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  • Python - Open default mail client using mailto, with multiple recipients

    - by victorhooi
    Hi, I'm attempting to write a Python function to send an email to a list of users, using the default installed mail client. I want to open the email client, and give the user the opportunity to edit the list of users or the email body. I did some searching, and according to here: http://www.sightspecific.com/~mosh/WWW_FAQ/multrec.html It's apparently against the RFC spec to put multiple comma-delimited recipients in a mailto link. However, that's the way everybody else seems to be doing it. What exactly is the modern stance on this? Anyhow, I found the following two sites: http://2ality.blogspot.com/2009/02/generate-emails-with-mailto-urls-and.html http://www.megasolutions.net/python/invoke-users-standard-mail-client-64348.aspx which seem to suggest solutions using urllib.parse (url.parse.quote for me), and webbrowser.open. I tried the sample code from the first link (2ality.blogspot.com), and that worked fine, and opened my default mail client. However, when I try to use the code in my own module, it seems to open up my default browser, for some weird reason. No funny text in the address bar, it just opens up the browser. The email_incorrect_phone_numbers() function is in the Employees class, which contains a dictionary (employee_dict) of Employee objects, which themselves have a number of employee attributes (sn, givenName, mail etc.). Full code is actually here (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2963975/python-converting-csv-to-objects-code-design) from urllib.parse import quote import webbrowser .... def email_incorrect_phone_numbers(self): email_list = [] for employee in self.employee_dict.values(): if not PhoneNumberFormats.standard_format.search(employee.telephoneNumber): print(employee.telephoneNumber, employee.sn, employee.givenName, employee.mail) email_list.append(employee.mail) recipients = ', '.join(email_list) webbrowser.open("mailto:%s?subject=%s&body=%s" % (recipients, quote("testing"), quote('testing')) ) Any suggestions? Cheers, Victor

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  • Browser dependent problem rendering WMD with Showdown.js?

    - by CMPalmer
    This should be easy (at least no one else seems to be having a similar problem), but I can't see where it is breaking. I'm storing Markdown'ed text in a database that is entered on a page in my app. The text is entered using WMD and the live preview looks correct. On another page, I'm retrieving the markdown text and using Showdown.js to convert it back to HTML client-side for display. Let's say I have this text: The quick **brown** fox jumped over the *lazy* dogs. 1. one 1. two 4. three 17. four I'm using this snippet of Javascript in my jQuery document ready event to convert it: var sd = new Attacklab.showdown.converter(); $(".ClassOfThingsIWantConverted").each(function() { this.innerHTML = sd.makeHtml($(this).html()); } I suspect this is where my problem is, but it almost works. In FireFox, I get what I expected: The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dogs. one two three four But in IE (7 and 6), I get this: The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dogs. 1. one 1. two 4. three 17. four So apparently, IE is stripping the breaks in my markdown code and just converting them to spaces. When I do a view source of the original code (prior to the script running), the breaks are there inside the container DIV. What am I doing wrong? UPDATE It is caused by the IE innerHTML/innerText "quirk" and I should have mentioned before that this one on an ASP.Net page using data bound controls - there are obviously a lot of different workarounds otherwise.

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  • Jquery - binding click event to a variable

