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  • Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

    - by arnorhs
    I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • GDI: Dynamical Multiple Graphics in a page?

    - by SirLenz0rlot
    Hi all, I'm quite new to drawing shapes, graphics, bitmaps etc. I googled for a few days,but still havent got a real clue what to do, so please help me: I want to draw a floorplan with certain objects(represented as circles) moving on it. When I click on a object, it needs to show something. So far, I ve been able to draw some circles on a graphic and been able to move the dots by clearing the graphic every time. Ofcourse, this isnt a real solution, since I cant keep track of the different objects on the floorplan (which i need for my clickevent and movings). I hope I explained my problem ok here. This is the (stripped version of the) sourcecode that gets called every second: (dev (of type Device) is the object i want to draw) Graphics gfx = FloorplanTabPage.CreateGraphics(); gfx.Clear(Color.White); foreach (Device dev in _deviceList) { Pen myPen = new Pen(Color.Black) { Width = 10 }; dev.InRoom != null) { myPen.Color = Color.DarkOrchid; int x = dev.InRoom.XPos + (dev.InRoom.Width / 2) - 5; int y = (dev.InRoom.YPos + (dev.InRoom.Height / 2) - 5; if (dev.ToRoom != null) { x = (x + (dev.ToRoom.XPos + (dev.ToRoom.Width / 2)) / 2; y = (y + (dev.ToRoom.YPos + (dev.ToRoom.Height / 2)) / 2; } gfx.DrawEllipse(myPen, x, y, 10, 10); gfx.DrawString(dev.Name, new Font("Arial", 10), Brushes.Purple, x, y - 15); } }

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  • What's the best way to communicate the purpose of a string parameter in a public API?

    - by Dave
    According to the guidance published in New Recommendations for Using Strings in Microsoft .NET 2.0, the data in a string may exhibit one of the following types of behavior: A non-linguistic identifier, where bytes match exactly. A non-linguistic identifier, where case is irrelevant, especially a piece of data stored in most Microsoft Windows system services. Culturally-agnostic data, which still is linguistically relevant. Data that requires local linguistic customs. Given that, I'd like to know the best way to communicate which behavior is expected of a string parameter in a public API. I wasn't able to find an answer in the Framework Design Guidelines. Consider the following methods: f(string this_is_a_linguistic_string) g(string this_is_a_symbolic_identifier_so_use_ordinal_compares) Is variable naming and XML documentation the best I can do? Could I use attributes in some way to mark the requirements of the string? Now consider the following case: h(Dictionary<string, object> dictionary) Note that the dictionary instance is created by the caller. How do I communicate that the callee expects the IEqualityComparer<string> object held by the dictionary to perform, for example, a case-insensitive ordinal comparison?

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • Spring Dependency Injecting an annotated Aspect

    Using Spring I've had some issues with doing a dependency injection on an annotated Aspect class. CacheService is injected upon the Spring context's startup, but when the weaving takes place, it says that the cacheService is null. So I am forced to relook up the spring context manually and get the bean from there. Is there another way of going about it? Here is an example of my Aspect: import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.aspectj.lang.ProceedingJoinPoint; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Around; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Aspect; import com.mzgubin.application.cache.CacheService; @Aspect public class CachingAdvice { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(CachingAdvice.class); private CacheService cacheService; @Around("execution(public *com.mzgubin.application.callMethod(..)) &&" + "args(params)") public Object addCachingToCreateXMLFromSite(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, InterestingParams params) throws Throwable { log.debug("Weaving a method call to see if we should return something from the cache or create it from scratch by letting control flow move on"); Object result = null; if (getCacheService().objectExists(params))}{ result = getCacheService().getObject(params); } else { result = pjp.proceed(pjp.getArgs()); getCacheService().storeObject(params, result); } return result; } public CacheService getCacheService(){ return cacheService; } public void setCacheService(CacheService cacheService){ this.cacheService = cacheService; } }

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  • JSON Array Created in PHP/MySQL incorrectly decoded using JQuery

