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  • deleting cookie at the end of a process

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I am using the following plug in for cookies in jQuery: https://code.google.com/p/cookies/ The issue i am having is not with the plugin but when and how to delete the cookie at the end of a quoting process. The site i am using this on is a six step online quote and buy process. There is Omniture event serialisation sitestat tracking applied to some of the pages. This event serialisation has to include the name of the event and a random number of which i create. I have a generic function for this which i call at the bottom of the page like so: serialEvent('event21:', 'payment'); Here is the function: function serialEvent(eventNumber, eventName) { var sessionID = jaaulde.utils.cookies.get('sessionID'); var remLength = 20 - eventName.length; var remSession = sessionID.substr(sessionID.length - remLength, remLength); var eventName = eventName + remSession; s.events = eventNumber + eventName; } I need to delete the cookie at the end of the process, the Thank you page but i also need the cookie 'sessionID' for the 'serialEvent' function. As the function is called at the bottom of the page should i just write the cookie delete after it? Is that robust enough? I need to be sure that the function has successfully been called before the cookie is deleted. The code for deleting the cookie is quite simple: jaaulde.utils.cookies.del('sessionID'); Thanks :)

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  • jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

    - by Angie Dubis
    I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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  • Detecting one point's location compared to two other points.

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Hi all, you can check my profile, this is not homework. I've got an interesting little problem to solve in a very real software and I'm looking for an easy way to solve it. I've got two fixed points on screen (they're fixed, but I don't know beforehand their position) that are not at the same location. These two fixed points form an imaginary line. Now I've got a third point that is "on one side" of that line (it cannot be on the line). The user can grab the point (the user actually grab an object, whose I track by its center, which is the point I'm interested in) and drag it. But it cannot "cross" the imaginary line. What is the easiest way to detect if the user is crossing the imaginary line? Example: a c / / (c cannot be dragged here) / b Or: c b -------------- a (c cannot be dragged here) So what is an easy to detect if c is staying on the correct "side" of the line (I draw segments here, but it really can be thought of as a line). One way to detect this is to take the destination point d and see if segment (c,d) intersects with line (a,b), but isn't there an easier way? Can't I just do some 2D dot-product magic here and have basically a one or two liner solving my issue?

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  • CCAnimate/CCAnimation cause inconsistent setTexture behavior in cocos2d on iPhone

    - by chillid
    Hi, I have a character that goes through multiple states. The state changes are reflected by means of a sprite image (texture) change. The state change is triggered by a user tapping on the sprite. This works consistently and quite well. I then added an animation during State0. Now, when the user taps - setTexture gets executed to change the texture to reflect State1, however some of the times (unpredictable) it does not change the texture. The code flows as below: // 1. // Create the animation sequence CGRect frame1Rect = CGRectMake(0,32,32,32); CGRect frame2Rect = CGRectMake(32,32,32,32); CCTexture2D* texWithAnimation = [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"Frames0_1_thinkNthickoutline32x32.png"]; id anim = [[[CCAnimation alloc] initWithName:@"Sports" delay:1/25.0] autorelease]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame1Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame2Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; // Make the animation sequence repeat forever id myAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: anim restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; // 2. // Run the animation: sports = [[CCRepeatForever alloc] init]; [sports initWithAction:myAction]; [self.sprite runAction:sports]; // 3. stop action on state change and change texture: NSLog(@"Stopping action"); [sprite stopAction:sports]; NSLog(@"Changing texture for kCJSports"); [self setTexture: [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"SportsOpen.png"]]; [self setTextureRect:CGRectMake(0,0,32,64)]; NSLog(@"Changed texture for kCJSports"); Note that all the NSLog lines get logged - and the texture RECT changes - but the image/texture changes only some of the times - fails for around 10-30% of times. Locking/threading/timing issue somewhere? My app (game) is single threaded and I only use the addImage and not the Async version. Any help much appreciated.

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  • Are there more secure alternatives to the .Net SQLConnection class?

