q Cipher Text(output): QZKL KL QJLQ I thought of using regular expressions since I've been programming in perl for a while, but I'm encountering some problems on c#. First I would like to know if someone would have a suggestion for a regular expression that would replace all occurrence of each letter by its corresponding cipher letter (provided by user) at once and without overwriting anything. Example: In this case, user provides plaintext "TEST", and on his cipher alphabet, he wishes to have all his T's replaced with E's, E's replaced with Y and S replaced with J. My first thought was to substitute each occurrence of a letter with an individual character and then replace that character by the cipherletter corresponding to the plaintext letter provided. Using the same example word "TEST", the steps taken by the program to provide an answer would be: 1 - replace T's with (lets say) @ 2 - replace E's with # 3 - replace S's with & 4 - Replace @ with E, # with Y, & with j 5 - Output = EYJE This solution doesn't seem to work for large texts. I would like to know if anyone can think of a single regular expression that would allow me to replace each letter in a given text by its corresponding letter in a 26-letter cipher alphabet without the need of splitting the task in an intermediate step as I mentioned. If it helps visualize the process, this is a print screen of my GUI for the program:

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  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

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  • PHP Installer Script

    - by totallymike
    I'm looking to create a fully functional installer for a slightly complicated web application using PHP. Basically, you go to URL/setup.php and you are asked a series of questions, and during the process a database is set up and a config file is populated according to the answers given. A good example of this is how Wordpress handles its install procedure, as well as any number of PHP applications. My question to you, oh great internet, is this: This technique is so prevalent that surely not everyone is re-inventing the wheel, is there a place I can go to find a basic walkthrough (not code, just a description) of the technique. Either that or a good book which outlines if not this specific technique, then the fundamentals relevant to this? I can bang out something ugly and probably make it work myself, but if there's a best known method I'd like to find it. Far more important than having a working function is to have a description of what's going on from step to step. I'd like to have the installer, but I really want to learn how it's done. Thanks, Mike

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  • How can I create Wikipedia's footnote highlighting solely with jQuery

    - by andrew.bachman
    I would like to duplicate Wikipedia's footnote highlighting from in-text citation click solely in jQuery and CSS classes. I found a webpage that describes how to do so with CSS3 and then a JavaScript solution for IE. I would like however to do so solely with jQuery as the site I'm doing it on already has a bunch of jQuery elements. I've come up with a list of the process. In-Text Citation Clicked Replace highlight class with standard footnote class on <p> tag of footnotes that are already highlighted. Add highlight to the appropriate footnote Use jQuery to scroll down the page to appropriate footnote. I've come up with some jQuery so far but I'm extremely new to it relying heavy on tutorials and plugins to this point. Here is what I have with some plain English for the parts I haven't figured out yet. $('.inlineCite').click(function() { $('.footnoteHighlight').removeClass('footnoteHighlight').addClass('footnote'); //add highlight to id of highlightScroll //scroll to footnote with matching id }); If I had a method to pass a part of the selector into the function and turn it into a variable I believe I could pull it off. Most likely I'm sure one of you gurus will whip something up that puts anything I think I have done to shame. Any help will be greatly appreciated so thank you in advance. Cheers.

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  • Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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  • ADO.NET Multiple simultaneous reads from an open database.

    - by Deverill
    Answer not needed - my logic was wrong and this question is invalid. Charles helped me see where I went off-tracks. Thanks I have a utility that moves data from one source to another. In the process of writing the record I check to see if it exists and do an update/insert as necessary. The difficulty I have is that as I'm writing the main record info there is a 2nd table for "custom data" that I have to check to see if it exists and do an update/insert for that as well. Example: I may be loading a pencil sharpener that may or may not exist. While I'm writing it into destination it has characteristics such as style, color, etc. and each of them may or may not exist. As written I seem to need to have 2 DataReaders open, one for the sharpener and one to check for and update color. I am new to ADO.NET, but not to programming and it's more complicated than I listed but for sanity's sake I didn't put all the details. My question is: What am I missing? You can't have 2 readers open at the same time on a connection, yet I can't close the first if I'm stepping through all products. It seems inefficient to have 2 connections, readers, etc. for this. Is there a feature of ADO.NET DBs that I'm missing? How would you do it? Thanks!

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  • Stack Overflow problem transforming with a custom xslt

    - by Flynn1179
    I've got a system that allows the user the option of providing their own XSLT to apply to some data that's been retrieved, as a means of specifying how that data should be presented. However, if the user includes code in the XSLT equivalent to: <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:element name="data"> <xsl:apply-templates select="." /> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> this causes .NET to infinitely recurse trying to process it, and produces a stack overflow error. I need to be able to trap this before it crashes the app, as the data that's been retrieved is occasionally quite time-consuming to obtain, and the data is lost when this happens. Is there any way of doing this? I know it's theoretically possible to identify any occurrences of xsl:apply-templates with "." in the select attribute, but this isn't the only way an infinite recursion could happen, I need a way of generically trapping it.

