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  • How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

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  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

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  • Binding a null variable in a PreparedStatement

    - by Paul Tomblin
    I swear this used to work, but it's not in this case. I'm trying to match col1, col2 and col3, even if one or more of them is null. I know that in some languages I've had to resort to circumlocutions like ((? is null AND col1 is null) OR col1 = ?). Is that required here? PreparedStatement selStmt = getConn().prepareStatement( "SELECT * " + "FROM tbl1 " + "WHERE col1 = ? AND col2 = ? and col3 = ?"); try { int col = 1; setInt(selStmt, col++, col1); setInt(selStmt, col++, col2); setInt(selStmt, col++, col3); ResultSet rs = selStmt.executeQuery(); try { while (rs.next()) { // process row } } finally { rs.close(); } } finally { selStmt.close(); } // Does the equivalient of stmt.setInt(col, i) but preserves nullness. protected static void setInt(PreparedStatement stmt, int col, Integer i) throws SQLException { if (i == null) stmt.setNull(col, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); else stmt.setInt(col, i); }

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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • Implementing java FixedTreadPool status listener

    - by InsertNickHere
    Hi there, it's about an application which is supposed to process (VAD, Loudness, Clipping) a lot of soundfiles (e.g. 100k). At this time, I create as many worker threads (callables) as I can put into memory, and then run all with a threadPool.invokeAll(), write results to file system, unload processed files and continue at step 1. Due to the fact it's an app with a GUI, i don't want to user to feel like the app "is not responding" while processing all soundfiles. (which it does at this time cause invokeAll is blocking). Im not sure what is a "good" way to fix this. It shall not be possible for the user to do other things while processing, but I'd like to show a progress bar like "10 of 100000 soundfiles are done". So how do I get there? Do I have to create a "watcher thread", so that every worker hold a callback on it? I'm quite new to multi threading, and don't get the idea of such a mechanisem.. If you need to know: I'm using SWT/JFace. Regards, InsertNickHere

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  • Why do I get empty request from the Jakarta Commons HttpClient?

    - by polyurethan
    I have a problem with the Jakarta Commons HttpClient. Before my self-written HttpServer gets the real request there is one request which is completely empty. That's the first problem. The second problem is, sometimes the request data ends after the third or fourth line of the http request: POST / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Jakarta Commons-HttpClient/3.1 Host: 127.0.0.1:4232 For debugging I am using the Axis TCPMonitor. There every things is fine but the empty request. How I process the stream: StringBuffer requestBuffer = new StringBuffer(); InputStreamReader is = new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream(), "UTF-8"); int byteIn = -1; do { byteIn = is.read(); if (byteIn > 0) { requestBuffer.append((char) byteIn); } } while (byteIn != -1 && is.ready()); String requestData = requestBuffer.toString(); How I send the request: client.getParams().setSoTimeout(30000); method = new PostMethod(url.getPath()); method.getParams().setContentCharset("utf-8"); method.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml; charset=utf-8"); method.addRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); method.setFollowRedirects(false); byte[] requestXml = getRequestXml(); method.setRequestEntity(new InputStreamRequestEntity(new ByteArrayInputStream(requestXml))); client.executeMethod(method); int statusCode = method.getStatusCode(); Have anyone of you an idea how to solve these problems? Alex

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  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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  • resizing images with imagemagick via shell script

    - by jml
    Hi there, I don't really know that much about bash scripts OR imagemagick, but I am attempting to create a script in which you can give some sort of regexp matching pattern for a list of images and then process those into new files that have a given filename prefix. for example given the following dir listing: allfiles01.jpg allfiles02.jpg allfiles03.jpg i would like to call the script like so: ./resisemany.sh allfiles*.jpg 30 newnames*.jpg the end result of this would be that you get a bunch of new files with newnames, the numbers match up, so far what i have is: IMAGELIST=$1 RESIEZFACTOR=$2 NUMIMGS=length($IMAGELIST) for(i=0; i<NUMIMGS; i++) convert $IMAGELIST[i] -filter bessel -resize . RESIZEFACTOR . % myfile.JPG Thanks for any help... The parts that I obviously need help with are 1. how to give a bash script matching criteria that it understands 2. how to use the $2 without having it match the 2nd item in the image list 3. how to get the length of the image list 4. how to create a proper for loop in such a case 5. how to do proper text replacement for a shell command whereby you are appending items as i allude to. jml

