Search Results

Search found 92935 results on 3718 pages for 'single page application'.

Page 8/3718 | < Previous Page | 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15  | Next Page >

  • IIS 7.x Application Pool Best Practices

    - by Eric
    We are about to deploy a bunch of sites to some new servers. I have the following questions about application pools: 1) It seems advisable to have an application pool per website. Are there any caveats to this approach? Can one application pool, for example, hog all the CPU, Memory, Etc...? 2) When should you allow multiple worker processes in an application pool. When should you not? 3) Can private memory limit be used to prevent one application pool from interfering with another? Will setting it too low cause valid requests to recycle the application pool without getting a valid response? 4) What is the difference between private and virtual memory limits? 5) Are there compelling reasons NOT to run one application pool per site? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to install an application manually into Natty's Application list

    - by Valorin
    I am trying to install ZendStudio 8 (Eclipse based) on 11.04 and am kinda stuck at the part were I can get it into the Applications list. ZendStudio prior to version 8 came with a magic .bin which installed it all no problems, but now it simply comes as a folder all set up to be run as-is. I have copied this folder to /opt/ZendStudio, and I can launch the program using /opt/ZendStudio/ZendStudio but in the Unity Launcher it shows up with a grey box and a big Question Mark as it's icon. However, I'd like it to be show up in the Applications list so I can search for it and load it like a normal application. I also want to Pin it to the launcher so it stays there the whole time, and I tried this with running it directly but it didn't work and it didn't load up the application icon. Any ideas how I can finish the install so it is in my menus etc?

    Read the article

  • Loading main javascript on every page? Or breaking it up to relevant pages?

    - by Kyle
    I have a 700kb decompressed JS file which is loaded on every page. Before I had 12 javascript files on each page but to reduce http requests I compressed them all into 1 file. This file is ~130kb gzipped and is served over gzip. However on the local computer it is still unpacked and loaded on every page. Is this a performance issue? I've profiled the javascript with firebug profiler but did not see any issues. The problem/illusion I am facing is there are jquery libraries compressed in that file that are sometimes not used on the current page. For example jquery datatables is 200kb compressed and that is only loaded on 2 of my website pages. Another is jqplot and that is another 200kb. I now have 400kb of excess code that isn't executed on 80% of the pages. Should I leave everything in 1 file? Should I take out the jquery libraries and load only relevant JS on the current page?

    Read the article

  • What is the impact of a CMS on page load time versus a static site?

    - by PleaseStand
    I am creating a 20-page site that will go on shared hosting. Each page will be about 20 KB (including HTML, CSS, and images common to all pages). To avoid manually adding navigation elements to each page, I am considering using a CMS. However, I am concerned that on a busy server, using a CMS would make the site load more slowly. In a shared hosting environment where PHP is run as a CGI binary, how much does a CMS (WordPress, Drupal, etc.) generally affect page load time, compared to both "plain HTML" static sites and those using PHP as merely a templating language?

