Search Results

Search found 22569 results on 903 pages for 'win32 process'.

Page 777/903 | < Previous Page | 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784  | Next Page >

  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • OpenID Authentication using AuthLogic Error

    - by Steve
    Hi, I am trying to implement openid authentication using authlogic. I have installed the open_id_authentication in the process but when I entered rake open_id_authentication:db:create --trace I get the following error (in /Users/felix/login) rake aborted! Don't know how to build task 'open_id_authentication:db:create' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1728:in `[]' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2050:in `invoke_task' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `block (2 levels) in top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `each' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `block in top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2023:in `top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2001:in `block in run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1998:in `run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/bin/rake:31:in `<top (required)>' /usr/local/bin/rake:19:in `load' /usr/local/bin/rake:19:in `<main>' Can someone tell what am i doing incorrectly Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to create closed areas (convex polygons) from set of line segments ?

    - by Marten
    The following problem is in 2D, so some simplifications can be made when suggesting answers. I need to create closed areas (defined either by line segments or just set of points - convex polygon) from a set of points/line segments. Basically I used Voronoi to generate "roads". Then I changed some of the data. Now I need a way to loop through that data (which is still line segments but doesn't comply with Voronoi anymore) and generate "neigbourhoods" that are bordered with the "roads". I looked at some graph diagrams and shortest path theories, but I could not figure it out. Logically it could be done by starting at left edge from one point, finding the way back to that point using the shortest path with available lines (using only clockwise directions). Then mark this line set down and remove from the data. Then you can repeat the same process and get all the areas like that. I tried to implement that but it did not get me anywhere as I could not figure out a way to write a C++ code that could do that. Problem was with choosing the most counterclockwise line from available lines from a specific point. All angle based math I did gave wrong answers because the way sin/cos are implemented in c++. So to summarize - if you can help me with a totally new approach to the problem its good, if not could you help me find a way to write the part of the code that finds the shortest clockwise path back to the beginning point using the line segment set as paths back. Thank you for your help!

    Read the article

  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

    Read the article

  • Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

    - by davy
    I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

    Read the article

  • .Net long-running scheduled code execution

    - by Prof Plum
    I am working on a couple of projects now where I really wish there was some sort of component that I could specify a time and date, and then execute some sort of method. DateTime date = new DateTime(x,x,x,x,x,x); ScheduledMethod sMethod = new ScheduledMethod(date, [method delegate of some sort]); \\at the specified date, sMethod invokes [method delegate of some sort] I know that I can do this with Windows Workflow Foundation as a long running process, which is good for certain things, but are there any alternatives? Workflow is not exactly straight forward with the details, and it would be nice to be able to deploy something more simple for light weight tasks. An example would be a method that checks a network folder once a day and deletes any files that are more than 30 days old. I realize that this may be pie in the sky dreaming, but this would be extremely useful for automating certain mundane maintinence tasks (scheduled sql operations, file system cleansing, routine email sending, etc.). It does not necessarily have to be .Net, but that is where I am coming from. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

    Read the article

  • How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

    Read the article

  • Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

    - by drovani
    We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

    Read the article

  • resizing images with imagemagick via shell script

    - by jml
    Hi there, I don't really know that much about bash scripts OR imagemagick, but I am attempting to create a script in which you can give some sort of regexp matching pattern for a list of images and then process those into new files that have a given filename prefix. for example given the following dir listing: allfiles01.jpg allfiles02.jpg allfiles03.jpg i would like to call the script like so: ./resisemany.sh allfiles*.jpg 30 newnames*.jpg the end result of this would be that you get a bunch of new files with newnames, the numbers match up, so far what i have is: IMAGELIST=$1 RESIEZFACTOR=$2 NUMIMGS=length($IMAGELIST) for(i=0; i<NUMIMGS; i++) convert $IMAGELIST[i] -filter bessel -resize . RESIZEFACTOR . % myfile.JPG Thanks for any help... The parts that I obviously need help with are 1. how to give a bash script matching criteria that it understands 2. how to use the $2 without having it match the 2nd item in the image list 3. how to get the length of the image list 4. how to create a proper for loop in such a case 5. how to do proper text replacement for a shell command whereby you are appending items as i allude to. jml