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  • How do I get jQuery's Uploadify plugin to work with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by KingNestor
    I'm in the process of trying to get the jQuery plugin, Uploadify, to work with ASP.NET MVC. I've got the plugin showing up fine: With the following javascript snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileUpload').fileUpload({ 'uploader': '/Content/Flash/uploader.swf', 'script': '/Placement/Upload', 'folder': '/uploads', 'multi': 'true', 'buttonText': 'Browse', 'displayData': 'speed', 'simUploadLimit': 2, 'cancelImg': '/Content/Images/cancel.png' }); }); </script> Which seems like all is well in good. If you notice, the "script" attribute is set to my /Placement/Upload, which is my Placement Controller and my Upload Action. The main problem is, I'm having difficulty getting this action to fire to receive the file. I've set a breakpoint on that action and when I select a file to upload, it isn't getting executed. I've tried changing the method signature based off this article: public string Upload(HttpPostedFileBase FileData) { /* * * Do something with the FileData * */ return "Upload OK!"; } But this still doesn't fire. Can anyone help me write and get the Upload controller action's signature correctly so it will actually fire? I can then handle dealing with the file data myself. I just need some help getting the method action to fire.

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  • NUnit integration programmatically with spring

    - by harkon
    Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

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  • Delphi: Error when starting MCI

    - by marco92w
    I use the TMediaPlayer component for playing music. It works fine with most of my tracks. But it doesn't work with some tracks. When I want to play them, the following error message is shown: Which is German but roughly means that: In the project pMusicPlayer.exe an exception of the class EMCIDeviceError occurred. Message: "Error when starting MCI.". Process was stopped. Continue with "Single Command/Statement" or "Start". The program quits directly after calling the procedure "Play" of TMediaPlayer. This error occurred with the following file for example: file size: 7.40 MB duration: 4:02 minutes bitrate: 256 kBit/s I've encoded this file with a bitrate of 128 kBit/s and thus a file size of 3.70 MB: It works fine! What's wrong with the first file? Windows Media Player or other programs can play it without any problems. Is it possible that Delphi's TMediaPlayer cannot handle big files (e.g. 5 MB) or files with a high bitrate (e.g. 128 kBit/s)? What can I do to solve the problem?

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  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

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  • Jasmine testing coffeescript expect(setTimeout).toHaveBeenCalledWith

    - by Lee Quarella
    In the process of learning Jasmine, I've come to this issue. I want a basic function to run, then set a timeout to call itself again... simple stuff. class @LoopObj constructor: -> loop: (interval) -> #do some stuff setTimeout((=>@loop(interval)), interval) But I want to test to make sure the setTimeout was called with the proper args describe "loop", -> xit "does nifty things", -> it "loops at a given interval", -> my_nifty_loop = new LoopObj interval = 10 spyOn(window, "setTimeout") my_nifty_loop.loop(interval) expect(setTimeout).toHaveBeenCalledWith((-> my_nifty_loop.loop(interval)), interval) I get this error: Expected spy setTimeout to have been called with [ Function, 10 ] but was called with [ [ Function, 10 ] ] Is this because the (-> my_nifty_loop.loop(interval)) function does not equal the (=>@loop(interval)) function? Or does it have something to do with the extra square brackets around the second [ [ Function, 10 ] ]? Something else altogther? Where have I gone wrong?

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  • Anyone know exactly which JMS messages will be redelivered in CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE mode if the client

    - by user360612
    The spec says "Acknowledging a consumed message automatically acknowledges the receipt of all messages that have been delivered by its session" - but what I need to know is what it means by 'delivered'. For example, if I call consumer.receive() 6 times, and then call .acknowledge on the 3rd message - is it (a) just the first 3 messages that are ack'd, or (b) all 6? I'm really hoping it's option a, i.e. messages after the one you called acknowledge on WILL be redelivered, otherwise it's hard to see how you could prevent message lost in the event of my receiver process crashing before I've had a chance to persist and acknowledge the messages. But the spec is worded such that it's not clear. I get the impression the authors of the JMS spec considered broker failure, but didn't spend too long thinking about how to protect against client failure :o( Anyway, I've been able to test with SonicMQ and found that it implements (a), i.e. messages 'received' later than the message you call .ack on DO get redelivered in the event of a crash, but I'd love to know how other people read the standard, and if anyone knows how any other providers have implemented CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE? (i.e. what the 'de facto' standard is) Thanks Ben

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  • Text piped to PowerShell.exe isn't recieved when using [Console]::ReadLine()