    - by KeyboardMonkey
    Hi SO people, I'm very surprised this issue hasn't been discussed in-depth: This article tells us how to use windbg to dump a running .Net process strings in memory. I spent much time researching the SecureString class, which uses unmanaged pinned memory blocks, and keeps the data encrypted too. Great stuff. The problem comes in when you use it's value, and assign it to the SQLConnection.ConnectionString property, which is of the System.String type. What does this mean? Well... It's stored in plain text Garbage Collection moves it around, leaving copies in memory It can be read with windbg memory dumps That totally negates the SecureString functionality! On top of that, the SQLConnection class is non-inheritable, I can't even roll my own with a SecureString property instead; Yay for closed-source. Yay. A new DAL layer is in progress, but for a new major version and for so many users it will be at least 2 years before every user is upgraded, others might stay on the old version indefinitely, for whatever reason. Because of the frequency the connection is used, marshalling from a SecureString won't help, since the immutable old copies stick in memory until GC comes around. Integrated Windows security isn't an option, since some clients don't work on domains, and other roam and connect over the net. How can I secure the connection string, in memory, so it can't be viewed with windbg?

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  • Using Quartz to draw every second via NSTimer (iPhone)

    - by stuartloxton
    Hi, I'm relatively new to Objective-C + Quartz and am running into what is probably a very simple issue. I have a custom UIView sub class which I am using to draw simple rectangles via Quartz. However I am trying to hook up an NSTimer so that it draws a new object every second, the below code will draw the first rectangle but will never draw again. The function is being called (the NSLog is run) but nothing is draw. Code: - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); [self step:self]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:(NSTimeInterval)(2) target:self selector:@selector(step:) userInfo:nil repeats:TRUE]; } - (void) step:(id) sender { static double trans = 0.5f; CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 1, 0, 0, trans); CGContextAddRect(context, CGRectMake(10, 10, 10, 10)); CGContextFillPath(context); NSLog(@"Trans: %f", trans); trans += 0.01; } context is in my interface file as: CGContextRef context; Any help will be greatly appreciated!

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  • ODP.NET Procedure Compilation

    - by Bobcat1506
    When I try to execute a create procedure using ODP.NET I get back ORA-24344: success with compilation error. However, when I run the same statement in SQL Developer it compiles successfully. Does anyone know what I need to change to get my procedure to compile? Is it a character set issue? I am using Oracle 10g Express, .NET 3.5 SP 1, and ODP.NET 2.111.7.20 (version from Oracle.DataAccess.dll) [TestMethod] public void OdpNet_CreateProcedure() { ConnectionStringSettings settings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ODP.NET"]; using (var con = new OracleConnection(settings.ConnectionString)) { con.InfoMessage += new OracleInfoMessageEventHandler(con_InfoMessage); con.Open(); var cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = con; cmd.CommandText = @" CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET ( P_CURSOR OUT SYS_REFCURSOR ) IS BEGIN OPEN P_CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM TABLE1; END;"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error cmd.CommandText = @"ALTER PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET COMPILE"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error } } void con_InfoMessage(object sender, OracleInfoMessageEventArgs eventArgs) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(eventArgs.Message); }

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  • Thoughts about alternatives to barplot-with-error-bars

    - by gd047
    I was thinking of an alternative to the barplot-with-error-bars plot. To get an idea by example, I roughly 'sketched' what I mean using the following code library(plotrix) plot(0:12,type="n",axes=FALSE) gradient.rect(1,0,3,8,col=smoothColors("red",38,"red"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(4,0,6,6,col=smoothColors("blue",38,"blue"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(2,2),c(5.5,10.5)) lines(c(2-.5,2+.5),c(10.5,10.5)) lines(c(2-.5,2+.5),c(5.5,5.5)) lines(c(5,5),c(4.5,7.5)) lines(c(5-.5,5+.5),c(7.5,7.5)) lines(c(5-.5,5+.5),c(4.5,4.5)) gradient.rect(7,8,9,10.5,col=smoothColors("red",100,"white"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(7,5.5,9,8,col=smoothColors("white",100,"red"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(7,9),c(8,8),lwd=3) gradient.rect(10,6,12,7.5,col=smoothColors("blue",100,"white"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(10,4.5,12,6,col=smoothColors("white",100,"blue"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(10,12),c(6,6),lwd=3) The idea was to use bars like the ones in the second pair, instead of those in the first. However, there is something that I would like to change in the colors. Instead of a linear gradient fill, I would like to adjust the color intensity in accordance with the values of the pdf of the mean estimator. Do you think it is possible? A slightly different idea (where gradient fill isn't an issue) was to use one (or 2 back-to-back) bell curve(s) filled with (solid) color, instead of a rectangle. See for example the shape that corresponds to the letter F here. In that case the bell-curve(s) should (ideally) be drawn using something like plot(x, dnorm(x, mean = my.mean, sd = std.error.of.the.mean)) I have no idea though, of a way to draw rotated (and filled with color) bell curves. Of course, all of the above may be freely judged as midnight springtime dreams :-)