    - by Kayote
    All, I am really stuck/ confused at this point. I have an array with 6 items in it. Each item in the array is dynamically filled with elements using jquery '.html' method. However, I cannot seem to be able to attach/ bind an event to this dynamically created variable. As soon as the browser gets to the problem line (see the area labeled 'PROBLEM AREA'), I get a 'undefined' error, which is really confusing as all the previous code on the very same variable works just fine. var eCreditSystem = document.getElementById("creditSystem"); var i = 0; var eCreditT = new Array(6); // 6 members created which will be recycled function createCreditTransaction () // func called when a transaction occurs, at the mo, attached to onclick() { if (i < 6) { eCreditT[i] = undefined; // to delete the existing data in the index of array addElements (i); } else if (i > 5 || eCreditT[i] != undefined) { ... } } function addElements (arrayIndex) // func called from within the 'createCreditTransaction()' func { eCreditT[i] = $(document.createElement('div')).addClass("cCreditTransaction").appendTo(eCreditSystem); $(eCreditT[i]).attr ('id', ('trans' + i)); $(eCreditT[i]).html ('<div class="cCreditContainer"><span class="cCreditsNo">-50</span>&nbsp;<img class="cCurrency" src="" alt="" /></div><span class="cCloseMsg">Click box to close.</span><div class="dots"></div><div class="dots"></div><div class="dots"></div>'); creditTransactionSlideOut (eCreditT[i], 666); // calling slideOut animation console.log(eCreditT[i]); // this confirms that the variable is not undefined /* ***** THE PROBLEM AREA ***** */ $(eCreditT[i]).on ('click', function () // if user clicks on the transaction box { creditTransactionSlideBackIn (eCreditT[i], 150); // slide back in animation }); return i++; }

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  • Object Oriented Database - why most of the companies do not use them

    - by GigaPr
    Hi, I am pretty new to programming(just finished University). I have been thought in the last 4 years about Object Oriented development and the numerous advantages of this approach. My question is Isn't it easier to use a pure Object Oriented database in development applications? Why Object Oriented database are not as much diffuse as relational? From my point of view makes sense to use OO database, the latter will avoid the numerous construction necessary for the mapping of complex objects on the tables.

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  • How to call a service operation at a REST style WCF endpoint uri?

    - by Dieter Domanski
    Hi, is it possible to call a service operation at a wcf endpoint uri with a self hosted service? I want to call some default service operation when the client enters the endpoint uri of the service. In the following sample these uris correctly call the declared operations (SayHello, SayHi): - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hello - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hi But the uri - http://localhost:4711/clerk does not call the declared SayWelcome operation. Instead it leads to the well known 'Metadata publishing disabled' page. Enabling mex does not help, in this case the mex page is shown at the endpoint uri. private void StartSampleServiceHost() { ServiceHost serviceHost = new ServiceHost(typeof(Clerk), new Uri( "http://localhost:4711/clerk/")); ServiceEndpoint endpoint = serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IClerk), new WebHttpBinding(), ""); endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); serviceHost.Open(); } [ServiceContract] public interface IClerk { [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "")] Stream SayWelcome(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hello/")] Stream SayHello(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hi/")] Stream SayHi(); } public class Clerk : IClerk { public Stream SayWelcome() { return Say("welcome"); } public Stream SayHello() { return Say("hello"); } public Stream SayHi() { return Say("hi"); } private Stream Say(string what) { string page = @"<html><body>" + what + "</body></html>"; return new MemoryStream(Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(page)); } } Is there any way to disable the mex handling and to enable a declared operation instead? Thanks in advance, Dieter

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  • Dynamically change my schema

    - by Kirk
    I am wondering if there is a way to change the schema that I am working in while inside Management Studio. For instance I may have a default schema of dbo. But there are times I may want to query objects in say the accounting schema. It would be nice if I could issue a command and make it so I no longer must include the accounting before tables and views. But the next time I go in, I will be back to default of dbo.

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  • how to update a selected record in a dataset and update another datatable in another Adoconnection?

    - by ml
    I have 2 adoconnections and 2 datatables in each connection (Local Table1_master Table1_Detail) (Network Table1_master Table1_Detail). I show them in a DBgrid and now I would like to update the (Local Table1_master Table1_Detail) from the tables in (Network Table1_master Table1_Detail). How can I update the selected records? I have tried many ways but normally it inserts more records and doesn´t update the record. I use a .MDB database.