    Read the article

  • NUnit integration programmatically with spring

    - by harkon
    Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

    Read the article

  • Controlling shell command line wildcard expansion in C or C++

    - by Adrian McCarthy
    I'm writing a program, foo, in C++. It's typically invoked on the command line like this: foo *.txt My main() receives the arguments in the normal way. On many systems, argv[1] is literally *.txt, and I have to call system routines to do the wildcard expansion. On Unix systems, however, the shell expands the wildcard before invoking my program, and all of the matching filenames will be in argv. Suppose I wanted to add a switch to foo that causes it to recurse into subdirectories. foo -a *.txt would process all text files in the current directory and all of its subdirectories. I don't see how this is done, since, by the time my program gets a chance to see the -a, then shell has already done the expansion and the user's *.txt input is lost. Yet there are common Unix programs that work this way. How do they do it? In Unix land, how can I control the wildcard expansion? (Recursing through subdirectories is just one example. Ideally, I'm trying to understand the general solution to controlling the wildcard expansion.)

    Read the article

  • Php/Regex get the contents between a set of double quotes

    - by Davy Arnold
    Update to my question: My goal overall is to split the string into 4 parts that I can access later. value = " result of the html inside the first and last " " Here is an example of what i'm trying to do: // My string (this is dynamic and will change, this is just an example) $string = 'value="<p>Some text</p> <a href="#">linky</a>"'; // Run the match and spit out the results preg_match_all('/([^"]*)(?:\s*=\s*(\042|\047))([^"]*)/is', $string , $results); // Here is the array I want to end up with Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => value="<p>Some text</p><a href="#">linky</a>" ) [1] => Array ( [0] => value ) [2] => Array ( [0] => " ) [3] => Array ( [0] => <p>Some text</p><a href="#">linky</a> ) ) Basically the double quotes on the link are causing me some trouble so my first though was to do [^"]$ or something to have it just run until the last double quote, but that isn't getting me anywhere. Another idea I had was maybe process the string in PHP to strip out any inner quotes, but i'm not sure ho to go about this either. Hopefully I'm being clear, it is pretty late and i've been at this far too long!

    Read the article

  • Linux network stack : adding protocols with an LKM and dev_add_pack

    - by agent0range
    Hello, I have recently been trying to familiarize myself with the Linux Networking stack and device drivers (have both similarly named O'Reilly books) with the eventual goal of offloading UDP. I have already implemented UDP on the NIC but now the hard part... Rather than ask for assistance on this larger goal I was hoping someone could clarify for me a particular snippet I found that is part of a LKM which registeres a new protocol (OTP) that acts as a filter between the device driver and network stack. http://www.phrack.org/archives/55/p55_0x0c_Building%20Into%20The%20Linux%20Network%20Layer_by_lifeline%20&%20kossak.txt (Note: this Phrack article contains three different modules, code for the OTP is at the bottom of the page) In the init function of his example he has: otp_proto.type = htons(ETH_P_ALL); otp_proto.func = otp_func; dev_add_pack(&otp_proto); which (if I understand correctly) should register otp_proto as a packet sniffer and put it into the ptype_all data structure. My question is about the dev_add_pack. Is it the case that the protocol being registered as a filter will always be placed at this layer between L2 and the device driver? Or, for instance could I make such a filtering occur between the application and transport layers (analyze socket parameters) using the same process? I apologize if this is confusing - I am having some trouble wrapping my head around the bigger picture when it comes to modules altering kernel stack functionality. Thanks

    Read the article

  • This web site needs a different Google Maps API key. A new key can be generated at http://code.googl

    - by MJI
    I'm not a developer. I have no domain, nor wish to have one at the time. Rather I'm just a regular person who likes to upload photos to some photo related sites. My uploading process constantly gets interrupted by one of these annoying API errors. I get it at least two times, one when I click the page to upload, and also right after it has uploaded. It also pops up if I go to edit a photo or delete it. This interrupts my browsing experience until I click okay. I just want a fix for the annoying without having to register for a key. I tried before and it required a web domain. I rather not have to create a domain and go through such hoops just to fix this. Is there a solution for this problem that doesn't require registration? Another thing to note: I have used two computers. One has the message pop-up and the other doesn't. What is different about the two computers?