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  • The new operator in C# isn't overriding base class member

    - by Dominic Zukiewicz
    I am confused as to why the new operator isn't working as I expected it to. Note: All classes below are defined in the same namespace, and in the same file. This class allows you to prefix any content written to the console with some provided text. public class ConsoleWriter { private string prefix; public ConsoleWriter(string prefix) { this.prefix = prefix; } public void Write(string text) { Console.WriteLine(String.Concat(prefix,text)); } } Here is a base class: public class BaseClass { protected static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter(""); public static void Write(string text) { consoleWriter.Write(text); } } Here is an implemented class: public class NewClass : BaseClass { protected new static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter("> "); } Now here's the code to execute this: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { BaseClass.Write("Hello World!"); NewClass.Write("Hello World!"); Console.Read(); } } So I would expect the output to be Hello World! > Hello World! But the output is Hello World Hello World I do not understand why this is happening. Here is my thought process as to what is happening: The CLR calls the BaseClass.Write() method The CLR initialises the BaseClass.consoleWriter member. The method is called and executed with the BaseClass.consoleWriter variable Then The CLR calls the NewClass.Write() The CLR initialises the NewClass.consoleWriter object. The CLR sees that the implementation lies in BaseClass, but the method is inherited through The CLR executes the method locally (in NewClass) using the NewClass.consoleWriter variable I thought this is how the inheritance structure works? Please can someone help me understand why this is not working?

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  • Problem in Building mplsh-run in lshkit

    - by Yijinsei
    Hi guy, been trying out this for quite some time but I'm still unable to built mplsh-run from lshkit Not sure if this would help to explain my situation during the building process /tmp/cc17kth4.o: In function `lshkit::MultiProbeLshRecallTable::reset(lshkit::MultiProbeLshModel, unsigned int, double, double)': mplsh-run.cpp:(.text._ZN6lshkit24MultiProbeLshRecallTable5resetENS_18MultiProbeLshModelEjdd[lshkit::MultiProbeLshRecallTable::reset(lshkit::MultiProbeLshModel, unsigned int, double, double)]+0x230): undefined reference to `lshkit::MultiProbeLshModel::recall(double) const' /tmp/cc17kth4.o: In function `void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query_recall<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, float, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&) const': mplsh-run.cpp:(.text._ZNK6lshkit18MultiProbeLshIndexIjE12query_recallINS_11TopkScannerINS_6MatrixIfE8AccessorENS_6metric5l2sqrIfEEEEEEvPKffRT_[void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query_recall<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, float, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&) const]+0x2c4): undefined reference to `lshkit::MultiProbeLsh::genProbeSequence(float const*, std::vector<unsigned int, std::allocator<unsigned int> >&, unsigned int) const' /tmp/cc17kth4.o: In function `void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, unsigned int, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&)': mplsh-run.cpp:(.text._ZN6lshkit18MultiProbeLshIndexIjE5queryINS_11TopkScannerINS_6MatrixIfE8AccessorENS_6metric5l2sqrIfEEEEEEvPKfjRT_[void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, unsigned int, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&)]+0x4a): undefined reference to `lshkit::MultiProbeLsh::genProbeSequence(float const*, std::vector<unsigned int, std::allocator<unsigned int> >&, unsigned int) const' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status the command that i used to built mplsh-run is g++ -I./lshkit/include -L/usr/lib -lm -lgsl -lgslcblas -lboost_program_options-mt mplsh-run.cpp Do you guys have any clue on how I could solve this?

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  • How to deal with clients and iterations in Agile team?

    - by Ondrej Slinták
    This thread is a follow up to my previous one. It's in fact 2 questions, so I hope no one minds, as they are dependent on each other. We are starting a new project at work and we consider it as a great opportunity to try Agile techniques in action. We had a brainstorming about ideas we read in several books and articles, and came up with concept that would suit us the best: 2 weeks iteration, followed by call with clients who would choose what stuff they want to have in next iteration. I just have few more questions, which we couldn't figure out ourselves. What to do in the first iteration? What to, generally, do in the first few iterations if we start from the scratch? Just give it a month of development to code core of the application or start with simple wire-frames with limited pre-coded functionality? What usually clients want to see? Shiny stuff that doesn't work or ugly stuff that does work? How to communicate with clients? Our initial thought it to set the process to something like this: Is it a good idea to have a Focal Point on client side or is it better to communicate straight with all the clients to prevent miscommunication? Any thoughts are welcome! Thanks in advance.

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