Search Results

Search found 8001 results on 321 pages for 'empty'.

Page 79/321 | < Previous Page | 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86  | Next Page >

  • DataTable won't DataBind with a DataTable.NewRow()

    - by David
    Is DataRow.NewRow() insufficient as the only row in a DataTable? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't. It's near the end of my Page_Load inside my If(!Postback) block. gridCPCP is GridView DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("ID", int.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Code", string.Empty.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date2", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Filename", string.Empty.GetType()); //code to add rows if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); } else { dt.Rows.Add(dt.NewRow()); gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); //EXCEPTION int TotalColumns = gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Count; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Clear(); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Add(new TableCell()); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].ColumnSpan = TotalColumns; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].Text = "No Record Found"; } The exception throws on gridCPCP.DataBind() and only when execution reaches the else block. If there were rows added above via dt.Rows.Add(new object[] { ... } binding works. System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Length cannot be less than zero. Parameter name: length

    Read the article

  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

    Read the article

  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

    Read the article

  • How to test the expectation on the eventSpy

    - by Lorraine Bernard
    I am trying to test a backbone.model when saving. Here's my piece of code. As you can see from the comment there is a problem with toHaveBeenCalledOnce method. P.S.: I am using jasmine 1.2.0 and Sinon.JS 1.3.4 describe('when saving', function () { beforeEach(function () { this.server = sinon.fakeServer.create(); this.responseBody = '{"id":3,"title":"Hello","tags":["garden","weekend"]}'; this.server.respondWith( 'POST', Routing.generate(this.apiName), [ 200, {'Content-Type': 'application/json'}, this.responseBody ] ); this.eventSpy = sinon.spy(); }); afterEach(function() { this.server.restore(); }); it('should not save when title is empty', function() { this.model.bind('error', this.eventSpy); this.model.save({'title': ''}); expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledOnce(); // TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'toHaveBeenCalledOnce' expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledWith(this.model, 'cannot have an empty title'); }); }); console.log(expect(this.eventSpy));

    Read the article

  • C++: Is there any good way to read/write without specifically stating character type in function nam

    - by Mark L.
    I'm having a problem getting a program to read from a file based on a template, for example: bool parse(basic_ifstream<T> &file) { T ch; locale loc = file.getloc(); basic_string<T> buf; file.unsetf(ios_base::skipws); if (file.is_open()) { while (file >> ch) { if(isalnum(ch, loc)) { buf += ch; } else if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); buf.clear(); } } if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); } return true; } return false; } This will work when I instantiate this class with <char>, but has problems when I use <wchar_t> (clearly). Outside of the class, I'm using: for (iter = mp.begin(); iter != mp.end(); ++iter ) { cout << iter->first << setw(textwidth - iter->first.length() + 1); cout << " " << iter->second << endl; } To write all of the information from this data struct (it's a map<basic_string<T>, int>), and as predicted, cout explodes if iter->first isn't a char array. I've looked online and the consensus is to use wcout, but unfortunately, since this program requires that the template can be changed at compile time (<char> - <wchar_t>) I'm not sure how I could get away with simply choosing cout or wcout. That is, unless there way a way to read/write wide characters without changing lots of code. If this explanation sounds awkwardly complicated, let me know and I'll address it as best I can.

    Read the article

  • datepicker value is blank when disabled, jquery

    - by Mithil Deshmukh
    Hi. I'm fairly new to jQuery. I have a Jquery datepicker in a user control. I have added a "disable" property to the datepicker. Whenever I save the page(having this usercontrol) the datepicker with disable set to true is empty. All other datepickers save fine. Here is my code. ASPX < USERCONTROL:DATEPICKER id="dpBirthDate" startyear="1980" runat="server" Disable=true ASCX < input type="text" size="8" runat="server" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" onblur="ValidateForm(this.id);" / ASCX Code Behind Public Property Disable() As Boolean Get Return (txtDate.Disabled = True) End Get Set(ByVal bValue As Boolean) If (bValue = True) Then txtDate.Attributes.Add("Disabled", "True") Else txtDate.Attributes.Remove("Disabled") End If End Set End Property My Jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("input[id$=txtDate]").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("BASE_DIRECTORY")%>/Images/el-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true }); $("input[id$=txtDate]").mask("99/99/9999", { placeholder: " " }); //Disable datepicker if "disable=true" $("input[id$=txtDate]").each(function() { if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "True") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("disable"); } else if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "False") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("enable"); } }); }); I am sorry, I am not sure how to format the code here. I apologies for the cluttered code. Can anybody tell me why the datepicker value is empty when it is disabled but works fine otherwise? Thanks is advance.