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  • jQuery code in ajax loaded content only runs once

    - by Michael Howland
    I have been looking around SO for a while and haven't been able to find anything that matches my issue, which I'm not even sure I can explain that well, so take that for what it's worth. I have a page that loads content into a div via AJAX (using the .load() method). There are several links in the navigation, meaning the content will change while navigating the site without refreshing the entire page. (Actually, to be honest, I just cribbed the DocTemplate layout [http://css-tricks.com/examples/DocTemplate/] from css-tricks.com. Apparently while I'm not a re-invent the wheel type programmer, I am a bash my head against the wheel incessantly to get it to work programmer.) So, index.php loads up some DB content in a div. There is also a jQuery UI modal input form on index.php. Essentially, the only HTML on the page is an empty div and a form. This all works fine, until I call up another page, then go back to index.php. The DB content is not loaded, and my form is shown there in all its naked glory. I know why this is happening. The page was not refreshed, nothing kicked off the code to load the content and hide the form. My question is, how can I ensure that the AJAX .load() and the .dialog() will run when loading index.php again? Is it even possible? Thanks, and my apologies for the length. I get verbose when I'm confused.

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  • How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

    - by user298145
    Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

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  • What setting needs to be made to make .Net Automation responsive?

    - by Greg
    Have an app that is looking for application windows being created on the desktop using class Unresponsive { private StructureChangedEventHandler m_UIAeventHandler = new StructureChangedEventHandler(OnStructureChanged); public Unresponsive() { Automation.AddStructureChangedEventHandler(AutomationElement.RootElement, TreeScope.Children, m_UIAeventHandler); } private void OnStructureChanged(object sender, StructureChangedEventArgs e) { Debug.WriteLine("Change event"); } } You can see the same issue using UISpy.exe, selecting the desktop and configuring scope for children and just the structure changed event. The problem I'm trying to resolve is that the events are not raised in a timely manner, there seems to be some grouping/delay which makes the app appear to be non responsive. If you start a new app with 1 window and wait a second you get the event, seems alright. If you start the same app several times without delay (say clicking on quickstart), it's not until all of the instances of the app get 'initialised' by the AutomationProxies that you get the notice for the first app (and in short order the other apps/windows). I've sat watching task manager as each instance of the app starts to grow as it is initialised, waiting until the last app is done and then seeing the events all come in. Similarly any time any apps are starting windows within a timeframe there seems to be some blocking. I can't see how to configure this timeframe, or get each structure changed event to be sent on as soon as it happens. Also, this process of listening for structure changed events seems to be leaking, just by listening there is a leak in native memory. (visible in UISpy and my app)

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  • SSL signed certificates for internal use

    - by rogueprocess
    I have a distributed application consisting of many components that communicate over TCP (for examle JMS) and HTTP. All components run on internal hardware, with internal IP addresses, and are not accessible to the public. I want to make the communication secure using SSL. Does it make sense to purchase signed certificates from a well-known certificate authority? Or should I just use self-signed certs? My understanding of the advantage of trusted certs is that the authority is an entity that can be trusted by the general public - but that is only an issue when the general public needs to be sure that the entity at a particular domain is who they say they are. Therefore, in my case, where the same organization is responsible for the components at both ends of the communication, and everything in between, a publicly trusted authority would be pointless. In other words, if I generate and sign a certificate for my own server, I know that it's trustworthy. And no one from outside the organization will ever be asked to trust this certificate. That is my reasoning - am I correct, or is there some potential advantage to using certs from a known authority?