    Read the article

  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

    Read the article

  • Text piped to PowerShell.exe isn't recieved when using [Console]::ReadLine()

    - by crtracy
    I'm getting itermittent data loss when calling .NET [Console]::ReadLine() to read piped input to PowerShell.exe: >ping localhost | powershell -NonInteractive -NoProfile -C "do {$line = [Console]::ReadLine(); ('' + (Get-Date -f 'HH:mm :ss') + $line) | Write-Host; } while ($line -ne $null)" 23:56:45time<1ms 23:56:45 23:56:46time<1ms 23:56:46 23:56:47time<1ms 23:56:47 23:56:47 Normally 'ping localhost' from Vista64 looks like this, so there is a lot of data missing from the output above: Pinging WORLNTEC02.bnysecurities.corp.local [::1] from ::1 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Ping statistics for ::1: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms But using the same API from C# recieves all the data sent to the process (excluding some newline differences). Code: namespace ConOutTime { class Program { static void Main (string[] args) { string s; while ((s = Console.ReadLine ()) != null) { if (s.Length > 0) // don't write time for empty lines Console.WriteLine("{0:HH:mm:ss} {1}", DateTime.Now, s); } } } } Output: 00:44:30 Pinging WORLNTEC02.bnysecurities.corp.local [::1] from ::1 with 32 bytes of data: 00:44:30 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:31 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:32 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:33 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:33 Ping statistics for ::1: 00:44:33 Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), 00:44:33 Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: 00:44:33 Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms So, if calling the same API from PowerShell instead of C# many parts of StdIn get 'eaten'. Is the PowerShell host reading string from StdIn even though I didn't use 'PowerShell.exe -Command -'?

    Read the article

  • How do I get jQuery's Uploadify plugin to work with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by KingNestor
    I'm in the process of trying to get the jQuery plugin, Uploadify, to work with ASP.NET MVC. I've got the plugin showing up fine: With the following javascript snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileUpload').fileUpload({ 'uploader': '/Content/Flash/uploader.swf', 'script': '/Placement/Upload', 'folder': '/uploads', 'multi': 'true', 'buttonText': 'Browse', 'displayData': 'speed', 'simUploadLimit': 2, 'cancelImg': '/Content/Images/cancel.png' }); }); </script> Which seems like all is well in good. If you notice, the "script" attribute is set to my /Placement/Upload, which is my Placement Controller and my Upload Action. The main problem is, I'm having difficulty getting this action to fire to receive the file. I've set a breakpoint on that action and when I select a file to upload, it isn't getting executed. I've tried changing the method signature based off this article: public string Upload(HttpPostedFileBase FileData) { /* * * Do something with the FileData * */ return "Upload OK!"; } But this still doesn't fire. Can anyone help me write and get the Upload controller action's signature correctly so it will actually fire? I can then handle dealing with the file data myself. I just need some help getting the method action to fire.

    Read the article

  • How to approach parallel processing of messages?

    - by Dan
    I am redesigning the messaging system for my app to use intel threading building blocks and am stumped trying to decide between two possible approaches. Basically, I have a sequence of message objects and for each message type, a sequence of handlers. For each message object, I apply each handler registered for that message objects type. The sequential version would be something like this (pseudocode): for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The first approach which I am considering processes the message objects in turn (sequentially) and applies the handlers concurrently. Pros: predictable ordering of messages (ie, we are guaranteed a FIFO processing order) (potentially) lower latency of processing each message Cons: more processing resources available than handlers for a single message type (bad parallelization) bad use of processor cache since message objects need to be copied for each handler to use large overhead for small handlers The pseudocode of this approach would be as follows: for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL parallel_for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- PARALLEL The second approach is to process the messages in parallel and apply the handlers to each message sequentially. Pros: better use of processor cache (keeps the message object local to all handlers which will use it) small handlers don't impose as much overhead (as long as there are other handlers also to be run) more messages are expected than there are handlers, so the potential for parallelism is greater Cons: Unpredictable ordering - if message A is sent before message B, they may both be processed at the same time, or B may finish processing before all of A's handlers are finished (order is non-deterministic) The pseudocode is as follows: parallel_for each message in message_sequence <- PARALLEL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The second approach has more advantages than the first, but non-deterministic ordering is a big disadvantage.. Which approach would you choose and why? Are there any other approaches I should consider (besides the obvious third approach: parallel messages and parallel handlers, which has the disadvantages of both and no real redeeming factors as far as I can tell)? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Best practice - logging events (general) and changes (database)