    Read the article

  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Using a NSMutableArry in the AppDelegate as a Global Variable

    - by aahrens
    What i'm trying to accomplish is to have an NSMutableArray defined in the AppDelegate. I then have two UIViewControllers. One view is responsible for displaying the array from the AppDelegate. The other view is used to add items to the array. So the array starts out to be empty. View1 doesn't display anything because the array is empty. The User goes to View2 and adds an item to the array in AppDelegate. Then when the user goes back to View1 it now displays one item. Here is how I'm trying to accomplish this @interface CalcAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; UITabBarController *tabBarController; NSMutableArray *globalClasses; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *globalClasses; My other view In the viewDidload I set the array in my View to be the one in the AppDelegate. In an effort to retain values. allCourses = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; CalcAppDelegate *appDelegate = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; allCourses = appDelegate.globalClasses; Then I would update my allCourses array by adding a new item. Then try to set the array in the AppDelegate to be equal to the modified one. CalcAppDelegate *appDel = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSLog(@"Size before reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); appDel.globalClasses = allCourses; NSLog(@"Size after reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); What I'm seeing that's returned is 2 in the before, and 2 after. So it doesn't appear to be getting updated properly. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

    Read the article

  • Not getting the right expected output for my Mysql Query?

    - by user1878107
    i've 4 tables as shown below doctors id name ------------ 1 Mathew 2 Praveen 3 Rosie 4 Arjun 5 Denis doctors_appointments id doctors_id patient_name contact date status -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 1 5 Nidhin 9876543210 2012-12-10 15:39:41 Registered 2 5 Sunny 9876543210 2012-12-18 15:39:48 Registered 3 5 Mani 9876543210 2012-12-12 15:39:57 Registered 4 2 John 9876543210 2012-12-24 15:40:09 Registered 5 4 Raj 9876543210 2012-12-05 15:41:57 Registered 6 3 Samuel 9876543210 2012-12-14 15:41:33 Registered 7 2 Louis 9876543210 2012-12-24 15:40:23 Registered 8 1 Federick 9876543210 2012-12-28 15:41:05 Registered 9 2 Sam 9876543210 2012-12-12 15:40:38 Registered 10 4 Sita 9876543210 2012-12-12 15:41:00 Registered doctors_dutyplan id doctor_id weeks time no_of_patients ------------------------------------------------------------------ 1 1 3,6,7 9:00am-1:00pm 10 2 2 3,4,5 1:00pm-4:00pm 7 3 3 3,6,7 10:00am-2:00pm 10 4 4 3,4,5,6 8:30am-12:30pm 12 5 5 3,4,5,6,7 9:00am-4:00pm 30 emp_leave id empid leavedate -------------------------------- 1 2 2012-12-05 14:42:36 2 2 2012-12-03 14:42:59 3 3 2012-12-03 14:43:06 4 3 2012-12-06 14:43:14 5 5 2012-12-04 14:43:24 My task is to find all the days in a month in which the doctor is available excluding the leave dates. My query what is wrote is given below: SELECT DATE_ADD( '2012-12-01', INTERVAL ROW DAY ) AS Date, ROW +1 AS DayOfMonth FROM ( SELECT @row := @row +1 AS ROW FROM ( SELECT 0 UNION ALL SELECT 1 UNION ALL SELECT 3 UNION ALL SELECT 4 UNION ALL SELECT 5 UNION ALL SELECT 6 )t1, ( SELECT 0 UNION ALL SELECT 1 UNION ALL SELECT 3 UNION ALL SELECT 4 UNION ALL SELECT 5 UNION ALL SELECT 6 )t2, ( SELECT @row := -1 )t3 LIMIT 31 )b WHERE DATE_ADD( '2012-12-01', INTERVAL ROW DAY ) BETWEEN '2012-12-01' AND '2012-12-31' AND DAYOFWEEK( DATE_ADD( '2012-12-01', INTERVAL ROW DAY ) ) =2 AND DATE_ADD( '2012-12-01', INTERVAL ROW DAY ) NOT IN ( SELECT DATE_FORMAT( l.leavedate, '%Y-%m-%d' ) AS date FROM doctors_dutyplan d LEFT JOIN emp_leave AS l ON d.doctor_id = l.empid WHERE doctor_id =2 ) This works fine for all doctors who took any leave in a particular day in a month (here in the example it is Decemeber 2012). and the result is shown below: Date DayOfMonth ----------------------- 2012-12-10 10 2012-12-17 17 2012-12-24 24 2012-12-31 31 But on the other hand for the doctors who did'nt took any leave , for that my query is showing empty table, example for the doctor Mathew whose id is 1, my query returns an empty result can anyone please tell a solution for this problem. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • StructureMap Issue in Initializing the Dependencies