    Read the article

  • [wordpress] Loop through a specific category on single.php

    - by petrescu
    I've created a custom page and it is set as my homepage, within this custom page I am pulling out the latest post from a specific category, I've also created a form of pagination which when clicked upon will take the user to single.php. My intention for the single.php is to have two custom loops. Custom loop one I want single.php to distinguish that it has came from the homepage and loop through all of the posts tagged with the same category as the one on the homepage. Some of these posts will have to be tagged with more than one category, so the loop will have to know to ignore the other categories and just pay attention to the category in question. Does that make sense? Custom loop two If the user hasn't arrived from the homepage, single.php will just act as it normally does i.e, if the user comes from index.php (the blog) they will be taken to this second loop (blog post) However I don't seem to be able to make the distinction between the two loops, I might be over complicating matters, as I've got a loop which wraps everything together and then I have a loop for my custom pagination. Here is the code below to show you what I'm talking about custompage.php (set to home) - This works just fine but I'll post it just incase anyone is able to tidy it up <?php query_posts('cat=1'); ?> <?php $myPosts = new WP_Query(); $myPosts->query('showposts=1'); if (have_posts()) : while ($myPosts->have_posts()) : $myPosts->the_post(); ?> <script type="text/javascript">$.backstretch("<?php $key="image"; echo get_post_meta($post->ID, $key, true);?>");</script> <div id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>" class="info"> <h2><?php the_title(); ?></h2> <ul class="nav"> <?php query_posts('posts_per_page=1&offset=1'); the_post(); ?> <li class="prev"><a href="<?php the_permalink() ?>">Previous</a></li> <?php wp_reset_query(); ?> <li class="next"></li> </ul> </div> <!-- end .info --> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> <?php wp_reset_query(); ?> single.php - Currently broken <?php if( in_category('1') ) { ?> <!-- start --> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <div id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>" class="info"> <script type="text/javascript">$.backstretch("<?php $key="image"; echo get_post_meta($post->ID, $key, true);?>");</script> <h2><?php the_title(); ?></h2> <ul class="nav"> <li class="prev"><?php previous_post_link('%link', '&nbsp;', 'true', '1') ?></li> <li class="next"><?php next_post_link('%link', '&nbsp;', 'true', '1'); ?></li> <!--li class="prev"><?php //previous_post_link('%link', '%title;', 'true', '1') ?></li> <li class="next"><?php //next_post_link('%link', '%title;', 'true', '1'); ?></li--> </ul> </div> <!-- end .info --> <?php endwhile; else: ?> <?php endif; ?> <!-- end --> <?php }else{ ?> <div id="content" class="widecolumn" role="main"> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <div <?php post_class() ?> id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <h2><?php the_title(); ?></h2> <div class="entry"> <?php the_content('<p class="serif">Read the rest of this entry &raquo;</p>'); ?> </div> </div> <?php comments_template(); ?> <?php endwhile; else: ?> <p>Sorry, no posts matched your criteria.</p> <?php endif; ?> </div> <?php } ?> The problem I seem to be running into is when a post has been tagged with two categories, wordpress doesn't seem to be able to make the distinction between the two categories and instead of carrying on to the next category it breaks and defaults to the second loop.

    Read the article

  • Single Sign On with Forms Authentication

    - by Christo Fur
    I am trying to set up Single sign on for 2 websites that reside on the same domain e.g. http://mydomain (top level site that contains a forms-auth login page) http://mydomain/admin (seperately developed website residing in a Virtual Application within the parent website) Have read a few articles on Single Sign on e.g. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/SingleSignon.aspx And they seem to suggest it is just a case of having the same machinekey section in each web.config so that the cookie encryprion and decryption is the same for each application I have set this up and I never get prompted for credentials in the sub-website (the virtual application) I always get prompted in the parent site. In addition to having the same machinekey I've also tried adding the same <authentication> and <authorisation> elements Any idea what I could be missing?

    Read the article

  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

    Read the article

  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    PLEASE NOTE: I am reposting as the original was not answered correctly... I AM LOOKING FOR THE WHY - NOT THE SOLUTION - I KNOW THE SOLUTION, WHAT I DON'T UNDERSTAND IS THE WHY! I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net Cross Page Posting

    - by John
    Currently I have two pages: The first page contains an input form, and the 2nd page generates an excel document. The input form's button posts to this 2nd page. What I'd like to do is add a second button which also posts to the 2nd page; however, I'll need requests created from this new button to act differently, which brings me to my question: Is there a way I can tell, from the 2nd page, which button was pressed to submit the request? The main reason I'm asking is I'd like to re-use the 2nd page's logic in parsing the information from the first page if possible; I'd rather not have to copy it to a new page and have the new button post to that. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Calling a WCF from ASP.NET with same the single-signon user LogonUserIdentity

    - by Dennis Cheung
    I have a ASP.NET MVC page, which call WCF logic. The system is single-signon using NTML. Both the ASP page and the WCF will use the UserIdentity to get user login information. Other then NTML, I will also have a Form based authorization (with AD) in same system. The ASP page, is it simple and I can have it from HttpContext.Current.Request.LogonUserIdentity. However, it seem it is missing from the WCF which call by the ASP, not from browser. How to configure to pass the ID pass from the ASP to the WCF?

    Read the article

  • How can I make a single WCF method ConcurrencyMode.Multiple when service is ConcurencyMode.Single

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I have a service which is defined as ConcurrencyMode.Single: [ServiceBehavior(ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single, UseSynchronizationContext = false, InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] public class MyService : IMyService This service provides a method to tell the client what it's currently working on: [OperationContract] string GetCurrentTaskDescription(); Is there a way to make this particular method allowable while another long-running task is running where all other methods still follow the single-threaded concurrency model?