    - by Zak
    I am attempting to make an AJAX call to a very small PHP script that should return me an array that could be echo'd and decoded using JQuery. Here is what I have: My PHP page called to by AJAX: $web_q=mysql_query("select * from sec_u_g where uid='$id' "); $rs = array(); while($rs[] = mysql_fetch_assoc($web_q)) { } print_r(json_encode($rs)); This outputs: [{"id":"3","uid":"39","gid":"16"},{"id":"4","uid":"39","gid":"4"},{"id":"5","uid":"39","gid":"5"},{"id":"6","uid":"39","gid":"6"},{"id":"7","uid":"39","gid":"7"},{"id":"8","uid":"39","gid":"8"},{"id":"9","uid":"39","gid":"9"},false] I don't understand the "false" at the end for one .. But then I send to to JQuery and use: $.each(json.result, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { alert(property + "=" + value); }); }); This just fails. I try to alert "result" by itself which is set by: $.post("get_ug.php",{id:txt},function(result){ }); My output alerts are as follows: 1) The key is '0' and the value is '[' 2) The key is '1' and the value is 'f' 3) The key is '2' and the value is 'a' 4) The key is '3' and the value is 'l' 5) The key is '4' and the value is 's' 6) The key is '5' and the value is 'e' 7) The key is '6' and the value is ']' 8) The key is '7' and the value is ' ' (<-- Yes the line break is there in the alert) I am exhausted from trying different ideas and scripts. Other than setting a delimiter myself and concatenating my own array and decoding it with a custom script, does anyone have any ideas?? Thank you!!

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  • How to Bind a Command in WPF

    - by MegaMind
    Sometimes we used complex ways so many times, we forgot the simplest ways to do the task. I know how to do command binding, but i always use same approach. Create a class that implements ICommand interface and from the view model i create new instance of that class and binding works like a charm. This is the code that i used for command binding public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; testCommand = new MeCommand(processor); } ICommand testCommand; public ICommand test { get { return testCommand; } } public void processor() { MessageBox.Show("hello world"); } } public class MeCommand : ICommand { public delegate void ExecuteMethod(); private ExecuteMethod meth; public MeCommand(ExecuteMethod exec) { meth = exec; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return false; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; public void Execute(object parameter) { meth(); } } But i want to know the basic way to do this, no third party dll no new class creation. Do this simple command binding using a single class. Actual class implements from ICommand interface and do the work.

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  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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  • Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

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  • How do I implement Hibernate Pagination using a cursor (so the results stay consistent, despite new

    - by hunterae
    Hey all, Is there any way to maintain a database cursor using Hibernate between web requests? Basically, I'm trying to implement pagination, but the data that is being paged is consistently changing (i.e. new records are added into the database). We are trying to set it up such that when you do your initial search (returning a maximum of 5000 results), and you page through the results, those same records always appear on the same page (i.e. we're not continuously running the query each time next and previous page buttons are clicked). The way we're currently implementing this is by merely selecting 5000 (at most) primary keys from the table we're paging, storing those keys in memory, and then just using 20 primary keys at a time to fetch their details from the database. However, we want to get away from having to store these keys in memory and would much prefer a database cursor that we just keep going back to and moving backwards and forwards over the cursor to generate pages. I tried doing this with Hibernate's ScrollableResults but found that I could not call methods like next() and previous() would cause an exception if you within a different web request / Hibernate session (no surprise there). Is there any way to reattach a ScrollableResults object to a Session, much the same way you would reattach a detached database object to make it persistent? Are there any other approaches to implement this data paging with consistent paging results without caching the primary keys?

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  • i have this code but when i run it i get an exception:

    - by nisnis84
    i have this code but when i run it i get an exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.net.SocketPermission 127.0.0.1:8081 connect,resolve) this is the code, the server running good but the client dont work <OBJECT classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" width="615" height="360" codebase="http://java.sun.com/products/plugin/autodl/jinstall-1_4-windows-i586.cab#Version=1,4,0,mn"> <PARAM name="code" value="client/LlamaChat.class"> <PARAM name="archive" value="LlamaChat.jar"> <PARAM name="type" value="application/x-java-applet;version=1.4"> <PARAM name="scriptable" value="true"> <PARAM name="username" value="[replace with username]"> <PARAM name="port" value="[replace with port]"> <COMMENT> <EMBED type="application/x-java-applet;version=1.4" width="615" height="360" code="client/LlamaChat.class" archive="LlamaChat.jar" pluginspage="http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.4.1/download.html" username="nis" port="8081" <NOEMBED> No Java 1.4 plugin </NOEMBED></EMBED> </COMMENT> </OBJECT>

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  • WPF Event Handler in Another Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have built a series of event handlers for some custom WPF controls. The event handles format the text displayed when the user enters or leaves a textbox based on the type of data contained (Phone number, zip code, monetary value, etc.) Right now I have all of the events locally in the C# code directly attached to the xaml. Because I have developed a could controls, this means that the logic is repeated a lot, and if I want to change the program-wide functionality I would have to make changes everywhere the event code is located. I am sure there is a way to put all of my event handlers in a single class. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction? I saw this article: Event Handler located in different class than MainWindow But I'm not sure if it directly relates to what I'm doing. I would rather make small changes to the existing logic that I have, as it works, then rewrite everything into commands. I would essentially like to something like this if possible: LostFocus="ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBox_LostFocus" It is easy enough to do something like this: private void TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(sender, e); } private void TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(sender, e); } But that is less elegant.