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  • Replacing ORM schema without dropping the entire data

    - by Udi
    Hey, I'm using OpenJPA as a JPA provider. Is there a way in which I can recreate the database tables (When an entity changes) without dropping the entire data? When an entity changes, I drop and create every table in the store, and obviously lose the data within. Is there a tool or product to keep the data somehow? Thanks, Udi

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  • How do I map common properties in NHibernate

    - by Ian Oakes
    In the database I'm working with, every table repeats the same nine columns and I don't want to have to supply the same properties in each of my entities to map these columns. I've tried adding properties to a common base class and adding them to the sub class's mapping file, but this doesn't work. I've read the documentation around inheritance mapping but this did not help. What is the best way to map columns that repeat accross multiple tables in NHibernate?

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  • document.onkeyup triggers when it shouldn't

    - by vonkow
    So I have the following code, which should append 'true' to the div "test" every 25ms as long as key 68 (the d key) is being pressed, right? <html> <body> <div id="test"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> var key=false; var keyDown=function(e) { if (e.keyCode==68) { key=true; } } var keyUp=function(e) { if (e.keyCode==68) { key=false; } } document.onkeydown=keyDown; document.onkeyup=keyUp; var run=function() { document.getElementById('test').appendChild(document.createTextNode(key+'\n')); t = setTimeout('run()', 25); } var t = setTimeout('run()', 25); </script> </body> </html> Save the code, load it in a browser and hold down on the d key. If I'm not crazy, you'll see that it occasionally appends 'false' even though the d key was never released. (I've tried this in FF and Chrome in Linux and Vista). Anybody happen to know why, or have a workaround?

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  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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  • ASP Menu driving me insane

    - by simplesimon
    Hi there, I am trying to create a menu using ASP (I have never used ASP before, im a PHP man) using values stored in a database. basically the html layout i want is as such: <ul> <li> <ul class="sub-menu"> <li class="sub-menu-li">Test</li> </ul> </li> </ul> I need to loop around the root menu items rs("AD_Level") which is equal to 0 for root objects, then inside that loop, lop around anything that has the same parent id eg if the current record is AD_Level =0 and AD_Parent=5 then loop around all items with AD_Parent 5 and AD_Level != 0 and insert the values into html and so on and so forth. Please help! I am struggling with a new language and cannot see a way to do this without losing sanity Edit (Extracted from Comment by OP) while not rsAdmin.eof sPar = rsAdmin("ad_parent" if rsAdmin("AD_Level")=0 then while not rsAdmin2.eof if rsAdmin2("AD_Level")<>0 and rsAdmin2("ad_parent")=sPar and rsAdmin2("AD_Sec_Level")=>2 then response.write rsAdmin("AD_Menu") end if rsAdmin2.movenext wend end if '' # if not rsAdmin.eof then sPar=rsAdmin("AD_parent") rsAdmin.movenext wend that is my code

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  • SQL GUI Programs

    - by jake
    Are there any programs with a gui which let you create a SQL database, create tables, define the primary and foreign keys and insert data? I am tired of having to use the mysql command line client, very tedious.

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  • How to- NSAttributedString to CGImageRef