    Read the article

  • Showing same dfp ads in a single page web application

    - by mivaas19
    I have a single page web application which contains dfp ads. I have two dfp adunits that Iam firing and they are placed in between the content which is a list of articles for a particular category. When I click on another category,it just loads articles for different category(doesnt change the url in address bar) and triggers the same ads. So this is like triggering the ads on the same page. The ads dont show up the second time and this is because you cant use the same adunits on the same page. Since I cannot use the refresh function provided by dfp since my DOM is reconstructed everytime, is there any way I can do this?.

    Read the article

  • Access &lt;body element from content page via a nested master page

    - by danwellman
    All I want to do is access the <body element from the code-behind of a content page and add a class name to it. I have a top-level master page with the <body element in it. Then I have a nested master page which is the master page for the content page. From the code behind of the content page I want to add a class name to the body element. That's all. I have this in the top-level master: <body id="bodyNode" runat="server"> I added this to the code-behind for the content page: Master.bodyNode.Attributes.add("class", "home-page"); And I get a message that: System.Web.UI.MasterPage' does not contain a definition for 'bodyNode If I add this to the aspx content page: <% @ MasterType VirtualPath="~/MasterPage.master"%> The message then changes to: bodyNode is inaccessible due to its protection level Please advise, I've wasted like 2 hours on what feels like something that should be really simple to do :(

    Read the article

  • Removing phantom applications from Application Pools in IIS7

    - by Col
    I have an application in one of my application pools that has a virtual path of '/Site/login.aspx'. I want to remove it but it no longer exists on my computer and it's causing me issues setting up AppFabric. I understand that you can remove these phantom applications by recreating the application in IIS and then hitting Remove. That will get rid of the application from the pool but in this case I can't recreate the application due to the /login.aspx in the virtual path Any ideas how I remove this erroneous entry? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Application Module Extension in Oracle Application R12

    - by Manoj Madhusoodanan
    In this blog I will describe how to Extend Application Module.I will explain this based on my previous blog PL/SQL based EO.  I want to extend FndUserAM to add a procedure to raise a custom business event when the FND_USER has created successfully. Here I am using a custom business event "xxcust.oracle.apps.demo_event". Please find the code used in Business Event. TablePackage Following steps needs to perform. 1) Download all files pertaining to "Entity Object Based on PL/SQL" to JDEV_USER_HOME/myprojects and JDEV_USER_HOME/myclasses.If you want to see the content of source java file decompile it and save it in JDEV_USER_HOME/myprojects. 2) Create XXFndUserAM as follows. 3) Add following method to XXFndUserAMImpl.    import oracle.apps.fnd.framework.OAException;   import oracle.apps.fnd.framework.server.OADBTransactionImpl;   import oracle.apps.fnd.wf.bes.BusinessEvent;   import oracle.apps.fnd.wf.bes.BusinessEventException;    import java.sql.Connection;     public void raiseEvent(String userName) {        String eventName = "xxcust.oracle.apps.demo_event";        String eventKey = userName;        Connection conn = ((OADBTransactionImpl)getOADBTransaction()).getJdbcConnection();         BusinessEvent event = null;         try{             event = new BusinessEvent(eventName, eventKey);             /* Setting Parameters */             event.setStringProperty("USER_NAME",userName);             event.setStringProperty("STATUS","User has created sucessfully");             event.raise(conn);             }             catch (BusinessEventException e) {                 throw new OAException("Exception occured when invoking web service - "+e.getMessage());             }             getOADBTransaction().commit();    } 4) Create a controller which extends from xxcust.oracle.apps.fnd.user.webui.CreateFndUserCO.Call raiseEvent method from new controller. 5) Create substitution for FndUserAM. 6) Migrate following files to $JAVA_TOP. xxcustom.oracle.apps.fnd.user.server.FndUserAMImpl.javaxxcustom.oracle.apps.fnd.user.server.XXFndUserAM.xmlxxcustom.oracle.apps.fnd.user.webui.XXCreateFndUserCO.java 8) Migrate the substitution. 9) Restart the server. 10) Personalize the page /xxcust/oracle/apps/fnd/user/webuiCreateFndUserPG and set the new controller. 11) Verify the substitution has properly applied by clicking About the Page. 12) Access the page and create a user. You can the the result of the Business Event.