    - by b0x0rz
    need help with logging all activities on a site as well as database changes. requirements: * should be in database * should be easily searchable by initiator (user name / session id), event (activity type) and event parameters i can think of a database design but either it involves a lot of tables (one per event) so i can log each of the parameters of an event in a separate field OR it involves one table with generic fields (7 int numeric and 7 text types) and log everything in one table with event type field determining what parameter got written where (and hoping that i don't need more than 7 fields of a certain type, or 8 or 9 or whatever number i choose)... example of entries (the usual things): [username] login failed @datetime [username] login successful @datetime [username] changed password @datetime, estimated security of password [low/ok/high/perfect] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] changed profile name from [old name] to [new name] @datetime [username] verified name with [credit card type] credit card @datetime datbase table [table name] purged of old entries @datetime via automated process etc... so anyone dealt with this before? any best practices / links you can share? i've seen it done with the generic solution mentioned above, but somehow that goes against what i learned from database design, but as you can see the sheer number of events that need to be trackable (each user will be able to see this info) is giving me headaches, BUT i do LOVE the one event per table solution more than the generic one. any thoughts? edit: also, is there maybe an authoritative list of such (likely) events somewhere? thnx stack overflow says: the question you're asking appears subjective and is likely to be closed. my answer: probably is subjective, but it is directly related to my issue i have with designing a database / writing my code, so i'd welcome any help. also i tried narrowing down the ideas to 2 so hopefully one of these will prevail, unless there already is an established solution for these kinds of things.

    Read the article

  • Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

    - by maestrojed
    I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

    Read the article

  • MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

    - by giveme5minutes
    I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

    Read the article

  • Real time embeddable http server library required

    - by Howard May
    Having looked at several available http server libraries I have not yet found what I am looking for and am sure I can't be the first to have this set of requirements. I need a library which presents an API which is 'pipelined'. Pipelining is used to describe an HTTP feature where multiple HTTP requests can be sent across a TCP link at a time without waiting for a response. I want a similar feature on the library API where my application can receive all of those request without having to send a response (I will respond but want the ability to process multiple requests at a time to reduce the impact of internal latency). So the web server library will need to support the following flow 1) HTTP Client transmits http request 1 2) HTTP Client transmits http request 2 ... 3) Web Server Library receives request 1 and passes it to My Web Server App 4) My Web Server App receives request 1 and dispatches it to My System 5) Web Server receives request 2 and passes it to My Web Server App 6) My Web Server App receives request 2 and dispatches it to My System 7) My Web Server App receives response to request 1 from My System and passes it to Web Server 8) Web Server transmits HTTP response 1 to HTTP Client 9) My Web Server App receives response to request 2 from My System and passes it to Web Server 10) Web Server transmits HTTP response 2 to HTTP Client Hopefully this illustrates my requirement. There are two key points to recognise. Responses to the Web Server Library are asynchronous and there may be several HTTP requests passed to My Web Server App with responses outstanding. Additional requirements are Embeddable into an existing 'C' application Small footprint; I don't need all the functionality available in Apache etc. Efficient; will need to support thousands of requests a second Allows asynchronous responses to requests; their is a small latency to responses and given the required request throughput a synchronous architecture is not going to work for me. Support persistent TCP connections Support use with Server-Push Comet connections Open Source / GPL support for HTTPS Portable across linux, windows; preferably more. I will be very grateful for any recommendation Best Regards

    Read the article

  • Signed and RequireAdministrator manifested executable being run from temp folder?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i manifested my executable as require administrator: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <!-- Disable Windows Vista UAC compatability heuristics --> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> And then i digitally signed it. But then when i run the executable i noticed something odd: the name of the executable on the Consent dialog changed from PingWarning.exe to pinxxxx.tmp; as though a temp copy was made, and that is being run: i dug out Process Montior, to see if anyone is creating a *.tmp file when i launch my executable, and there is: The Application Information service inside this particular svchost container is intentionally copying my executable to the Windows temp folder, and asking for user "Consent" from there; giving an invalid filename. Once consent has been granted, the executable is run from its original location: link text The file is not copied to the temp folder if i do not digitally sign it: So my problem is the invalid filename appearing on the consent dialog when i digitally sign my executable which has been manifested as requireAdministrator. What do?

    Read the article

  • Another rsAccessDenied problem with SSRS

    - by Rich.Carpenter
    I've read through a lot of posts regarding the problem, but none of the proposed solutions have worked for me. I continue to get an error stating, "The permissions granted to user '\Rich' are insufficient for performing this operation. (rsAccessDenied)." If I am logged in as the local administrator account, entering the Reporting Services URL in IE doesn't give me that error, but it takes me to a blank page. I haven't been able to get to a SSRS home page at all. Order of operations: I installed and patched Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit I installed SQL Server Express 2008 with Advanced Services using the MS web installer. I downloaded and installed SP1 for SQL Server Express 2008. I've tried running IE as administrator, adding local machine to trusted sites, and just about every other suggestion I've found. I even ran the entire installation logged in as the local administrator. Nothing seems to work. Could someone please tell me, considering the above installation process, what I should expect to do after to make this work?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784  | Next Page >