    - by kroko
    Hello! I'm writing a QuickLook plugin. Well, everything works. Just want to try it make better ;). Thus the question. Here is a function that returns thumbnail image and that I'm using now. QLThumbnailRequestSetImageWithData( QLThumbnailRequestRef thumbnail, CFDataRef data, CFDictionaryRef properties); ); http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/documentation/UserExperience/Reference/QLThumbnailRequest_Ref/Reference/reference.html#//apple_ref/c/func/QLThumbnailRequestSetImageWithData Right now I'm creating a TIFF - encapsulated it into NSData. An example // Setting CFDataRef CGSize thumbnailMaxSize = QLThumbnailRequestGetMaximumSize(thumbnail); NSMutableAttributedString *attributedString = [[[NSMutableAttributedString alloc] initWithString:@"dummy" attributes:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSFont fontWithName:@"Monaco" size:10], NSFontAttributeName, [NSColor colorWithCalibratedRed:0.0 green:0.0 blue:0.0 alpha:1.0], NSForegroundColorAttributeName, nil] ] autorelease]; NSImage *thumbnailImage = [[[NSImage alloc] initWithSize:NSMakeSize(thumbnailMaxSize.width, thumbnailMaxSize.height)] autorelease]; [thumbnailImage lockFocus]; [[NSColor whiteColor] set]; NSRectFill(NSMakeRect(0, 0, thumbnailMaxSize.width, thumbnailMaxSize.height)); [attributedString drawInRect:NSMakeRect(0, 0, thumbnailMaxSize.width, thumbnailMaxSize.height)]; [thumbnailImage unlockFocus]; (CFDataRef)[thumbnailImage TIFFRepresentation]; // This is data // Setting CFDictionaryRef (CFDictionaryRef)[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"kUTTypeTIFF", (NSString *)kCGImageSourceTypeIdentifierHint, nil ]; // this is properties However QuickLook provides another function to return thumbnail image, namely QLThumbnailRequestSetImage( QLThumbnailRequestRef thumbnail, CGImageRef image, CFDictionaryRef properties); ); http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/documentation/UserExperience/Reference/QLThumbnailRequest_Ref/Reference/reference.html#//apple_ref/c/func/QLThumbnailRequestSetImage I have a feeling that passing CGImage to the QL instead of TIFF data would help in speeding things up. However- I have never worked with CG context before. I know, the documentation is there :), but anyways- could anyone give an example how to turn that NSAttributed string into CGImageRef. An example is worth 10 times reading the documentation ;) Any help appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Extend the bootstrap-typeahead in order to take an object instead of a string

    - by Lorraine Bernard
    _.extend($.fn.typeahead.Constructor.prototype, { render: function (items) { var that = this; items = $(items).map(function (i, item) { i = $(that.options.item) .attr('data-value', item[that.options.display]) .attr('data-id', item.id); i.find('a').html(that.highlighter(item)); return i[0]; }); items.first().addClass('active'); this.$menu.html(items); return this; }, select: function () { var val = this.$menu.find('.active').attr('data-value'), id = this.$menu.find('.active').attr('data-id'); this.$element .val(this.updater(val, id)) .change(); return this.hide() } }); return function (element, options) { var getSource = function () { var users = app.userCollection.filter(function (model) { if (options && options.excludeCurrentUser) { return model.id !== app.currentUser.id; } }); return _.map(users, function (user) { return { id: user.get('id'), full_name: user.get('first_name') + ' ' + user.get('last_name') }; }); }; element.typeahead({ minLength: 3, source: getSource, display: 'full_name', sorter: function (items) { var beginswith = [], caseSensitive = [], caseInsensitive = [], item, itemDisplayed; while (item = items.shift()) { itemDisplayed = item[this.options.display]; if (!itemDisplayed.toLowerCase().indexOf(this.query.toLowerCase())) { beginswith.push(item); } else if (~itemDisplayed.indexOf(this.query)) { caseSensitive.push(item); } else { caseInsensitive.push(item); } } return beginswith.concat(caseSensitive, caseInsensitive); }, highlighter: function (item) { var query = this.query.replace(/[\-\[\]{}()*+?.,\\\^$|#\s]/g, '\\$&'); return item[this.options.display].replace(new RegExp('(' + query + ')', 'ig'), function ($1, match) { return '<strong>' + match + '</strong>'; }); }, matcher: function (item) { var value = item[this.options.display]; return { value: ~value.toLowerCase().indexOf(this.query.toLowerCase()), id: item.id }; }, updater: function (item, userId) { options.hiddenInputElement.val(userId); return item; } }); };

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  • Is it possible to do A/B testing by page rather than by individual?