    Read the article

  • IIS, multiple CPU cores, application pools and worker processes - best configuration for a single si

    - by Egghead Design
    Hi We use Kentico CMS and I've exchanged emails with them about a web garden deployment. We have a single site running on a server with 8 cpu cores. In line with Kentico's advice, we have not altered the application pool web garden setting from the default i.e. it is set to a maximum number of worker processes of 1. Our experience is that the site only uses one of the cpu cores - the others are idling. When I emailed them about this, their response was that the OS/IIS would handle this and use other cores as necessary even though the application pool only has a single worker process. Now, I've a lot of respect for the guys at Kentico, but this doesn't seem right to me? Surely, if we want to use all cores, we need to permit eight worker processes (and implement session state storage in SQL server)? Many thanks Tony

    Read the article

  • Network config for KVM on physical machine with single NIC and single public IP

    - by neo0
    I have a physical machine running CentOS 6.4 and I will rent a place to run it in a data center. I want to install KVM on that machine to run some virtual machines. The problem is my physical machine have only one NIC and the data center give me a public IP for that interface. So how should I configure network on the physical machine to make it assign for each vm a private IP that can connect to Internet. If I create a br0 bridged with eth0 interface and create a vm with option --bridge=br0 then KVM could not assign an IP for the vm so setup can not be done. Should I use NAT mode? Does KVM have any host-only network like Virtualbox? But the vm still has to connect to outside? Thank you! Update I install the guest network using NAT (--network network:default) and then I only have to port-forwarding from the host. But if I config br0 bridged with physical eth0 then the guest can not get an IP from boot. So I removed the br0 and it worked.

    Read the article

  • Many users send using a single address, replies to that single address go to many users

    - by Keyslinger
    I work in an office with a Microsoft Exchange server for email. I would like to have the following workflow: John, Mary, or Sam send a message from Outlook on their respective computers. The customer receives the message from the address "[email protected]" The customer replies to the message from [email protected] and it is received by John, Mary, or Sam depending on who sent the message (if it was sent by John, the reply is sent to John, and so on). All users should also be able to send emails from their respective addresses as well (e.g. [email protected], etc.) Is this possible? If so, how can it be accomplished?

    Read the article

  • Many users send using a single address, replies to that single address go to many users

    - by Keyslinger
    I work in an office with a Microsoft Exchange server for email. I would like to have the following workflow: John, Mary, or Sam send a message from Outlook on their respective computers. The customer receives the message from the address "[email protected]" The customer replies to the message from [email protected] and it is received by John, Mary, or Sam depending on who sent the message (if it was sent by John, the reply is sent to John, and so on). All users should also be able to send emails from their respective addresses as well (e.g. [email protected], etc.) Is this possible? If so, how can it be accomplished?

    Read the article

  • getting an embedded resource in a single dll made up of multiple class libraries

    - by Rahul Gupta
    my solution has multiple projects and in one of them I have the code to get the embedded resource (an xml file) from another project. All this works fine when all the projects are seperate. However when all the class libraries are embedded into a single dll, the code to get the resource file does not work i.e. it cannot get the emebedded resource. I was wondering if the references to the emebedded resource get mixed up when they are combined together in a single dll?? I use the method Assembly.GetCallingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream("namespace..filename");

    Read the article

  • Daily Backups for a single table in Microsoft SQL Server

    - by James Horton
    Hello, I have a table in a database that I would like to backup daily, and keep the backups of the last two weeks. It's important that only this single table will be backed up. I couldn't find a way of creating a maintenance plan or a job that will backup a single table, so I thought of creating a stored procedure job that will run the logic I mentioned above by copying rows from my table to a database on a different server, and deleting old rows from that destination database. Unfortunately, I'm not sure if that's even possible. Any ideas how can I accomplish what I'm trying to do would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How To Update a Facebook App Page Status

    - by DigitalZombieKid
    Hi all, I've done a few searches and couldn't find an answer. I'm trying to update the status of my business's "Application Page" (not personal page, and not "Fan Page") on Facebook. Two questions for the community: 1) How to update the "Application Page" status programmatically? I found the answer for a "Fan Page" here (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2097665/authorizing-a-facebook-fan-page-for-status-updates). Does anyone think it will work for an "Application Page" as well? 2) How to update the "Application Page" status through a third party service? Ideally, I'd like to post to one location and have it show up a) on my business twitter status and b) on my Facebook "Application Page" status. Has anyone heard of a company that might be able to help me do this (paid or free)? Thanks and regards, DZK

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15  | Next Page >