    - by azamsharp
    I am performing some unit tests and want my MembershipProvider to initialize the dependencies. I run the following code before any test is executed [TestFixtureSetup]. public static void StructureMapConfiguration() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(InitializeUsingScanning); } private static void InitializeUsingScanning(IInitializationExpression obj) { obj.Scan( x => { x.Assembly("EStudyMongoDb.Business"); x.WithDefaultConventions(); } ); } Here is my EstablishContext method which is triggered before running any test: public override void EstablishContext() { _provider = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<MongoDbMembershipProvider>(); _config.Add("applicationName", "EStudyApplication"); _config.Add("name", "EStudyMembershipProvider"); _config.Add("requiresQuestionAndAnswer", "false"); _provider.Initialize(_config["name"], _config); } Here is my test: [TestFixture] public class when_creating_a_new_user : specification_for_membership_provider { public override void When() { _user = _provider.CreateUser("johndoe", "password", "[email protected]", String.Empty, String.Empty, true, null, out _status); } [Test] public void should_create_successfully() { var vUser = Membership.GetUser(_user.UserName); Assert.IsNotNull(vUser); } } Now, in the Membership.GetUser method I try to access the _userRepository but I get null.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Use an Array to Cycle Through a MySQL Where Statement

    - by Ryan
    I'm trying to create a loop that will output multiple where statements for a MySQL query. Ultimately, my goal is to end up with these four separate Where statements: `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '2' `fruit` = '2' AND `vegetables` = '1' `fruit` = '2' AND `vegetables` = '2' My theoretical code is pasted below: <?php $columnnames = array('fruit','vegetables'); $column1 = array('1','2'); $column2 = array('1','2'); $where = ''; $column1inc =0; $column2inc =0; while( $column1inc <= count($column1) ) { if( !empty( $where ) ) $where .= ' AND '; $where = "`".$columnnames[0]."` = "; $where .= "'".$column1[$column1inc]."'"; while( $column2inc <= count($column2) ) { if( !empty( $where ) ) $where .= ' AND '; $where .= "`".$columnnames[1]."` = "; $where .= "'".$column2[$column2inc]."'"; echo $where."\n"; $column2inc++; } $column1inc++; } ?> When I run this code, I get the following output: `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '2' `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '2' AND `vegetables` = '' Does anyone see what I am doing incorrectly? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • WPF: Editable ComboBox; how to make search/auto-fill functionality case sensitive?

    - by unforgiven3
    Say I have a ComboBox, like so: <ComboBox IsEditable="True" Height="30"> <ComboBoxItem>robot</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>Robot</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> If a user comes along and starts by typing a lower-case 'r' into that ComboBox when it is empty, the ComboBox predictably auto-fills itself with the word 'robot'. Great. Now the same user comes along and starts typing an upper-case 'R' into that ComboBox when it is again empty. Unpredictable, the ComboBox auto-fills itself with the lower-case word 'robot'. Not great. I desperately want it to auto-fill itself with 'Robot', but WPF does not seem to want to smile down upon me. No matter what you do (CAPS lock, shift+key), the ComboBox will always auto-fill with the lower case 'robot', provided that the lower case 'robot' precedes the upper case 'Robot' in the ComboBox's items collection. Is there any way to prevent this? This behavior is maddening and makes for an absolutely abysmal user experience.