    - by mojones
    Lets say I have a simple ecommerce site that sells 100 different t-shirt designs. I want to do some a/b testing to optimise my sales. Let's say I want to test two different "buy" buttons. Normally, I would use AB testing to randomly assign each visitor to see button A or button B (and try to ensure that that the user experience is consistent by storing that assignment in session, cookies etc). Would it be possible to take a different approach and instead, randomly assign each of my 100 designs to use button A or B, and measure the conversion rate as (number of sales of design n) / (pageviews of design n) This approach would seem to have some advantages; I would not have to worry about keeping the user experience consistent - a given page (e.g. www.example.com/viewdesign?id=6) would always return the same html. If I were to test different prices, it would be far less distressing to the user to see different prices for different designs than different prices for the same design on different computers. I also wonder whether it might be better for SEO - my suspicion is that Google would "prefer" that it always sees the same html when crawling a page. Obviously this approach would only be suitable for a limited number of sites; I was just wondering if anyone has tried it?

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  • MySQL Workbench - How to synchronize the EER Diagram

    - by Tiago Alves
    I am creating a visual representation of my existing database with MySQL Workbench and I am able to synchronize the models with the "Database - Synchronize Model..." menu. However, every time I synchronize (update) my model, I have to recreate the EER Diagram and rearrange all the tables. Is there a way to update or synchronize the EER Diagram as well? Thanks.

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  • Scrolling to the bottom of a div on page load: issue with syntaxhighlighter

    - by Rayne
    I've been using this code: var objDiv = document.getElementById("code"); objDiv.scrollTop = objDiv.scrollHeight; to scroll to the very bottom of the div. It worked perfectly in FF and Chrome (I asked a question about it not working in Chrome a few days ago, but it appears the guy who was testing it on Chrome was incorrect, so I tested it myself) until I started syntax highlighting the code that I put in the div with SyntaxHighlighter. Before, I was putting the code in a <p> and breaking lines with <br />, but the <br /> stuff doesn't fly with SyntaxHighlighter, so I replaced all of those with newlines (not entirely certain if this is important, but it's worth mentioning). Now, when the page loads, it does scroll, but not all the way down. It scrolls nearly to the bottom. I've tried all the methods listed in the other question I mentioned but they all do the same thing, or nothing at all. Is there anything else I can try? Here is the relevant piece of the generated HTML. Forgive the poor formatting, I'm not writing the HTML by hand, but rather using Hiccup with Clojure, and it doesn't bother with formatting. <div class="scroll" id="code"><pre class="brush: clojure">=> (doseq [x (range 1 100)] (println x)) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 nil </pre></div><script type="text/javascript">var objDiv = document.getElementById("code"); objDiv.scrollTop = objDiv.scrollHeight;</script>

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  • Rails form with a better URL

    - by Sam
    Wow, switching to REST is a different paradigm for sure and is mainly a headache right now. view <% form_tag (businesses_path, :method => "get") do %> <%= select_tag :business_category_id, options_for_select(@business_categories.collect {|bc| [bc.name, bc.id ]}.insert(0, ["All Containers", 0]), which_business_category(@business_category) ), { :onchange => "this.form.submit();"} %> <% end %> controller def index @business_categories = BusinessCategory.find(:all) if params[:business_category_id].to_i != 0 @business_category = BusinessCategory.find(params[:business_category_id]) @businesses = @business_category.businesses else @businesses = Business.all end respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @businesses } end end routes map.resources What I want to to is get a better URL than what this form is presenting which is the following: http://localhost:3000/businesses?business_category_id=1 Without REST I would have do something like http://localhost:3000/business/view/bbq bbq as permalink or I would have done http://localhost:300/business_categories/view/bbq and get the business that are associated with the category but I don't really know the best way of doing this. So the two questions are what is the best logic of finding a business by its categories using the latter form and number two how to get that in a pretty URL all through RESTful routes in Rails.

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  • Sql query listing Fathers and childs with joins, how to distinct them?

    - by DaNieL
    Having those tables: table_n1: | t1_id | t1_name | | 1 | foo | table_n2: | t2_id | t1_id | t2_name | | 1 | 1 | bar | I need a query that gives me two result: | names | | foo | | foo / bar | But i cant figure out the right way. I wrote this one: SELECT CONCAT_WS(' / ', table_n1.t1_name, table_n2.t2_name) AS names FROM table_n1 LEFT JOIN table_n2 ON table_n2.t1_id = table_n1.t1_id that works for an half: this only return the 2° row (in the example above): | names | | foo - bar | This query return the 'father' (table_n1) name only when it doesnt have 'childs' (table_n2). How can i fix it?