    - by crtracy
    I'm getting itermittent data loss when calling .NET [Console]::ReadLine() to read piped input to PowerShell.exe: >ping localhost | powershell -NonInteractive -NoProfile -C "do {$line = [Console]::ReadLine(); ('' + (Get-Date -f 'HH:mm :ss') + $line) | Write-Host; } while ($line -ne $null)" 23:56:45time<1ms 23:56:45 23:56:46time<1ms 23:56:46 23:56:47time<1ms 23:56:47 23:56:47 Normally 'ping localhost' from Vista64 looks like this, so there is a lot of data missing from the output above: Pinging WORLNTEC02.bnysecurities.corp.local [::1] from ::1 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Ping statistics for ::1: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms But using the same API from C# recieves all the data sent to the process (excluding some newline differences). Code: namespace ConOutTime { class Program { static void Main (string[] args) { string s; while ((s = Console.ReadLine ()) != null) { if (s.Length > 0) // don't write time for empty lines Console.WriteLine("{0:HH:mm:ss} {1}", DateTime.Now, s); } } } } Output: 00:44:30 Pinging WORLNTEC02.bnysecurities.corp.local [::1] from ::1 with 32 bytes of data: 00:44:30 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:31 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:32 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:33 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:33 Ping statistics for ::1: 00:44:33 Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), 00:44:33 Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: 00:44:33 Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms So, if calling the same API from PowerShell instead of C# many parts of StdIn get 'eaten'. Is the PowerShell host reading string from StdIn even though I didn't use 'PowerShell.exe -Command -'?

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  • Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

    - by Benny
    I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • This web site needs a different Google Maps API key. A new key can be generated at http://code.googl

    - by MJI
    I'm not a developer. I have no domain, nor wish to have one at the time. Rather I'm just a regular person who likes to upload photos to some photo related sites. My uploading process constantly gets interrupted by one of these annoying API errors. I get it at least two times, one when I click the page to upload, and also right after it has uploaded. It also pops up if I go to edit a photo or delete it. This interrupts my browsing experience until I click okay. I just want a fix for the annoying without having to register for a key. I tried before and it required a web domain. I rather not have to create a domain and go through such hoops just to fix this. Is there a solution for this problem that doesn't require registration? Another thing to note: I have used two computers. One has the message pop-up and the other doesn't. What is different about the two computers?

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  • Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

    - by Dan Fabulich
    Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • How to approach parallel processing of messages?

    - by Dan
    I am redesigning the messaging system for my app to use intel threading building blocks and am stumped trying to decide between two possible approaches. Basically, I have a sequence of message objects and for each message type, a sequence of handlers. For each message object, I apply each handler registered for that message objects type. The sequential version would be something like this (pseudocode): for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The first approach which I am considering processes the message objects in turn (sequentially) and applies the handlers concurrently. Pros: predictable ordering of messages (ie, we are guaranteed a FIFO processing order) (potentially) lower latency of processing each message Cons: more processing resources available than handlers for a single message type (bad parallelization) bad use of processor cache since message objects need to be copied for each handler to use large overhead for small handlers The pseudocode of this approach would be as follows: for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL parallel_for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- PARALLEL The second approach is to process the messages in parallel and apply the handlers to each message sequentially. Pros: better use of processor cache (keeps the message object local to all handlers which will use it) small handlers don't impose as much overhead (as long as there are other handlers also to be run) more messages are expected than there are handlers, so the potential for parallelism is greater Cons: Unpredictable ordering - if message A is sent before message B, they may both be processed at the same time, or B may finish processing before all of A's handlers are finished (order is non-deterministic) The pseudocode is as follows: parallel_for each message in message_sequence <- PARALLEL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The second approach has more advantages than the first, but non-deterministic ordering is a big disadvantage.. Which approach would you choose and why? Are there any other approaches I should consider (besides the obvious third approach: parallel messages and parallel handlers, which has the disadvantages of both and no real redeeming factors as far as I can tell)? Thanks!

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  • MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

    - by giveme5minutes
    I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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  • OpenID Authentication using AuthLogic Error

    - by Steve
    Hi, I am trying to implement openid authentication using authlogic. I have installed the open_id_authentication in the process but when I entered rake open_id_authentication:db:create --trace I get the following error (in /Users/felix/login) rake aborted! Don't know how to build task 'open_id_authentication:db:create' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1728:in `[]' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2050:in `invoke_task' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `block (2 levels) in top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `each' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `block in top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2023:in `top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2001:in `block in run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1998:in `run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/bin/rake:31:in `<top (required)>' /usr/local/bin/rake:19:in `load' /usr/local/bin/rake:19:in `<main>' Can someone tell what am i doing incorrectly Thanks

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