    Read the article

  • Delete Duplicate records from large csv file C# .Net

    - by Sandhurst
    I have created a solution which read a large csv file currently 20-30 mb in size, I have tried to delete the duplicate rows based on certain column values that the user chooses at run time using the usual technique of finding duplicate rows but its so slow that it seems the program is not working at all. What other technique can be applied to remove duplicate records from a csv file Here's the code, definitely I am doing something wrong DataTable dtCSV = ReadCsv(file, columns); //columns is a list of string List column DataTable dt=RemoveDuplicateRecords(dtCSV, columns); private DataTable RemoveDuplicateRecords(DataTable dtCSV, List<string> columns) { DataView dv = dtCSV.DefaultView; string RowFilter=string.Empty; if(dt==null) dt = dv.ToTable().Clone(); DataRow row = dtCSV.Rows[0]; foreach (DataRow row in dtCSV.Rows) { try { RowFilter = string.Empty; foreach (string column in columns) { string col = column; RowFilter += "[" + col + "]" + "='" + row[col].ToString().Replace("'","''") + "' and "; } RowFilter = RowFilter.Substring(0, RowFilter.Length - 4); dv.RowFilter = RowFilter; DataRow dr = dt.NewRow(); bool result = RowExists(dt, RowFilter); if (!result) { dr.ItemArray = dv.ToTable().Rows[0].ItemArray; dt.Rows.Add(dr); } } catch (Exception ex) { } } return dt; }

    Read the article

  • Login Page using ASP.Net & Ajax

    - by user1293474
    I'm trying to make a login page using html, ajax & ASP.NET.The data is truly passed to the ajax function, but when I debug the asp page the username and password are sent with NULL. The code is supposed to take username & password then returns the userid Html page: <div id="usernameid">Username:</div><input id="username" type="text"/> <span id="username_status"></span> <div id="passwordid">Password:</div><input id="password" type="password"/> <span id="password_status"></span> <div> <input id="loginbutton" onclick="UserLogin()" type="submit" value="Submit" /></div> Javascript: function UserLogin() { var postData = JSON.stringify({ "username": JSON.stringify($("#username").val()), "password": JSON.stringify($("#password").val()) }); alert(postData); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://localhost:49317/LoginPageForLearn.aspx", data: postData, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "jsonp", jsonp: 'jsoncallback', success: callbackfunction, error: function (msg) { alert(msg); } }); } Asp.net page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string userName = ""; int userId = -1; string PassWord = ""; if (Request.QueryString.Count != 0 && Request.QueryString["username"] != string.Empty && Request.QueryString["password"] != string.Empty) { userName = Request.QueryString["username"]; PassWord = Request.QueryString["password"]; userId = GetUserID(userName, PassWord); } } Do you have any ideas why isn't the data passed correctly ? Or do you have any other ideas on how can I make a login page using html and access the data at SQL. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Association and model data saving problem

    - by Zhlobopotam
    Developing with cakephp 1.3 (latest from github). There are 2 models bind with hasAndBelongsToMany: documents and tags. Document can have many tags in other words. I've add a new document submitting form there user can enter a list of tags separated with commas (new tag will be added, if not exist already). I looked at cakephp bakery 2.0 source code on github and found the solution. But it seems that something is wrong. class Document extends AppModel { public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Tag'); public function beforeSave($options = array()) { if (isset($this->data[$this->alias]['tags']) && !empty($this- >data[$this->alias]['tags'])) { $tagIds = $this->Tag->saveDocTags($this->data[$this->alias] ['tags']); unset($this->data[$this->alias]['tags']); $this->data[$this->Tag->alias][$this->Tag->alias] = $tagIds; } return true; } } class Tag extends AppModel { public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ('Document'); public function saveDocTags($commalist = '') { if ($commalist == '') return null; $tags = explode(',',$commalist); if (empty($tags)) return null; $existing = $this->find('all', array( 'conditions' => array('title' => $tags) )); $return = Set::extract($existing,'/Tag/id'); if (sizeof($existing) == sizeof($tags)) { return $return; } $existing = Set::extract($existing,'/Tag/title'); foreach ($tags as $tag) { if (!in_array($tag, $existing)) { $this->create(array('title' => $tag)); $this->save(); $return[] = $this->id; } } return $return; } } So, new tags creation works well but document model can't save association data and tells: SQL Error: 1054: Unknown column 'Array' in 'field list' Query: INSERT INTO documents (title, content, shortnfo, date, status) VALUES ('Document with tags', '', '', Array, 1) Any ideas how to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • PHP script not automatically updating when moved to another server