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  • JSF 2.0 Dynamic Views

    - by Robe Eleckers
    Hello, I'm working on a web project which uses JSF 2.0, PrimeFaces and PrettyFaces as main frameworks / libraries. The pages have the following (common) structure: Header, Content, Footer. Header: The Header always contains the same menu. This menu is a custom component, which generates a recursive html <ul><li> list containing <a href="url"> html links, this is all rendered with a custom renderer. The link looks like 'domain.com/website/datatable.xhtml?ref=2'. Where the ref=2 used to load the correct content from the database. I use prettyfaces to store this request value in a backingbean. Question 1: Is it ok to render the <a href> links myself, or should I better add an HTMLCommandLink from my UIComponent and render that in the encodeBegin/End? Question 2: I think passing variables like this is not really the JSF 2.0 style, how to do this in a better way? Content: The content contains dynamic data. It can be a (primefaces) datatable, build with dynamic data from the database. It can also be a text page, also loaded from the database. Or a series of graphs. You got the point, it's dynamic. The content is based on the link pressed in the header menu. If the content is of type datatable, then I put the ref=2 variable to a DataTableBean (via prettyfaces), which then loads the correct datatable from the database. If the content is of type chart, I'll put it on the ChartBean. Question 3: Is this a normal setup? Ideally I would like to update my content via Ajax. I hope it's clear :)

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  • Rails does not display error messages on a form in a custom method

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I've created a custom method called checkout in my app. I create an order (which is done my adding products to my "cart"), assign it to my client, and then I head to my checkout screen where I confirm the items and enter their customer order number and complete the order (submit). Everything works great except that it doesn't display error messages. I'm able to display a flash error notice (seen in complete_order method) when things go wrong but it doesn't specify the details like a normal form would. The error messages should appear if the customer order number is not unique for that client. Below is the custom method (checkout) related code. Order Model: validates_uniqueness_of :customer_order_number, :scope => :client_id Orders_controller: def checkout @order = current_order end def complete_order @order = current_order respond_to do |format| if @order.update_attributes(params[:order]) @order.complete #sets submitted datetime and state to 'complete' flash[:notice] = 'Thank you! Your order is being processed.' format.html { redirect_to( products_path ) } format.xml { head :ok } else flash[:error] = 'Please review your items' #added to confirm an error is present format.html { redirect_to( checkout_path ) } format.xml { render :xml => @order.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end And the form in the checkout view: <% form_for @order, :url => { :controller => "orders", :action => "complete_order" } do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :customer_order_number, :label => "Purchase Order Number" %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Complete Order', :confirm => 'Are you sure?' %> <small> or <%= link_to 'cancel', current_cart_path %></small> </p> <% end %> Any idea how I can display the specific error messages? Thank you in advance! -Tony

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  • Javascript: "Dangling" Reference to DOM element?

    - by Channel72
    It seems that in Javascript, if you have a reference to some DOM element, and then modify the DOM by adding additional elements to document.body, your DOM reference becomes invalidated. Consider the following code: <html> <head> <script type = "text/javascript"> function work() { var foo = document.getElementById("foo"); alert(foo == document.getElementById("foo")); document.body.innerHTML += "<div>blah blah</div>"; alert(foo == document.getElementById("foo")); } </script> </head> <body> <div id = "foo" onclick='work()'>Foo</div> </body> </html> When you click on the DIV, this alerts "true", and then "false." So in other words, after modifying document.body, the reference to the DIV element is no longer valid. This behavior is the same on Firefox and MSIE. Some questions: Why does this occur? Is this behavior specified by the ECMAScript standard, or is this a browser-specific issue? Note: there's another question posted on stackoverflow that seems to be referring to the same issue, but neither the question nor the answers are very clear.

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