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • How do I sanitize a string in PHP that contains "; Echo"? (I have a solid reason)

    - by user337878
    I turned this case into a simple PHP page that submits to itself. My issue is that I am submitting track meet results and one of the girl's names is Echo...a lovely name. The problem text I'm submitting is: Pole vault - Rachel Simons, Tow, 8-6; Echo Wilson, Cit, 8-0; Molly Randall, Tow, 7-0; So you see a semicolon followed by white space followed by Echo... After submitting, it says: POST to /results/test.php not supported The end goal is to save it to a database along with some other info and have a search page to find it and simply print out the full result on the screen. I stripped out all my database stuff to get it down to this one error. I mean, I can intentionally mis-spell her name, but there's gotta be a way around this, right??? Here's the test PHP file. <html> <head> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php echo "<h3>Edit meet info below</h3>"; echo "<form action=\"test.php\" method=\"post\" id=\"submitForm\">"; echo "Full Results:<br/><textarea NAME=\"results\" id=\"results\" rows=\"20\" cols=\"80\" MAXLENGTH=\"8191\"></textarea><br/><br/>"; echo "<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submitMeet\" value=\"Submit\">"; echo "</form>"; ?> </body> </html>

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  • How do I ensure my C# software can access the internet in a Citrix + ISA environment?

    - by TomFromThePool
    Hi everyone, A client recently informed us that deployment of our software in their environment has failed due to a proxy error when the software attempts to access the internet. The client has a combination of Citrix and Microsoft's ISA server. The software allows the use of a proxy and the ability to manually enter authentication information, or automatically retrieve the current system proxy settings. The error returned is the standard 407 authentication error, but the client assures us that they have entered the authentication information required. They have also shown us the snippet of the ISA error logs which identify the client as Anonymous and the authentication protocol as Basic. I have a few questions I suppose: How should I go about dealing with the ISA server in my code? I have no real experience with this environment and am assuming that the ISA server is treated like any other proxy. If I am mistaken, what should I be doing? Does ISA allow the administrator to disallow specific authentication protocols - and if this is the case and 'Basic' auth is disallowed, would it still return a 407 error? Could the Citrix environment have caused this issue? Is there any particular way to ensure that my software will work in such an environment? Code-samples would be much appreciated. I have neither a Citrix test server or an ISA server at my disposal to carry out testing on this so I am currently trying to identify possible causes before I make the case for investment in a more robust testing environment. Thanks for any help!

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  • Character Set Issues when Upgrading from Symfony 2.0.* to Symfony 2.1.*?

    - by Adam Stacey
    I have recently upgraded my staging test site to the latest version of Symfony and updated all the vendors using composer as instructed in the upgrade document that comes with the download. Everything has all updated fine, but I have noticed now that some bits of HTML are not displaying in the Twig templates. I did a comparison with the current live site and it appears to be a character set issue. As an example I had a drop down list that had the following value in: Kitchen Ducting > Ducting Kits > Ducting Kit 4” / 100mm In the updated site the drop-down list item just appeared blank. When I used Twig's raw function it then displayed the item again, but with the dreaded question mark in a black diamond. Kitchen Ducting > Ducting Kits > Ducting Kit 4? / 100mm Things that you should know that may help: The staging test site and live site are both on the same server. In my httpd.conf file I have 'AddDefaultCharset utf-8'. In my php.ini file I have 'default_charset = "utf-8"'. The HTML file served has the Content-Type meta tag 'content="text/html; charset=utf-8"' My database is InnoDB and uses 'utf8' as the default character set and 'utf8_general_ci' as default collation. All tables in the database also use the defaults. I looked into BOM with UTF8, but could not work out if that was a problem or not?