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  • SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

    - by dev_darin
    I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

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  • How do I write escape characters verbatim (without escaping) using StreamWriter?

    - by Joel
    I'm writing a utility that takes in a .resx file and creates a javascript object containing properties for all the name/value pairs in the .resx file. This is all well and good, until one of the values in the .resx is This dealer accepts electronic orders. /r/nClick to order {0} from this dealer. I'm adding the name/value pairs to the js object like this: streamWriter.Write(string.Format("\n{0} : \"{1}\"", kvp.Key, kvp.Value)); When kvp.Value = "This dealer accepts electronic orders./r/nClick to order {0} from this dealer." This causes StreamWriter.Write() to actually place a newline in between 'orders.' and 'Click', which naturally screws up my javascript output. I've tried different things with @ and without using string.Format, but I've had no luck. Any suggestions? Edit: This application is run during build to get some javascript files deployed later, so at no point is it accessible to / run by anyone but the app developers. So while I obviously need a way to escape characters here, XSS as such is not really a concern.

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  • How to get drag working properly in silverlight when mouse is not pressed ?

    - by Mrt
    Hello, I have the following code xaml <Canvas x:Name="LayoutRoot" > <Rectangle Canvas.Left="40" Canvas.Top="40" Width="20" Height="20" Name="rec" Fill="Red" MouseLeftButtonDown="rec_MouseLeftButtonDown" MouseMove="rec_MouseMove" /> </Canvas> code behind public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } public Point LastDragPosition { get; set; } private bool isDragging; private void rec_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if(!isDragging) { return; } var position = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); var newPosition = new Point( Canvas.GetLeft(rec) + position.X - LastDragPosition.X, Canvas.GetTop(rec) + position.Y - LastDragPosition.Y); Canvas.SetLeft(rec, newPosition.X); Canvas.SetTop(rec, newPosition.Y); LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); } private void rec_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { isDragging = true; LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(sender as UIElement); rec.CaptureMouse(); } } This issue is the rectangle follows the mouse if the mouse left button is down, but I would like the rectangle to move even when the mouse left button isn't down. It works, but if you move the mouse very slowly. If you move the mouse to quickly the rectangle stops moving (is the mouse capture lost ?) Cheers,

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  • check if two subsets of integers are equal using equals method

    - by MAS
    I have this java method in class called IntArray. The class has methods to add integers to a set or remove integers from a set,check size of a set, and check if 2 sets are equal. the 2 sets are created using 2 different objects of type IntArray in main, lets say object A and B. equals method supposed to check if two sets of integers are equal. for example set A = {1,2,3} and B = {1,2,3,4}. The method still return true even though one set is a subset of the other set. What exactly I am doing wrong? Thanks. //part of the code in main IntArray A = new IntArray(); IntArray B = new IntArray(); if(A.equals(B)) System.out.println("A and B are equal"); //equals method in IntArray class public boolean equals(Object b) { if (b instanceof IntArray) { IntArray A = (IntArray) b; for (int i = 0; i < data.length; i++) if (countOccurrences(data[i]) != A.countOccurrences(data[i])) return false; return true; } else return false; }

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  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

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  • Why does my simple event handling example not work?

    - by njreed
    I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

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  • Business Tier | client state in desktop application- way around Stateful Session Beans?

    - by arthur
    I read positive inputs on the following posts concerning client state management: Stateful EJBs in web application?, here, and here. I want to know how implement such client state management for desktop applications (Swing, AWT, SWT, and other). let's assume there are n desktop clients supposed to use some (remote) services provided on an Application Server. How to maintain a separate and permanent data state for each client , distinct from the other without have to use using stateful session Beans (SFSB) ? is that even possible on this application type ? With Webapp(Servlets / JsSF and JSP) some can avoid using SFSB by HttpSession object and/or coupling it with stateless session beans (SLSB). HttpSession object would keep information for each (Web)client separate and the SLSB would play the business logic music. But HttpSession objects aren't present on desktop application and I go stuck with only SFSB and SLSB. Knowing the problems(Concurrency, Error Handling, usw ) of SFSB, I would have not wanted to use it. What would be the other options? is there only SFSB available? Thanks in advances