    - by user32007
    A friend built a ranking system on his site and I am trying to host in on mine via WordPress and Go Daddy. It updates for him but when I load it to my site, it works for 6 hours, but as soon as the reload is supposed to occur, it errors and I get a 500 timeout error. His page is at: jeremynoeljohnson .com/yakezieclub My page is currently at http://sweatingthebigstuff.com/yakezieclub but when you ?reload=1 it will give the error. Any idea why this might be happening? Any settings that I might need to change? Here is the top of the index.php file. I'm not sure which part of any of it is messing up. I literally uploaded the same code as him. Here's the reload part: $cachefile = "rankings.html"; $daycachefile = "rankings_history.xml"; $cachetime = (60 * 60) * 6; // every 6 hours, the cache refreshes $daycachetime = (60 * 60) * 24; // every 24 hours, the history will be written to // - or whenever the page is requested after 24 hours has passed $writenewdata = false; if (!empty($_GET['reload'])) { if ($_GET['reload']== 1) { $cachetime = 1; } } if (!empty($_GET['reloadhistory'])) { if ($_GET['reloadhistory'] == 1) { $daycachetime = 1; $cachetime = 1; } } if (file_exists($daycachefile) && (time() - $daycachetime < filemtime($daycachefile))) { // Do nothing } else { $writenewdata = true; $cachetime = 1; } // Serve from the cache if it is younger than $cachetime if (file_exists($cachefile) && (time() - $cachetime < filemtime($cachefile))) { include($cachefile); echo "<!-- Cached ".date('jS F Y H:i', filemtime($cachefile))." -->"; exit; } ob_start(); // start the output buffer ?>

    Read the article

  • Dynamic ExpandableListView

    - by JLB
    Can anyone tell me how I can Dynamically add groups & children to an ExpandableListView. The purpose is to create a type of task list that I can add new items/groups to. I can populate the view with pre-filled arrays but of course can't add to them to populate the list further. The other method i tried was using the SimpleExpandableListAdapter. Using this i am able to add groups from a List but when it comes to adding children i can only add 1 item per group. public List<Map<String, String>> groupData = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); public List<List<Map<String, String>>> childData = new ArrayList<List<Map<String, String>>>(); public void addGroup(String group) { Map curGroupMap = new HashMap(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put(NAME, group); //Add an empty child or else the app will crash when group is expanded. List<Map<String, String>> children = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); Map<String, String> curChildMap = new HashMap<String, String>(); children.add(curChildMap); curChildMap.put(NAME, "EMPTY"); childData.add(children); updateAdapter(); } public void addChild(String child) { List children = new ArrayList(); Map curChildMap = new HashMap(); children.add(curChildMap); curChildMap.put(NAME, child); curChildMap.put(IS_EVEN, "This child is even"); childData.add(activeGroup, children); updateAdapter(); }

    Read the article

  • Rails Active Record Mysql find query HAVING clause

    - by meetraghu28
    Is there a way to use the HAVING clause in some other way without using group by. I am using rails and following is a sample sccenario of the problem that i am facing. In rails you can use the Model.find(:all,:select,conditions,:group) function to get data. In this query i can specify a having clause in the :group param. But what if i dont have a group by clause but want to have a having clause in the result set. Ex: Lets take a query select sum(x) as a,b,c from y where "some_conditions" group by b,c; This query has a sum() aggregation on one of the fields. No if there is nothing to aggregate then my result should be an empty set. But mysql return a NULL row. So this problem can be solved by using select sum(x) as a,b from y where "some_conditions" group by b having a NOT NULL; but what happens in case i dont have a group by clause?? a query like below select sum(x) as a,b from y where "some_conditions"; so how to specify that sum(x) should not be NULL? Any solution that would return an empty set in this case instead of a NULL row will help and also that solution should be doable in rails. We can use subqueries to get this condition working with sumthin like this select * from ((select sum(x) as b FROM y where "some_condition") as subq) where subq.b is not null; but is there a better way to do this thru sql/rails ??

    Read the article

  • Ldap_add() : Invalid Syntax

    - by Suezy
    I have a program here that uses the ldap_add, when i try to run the program, it displays an error: Warning: ldap_add() [function.ldap-add]: Add: Invalid syntax in /var/www/suey/costcenter.20090617.php on line 780 My lil' code here is: $ldapservers='ourServer'; $ds = ldap_connect($ldapservers); if ($ds){ $r = ldap_bind($ds, $ldaprootun, $ldaprootpw); $add = ldap_add($ds, "uid=$fuid, $ldapbasedn", $infonew); } ldapbasedn is set to o=ourGroup; infonew is an array of entries (person information) and am so sure that the array is not empty because i already tested it. the uid is not empty too. What could be wrong? Is it the entries(array)? or the server am trying to connect to? I tried testing the ldap_bind, and it also works well too..hmmm.. Pls help.. thanks! I found the problem.. it's in the index infonew["createdBy"] = getenv("REMOTE_USER"); it returns NULL! now, is that right?

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by user309029
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86  | Next Page >