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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  • mvn deploy to AWS (ssh via distributionManagement)

    - by Dexter
    I am working on deploying the WAR file to AWS using Maven. I am planning to use 'mvn deploy' for the same which would ssh the war file to AWS. I am following http://maven.apache.org/plugins/maven-deploy-plugin/examples/deploy-ssh-external.html. This is my POM file <project> ... <distributionManagement> <repository> <id>ssh-aws</id> <url>scpexe://<ec2 instance>.compute-1.amazonaws.com</url> </repository> </distributionManagement> <build> <extensions> <!-- Enabling the use of FTP --> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ssh-external</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-6</version> </extension> </extensions> </build> .. </project> This is my settings.xml <server> <id>ssh-aws</id> <username>aws-user</username> </server> The only issue is that I am unable to figure out the url in distributionManagement node of pom.xml. I am able to ssh in the AWS server by the following. ssh -i ~/pemfile/pemfile-key.pem aws-user@<ec2 instance>.compute-1.amazonaws.com But when I run mvn clean deploy, I receive this.. Exit code: 1 - Permission denied (publickey). -> [Help 1] Thanks in advance.

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  • Immutable classes in C++

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

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  • Which Stroustrup book should I use?

    - by Chris Simmons
    I'm a C# programmer that is looking to branch out. I'm bored of writing business software and want to start getting into graphics programming and games/simulators. So I figured, although writing that stuff isn't impossible in managed code, the "right" way to do that would be to look to C++, of course focussing on the language first, then getting into OpenGL or DirectX (or whatever). Way way back ('98? '99?) I had tried and failed to really grasp Stroustrup's The C++ Programming Language. I know that this book is often not recommended for the beginner. Anyway, I picked it back up (in a much more recent printing) and I'm actually getting it and enjoying it. I also have a copy of his textbook, Programming: Principles and Practice Using C++, which, as I understand it, is really geared toward teaching programming, not necessarily C++. I'm certainly not arrogant enough to claim I don't have anything more to learn about programming, data structures, algoriths, etc., however I'm not a novice there either. So my question is, with the goal of gaining the broader and more real-world-useful understanding of C++ and given my background, on which should I focus? The denser (as I perceive it) TCPPPL or the gentler Programming? EDIT: I thank everyone for the responses. However, I've got a personal choice here to make between these two books. Granted there are other very good books out there, but I'm already a good length into both of the books I mention and I'd like to finish one. So, can anyone respond on which would be the better and why? Time is not an issue; I'm not looking (at this point) at an "accelerated" read.

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  • GWT RPC and GoDaddy Shared Hosting

    - by Mike Apolis
    Hi, I've deployed the sample Stock Watcher app to my GoDaddy Hosting site, and I get the error below. I've tried compiling the Project in Eclipse with JRE 1.5 because my Host is using jre 1.5. I think the issue is the "gwt-servlet.jar" is not compatible with jre 1.5. Can anyone confirm this. The project runs fine on my local machine using JRE 1.6. Unfortunately GoDaddy will not upgrade my shared hosting account jre to 1.6. GoDaddy Server Setup: Tomcat Version 5.0.27 JRE 1.5_22 Error: HTTP Status 500 - type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error allocating a servlet instance org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java: 124) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java: 1634) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 860) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1307) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1189) java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.0.27 logs. Apache Tomcat/5.0.27

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  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

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  • Botan linking error on Windows MSVC

    - by Jake Petroules
    I am trying to compile a library linking to the version of Botan from the Qt Creator sources with MSVC 2008 but am receiving the following error. MinGW compiles and links it fine. What is the issue? databasecrypto.obj:-1: error: LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "public: static unsigned int const Botan::Pipe::DEFAULT_MESSAGE" (?DEFAULT_MESSAGE@Pipe@Botan@@2IB) referenced in function "private: static class std::basic_string<char,struct std::char_traits<char>,class std::allocator<char> > __cdecl DatabaseCrypto::b64_encode(class Botan::SecureVector<unsigned char> const &)" (?b64_encode@DatabaseCrypto@@CA?AV?$basic_string@DU?$char_traits@D@std@@V?$allocator@D@2@@std@@ABV?$SecureVector@E@Botan@@@Z) /*! Encodes the Botan byte array \a in as a base 64 string. \param in The Botan byte array to encode. */ std::string DatabaseCrypto::b64_encode(const SecureVector<Botan::byte> &in) { Pipe pipe(new Base64_Encoder); pipe.process_msg(in); return pipe.read_all_as_string(); // <-- default parameter here is Botan::Pipe::DEFAULT_MESSAGE }

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