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  • help in selecting a row in a tableview and pushing that row into anotherview? sturgling on this sinc

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I have a list of about 5 items in a tableview which I bought them from a database and now when i am trying to push each of them into different views in DidSelectRow() what I am seeing is it is showing me all the views in all the categories.... here is the code I have written.... Here is the code written in cell for row at indexpath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } BeautyQuotes *bQuote = (BeautyQuotes*)[mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = bQuote.qBeauty; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator] ; return cell; and in didselectrow() i have written this code: id count1 = [mBeautyQ count]; while (count1--) { object = [mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:count1]; } [mBeautyQ release]; if([[object objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual : @"Beauty Quotes"]){ [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; BeautysubViewController *subBeauty = [[BeautysubViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BeautysubViewController" bundle:nil]; //subBeauty.selected =[regions objectAtIndex:indexPath.row];(this is not working) [subBeauty setTitle:@"Beauty Quotes"]; NSLog(@"it is about push beauty subview controller"); [self.navigationController pushViewController:subBeauty animated:YES]; [subBeauty release]; } in this way i am pusing all the rows in to different views....but when I am pushing this into beautyquotes it is showing me all other views along with this.... struggling on this a lot please help me in dealing with this....

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  • WP7 BarcodeManager - Invalid cross-thread access

    - by rpf
    I'm trying to use Windows Phone 7 Silverlight ZXing Barcode Scanning Library but I'm having some problems. I'm using a background worker to check the image, but when I do this: WP7BarcodeManager.ScanBarcode(this.Image, BarcodeResults_Finished); The code throws an exception: Invalid cross-thread access. Here is my code... void photoChooserTask_Completed(object sender, PhotoResult e) { if (e.TaskResult == TaskResult.OK) { ShowImage(); System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapImage bmp = new System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapImage(); bmp.SetSource(e.ChosenPhoto); imgCapture.Source = bmp; this.Image = new BitmapImage(); this.Image.SetSource(e.ChosenPhoto); progressBar.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; txtStatus.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } else ShowMain(); } void worker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { try { Thread.Sleep(2000); WP7BarcodeManager.ScanMode = com.google.zxing.BarcodeFormat.UPC_EAN; WP7BarcodeManager.ScanBarcode(this.Image, BarcodeResults_Finished); } catch (Exception ex) { Debug.WriteLine("Error processing image.", ex); } } How can I solve this?

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  • What is a simple way to add a timer to a method

    - by John
    The following is in C#. I'm trying to do something very simple (I think). I have a method that loads an XML document XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(uri); , but I don't want to tie up pc resources if there are issues (connectivity, document size, etc.). So I'd like to be able to add a timeout variable that will cut the method off after a given number of seconds. I'm a newbie when it comes to asynchronous programming and find it confusing that there are so many examples written so many different ways . . . and none of them appear simple. I'd like a simple solution, if possible. Here's my thoughts so far on possible solution paths: 1) A method that wraps the existing load public XDocument LoadXDocument(string uri, int timeout){ //code } 2) A wrapper, but as an extension method XDocument doc = XDocument.LoadWithTimeout(string uri, int timeout); 3) A generic extension method. Object obj = SomeStaticClass.LoadWithTimeout(??? method, int timeout); 3), on its face seems really nice, because it would mean being able to generically add timeouts to many different method calls and not specifically tied to one type of object, but I suspect that it is either i)impossible or ii) very difficult. Please assist. Thanks.

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  • session variables in an ASP.NET

    - by Beep
    hi guy i am trying to place my session in to a drop down, any help would be great. at the moment it puts the data in to a label, i wish to put it into a dropdown with it adding a new string every time i click button without getting rid of the last default page protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session["Fruitname"] = TbxName.Text; // my session i have made } output page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var fruitname = Session["Fruitname"] as String; // my session ive made fruit.Text = fruitname; // session used in lable } Have Tried var myFruits = Session["Fruitname"] as List<string>; myFruits.Add(listbox1.Text); but i get error when i try to run the program Broken glass thanks for your help, it is still not doing what i need but its getting there. var fruitname = Session["Fruitname"] as String; // my session ive made fruit.Text = string.Join(",", fruitname); // session used in lable this is what is working. i need a dropdown to display all the strings put into TbxName.Text; to output into fruit

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