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  • JNI - native method with ByteBuffer parameter

    - by Ajan
    I've got a method: public native void doSomething(ByteBuffer in, ByteBuffer out); Generated by javah C/C++ header of this method is: JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java__MyClass_doSomething (JNIEnv *, jobject, jobject, jobject, jint, jint); How can I get a data array from jobject (that is a ByteBuffer instance) ?

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  • Getting the type of a parametrized class parameter?

    - by GuidoMB
    I have the following class public class MyClass<T> { public Class<T> getDomainClass() { GET THE CLASS OF T } } I've googled this problem and all the answers I could find told me to use getGenericSuperClass(), but the problem of this method is that I must have a second class that extends MyClass and I don't want to do this. What I need is to get the parametrized type of a concrete class?

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  • Passing data to a jQuery click() function

    - by jakenoble
    Hi I have a simple span like so <span class="action removeAction">Remove</span> This span is within a table, each row has a remove span. And then I call a URL using AJAX when that span is clicked. The AJAX event needs to know the ID of the object for that row? What is the best way of getting that ID into the click function? I thought I could do something like this <span class="action removeAction" id="1">Remove</span> But an ID should not start with a number? Right? Then I thought I could do <span class="action removeAction" id="my1">Remove</span> Then just strip the 'my' part from the ID, but that just seems Yuk! Below is my click event and where my AJAX event is. <script type="text/javascript" language="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".removeAction").click(function() { //AJAX here that needs to know the ID } }); </script> I am sure there is a nice way of doing this? Thanks. Jake.

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  • Accessing both stored procedure output parameters AND the result set in Entity Framework?

    - by MS.
    Is there any way of accessing both a result set and output parameters from a stored procedure added in as a function import in an Entity Framework model? I am finding that if I set the return type to "None" such that the designer generated code ends up calling base.ExecuteFunction(...) that I can access the output parameters fine after calling the function (but of course not the result set). Conversely if I set the return type in the designer to a collection of complex types then the designer generated code calls base.ExecuteFunction<T>(...) and the result set is returned as ObjectResult<T> but then the value property for the ObjectParameter instances is NULL rather than containing the proper value that I can see being passed back in Profiler. I speculate the second method is perhaps calling a DataReader and not closing it. Is this a known issue? Any work arounds or alternative approaches? Edit My code currently looks like public IEnumerable<FooBar> GetFooBars( int? param1, string param2, DateTime from, DateTime to, out DateTime? createdDate, out DateTime? deletedDate) { var createdDateParam = new ObjectParameter("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var deletedDateParam = new ObjectParameter("DeletedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var fooBars = MyContext.GetFooBars(param1, param2, from, to, createdDateParam, deletedDateParam); createdDate = (DateTime?)(createdDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : createdDateParam.Value); deletedDate = (DateTime?)(deletedDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : deletedDateParam.Value); return fooBars; }

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  • How to avoid that the Parameter Pane Area in Drill-Through Report is hidden

    - by nojetlag
    I have a report that via a text box property action triggers a drill-through report (and gives it two parameters (start date, end date)). That all works fine in the report designer, however after deploying the report on the server the pane in the drill-through reports is hidden. Is there a way I can change this behavior. Our users want the pane to be visible in the drill-through report.

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  • Making fscanf Ignore Optional Parameter

    - by adi92
    I am using fscanf to read a file which has lines like Number <-whitespace- string <-whitespace- optional_3rd_column I wish to extract the number and string out of each column, but ignore the 3rd_column if it exists Example Data: 12 foo something 03 bar 24 something #randomcomment I would want to extract 12,foo; 03,bar; 24, something while ignoring "something" and "#randomcomment" I currently have something like while(scanf("%d %s %*s",&num,&word)>=2) { assign stuff } However this does not work with lines with no 3rd column. How can I make it ignore everything after the 2nd string?

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  • Reflection for Class of generic parameter in Java?

    - by hatboysam
    Imagine the following scenario: class MyClass extends OtherClass<String>{ String myName; //Whatever } class OtherClass<T> { T myfield; } And I am analyzing MyClass using reflection specifically (MyClass.class).getDeclaredFields(), in this case I will get the following fields (and Types, using getType() of the Field): myName --> String myField --> T I want to get the actual Type for T, which is known at runtime due to the explicit "String" in the extends notation, how do I go about getting the non-genetic type of myField?

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  • Issue with TagBuilder.MergeAttribute for parameter null

    - by The Yur
    I would like to use Razor's feature not to produce attribute output inside a tag in case when attribute's value is null. So when Razor meets <div class="@var" where @var is null, the output will be mere <div. I've created some Html extension method to write text inside tag. The method takes header text, level (h1..h6), and html attributes as simple object. The code is: public static MvcHtmlString WriteHeader(this HtmlHelper html, string s, int? hLevel = 1, object htmlAttributes = null) { if ((hLevel == null) || (hLevel < 1 || hLevel > 4) || (s.IsNullOrWhiteSpace())) return new MvcHtmlString(""); string cssClass = null, cssId = null, cssStyle = null; if (htmlAttributes != null) { var T = htmlAttributes.GetType(); var propInfo = T.GetProperty("class"); var o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssClass = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("id"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssId = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("style"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssStyle = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); } var hTag = new TagBuilder("h" + hLevel); hTag.MergeAttribute("id", cssId); hTag.MergeAttribute("class", cssClass); hTag.MergeAttribute("style", cssStyle); hTag.InnerHtml = s; return new MvcHtmlString(hTag.ToString()); } I found that in spite of null values for "class" and "style" attributes TagBuilder still puts them as empty strings, like <h1 class="" style="" But for id attribute it surprisingly works, so when id's value is null, there is no id attribute in tag. My question - is such behavior something that should actually happen? How can I achieve absent attributes with null values using TagBuilder? I tried this in VS2013, MVC 5.

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  • Adding Another Parameter to my Custom jQuery Gallery

    - by steve
    My website currently uses a custom jQuery gallery system that I've developed... it works well, but I want to add one capability that I can't seem to figure out. I want the user to, instead of having to click each thumbnail, also be able to click the full image itself to advance in the gallery. Working gallery is here: http://www.studioimbrue.com The code is as follows: $('.thumbscontainer ul li a').click(function() { var li_index = $(this).parents('ul').children('li').index($(this).parent("li"));    $(this).parents('.thumbscontainer').parent().find('.captions ul li').fadeOut(); $(this).parents('.thumbscontainer').parent().find('.captions ul li:eq('+li_index+')').fadeIn(); }); }); and the gallery HTML markup is as follows: <div class="container"> <div class="captions" id="usbdrive"> <ul> <li style="display:block"> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/1.jpg" /> <div class="caption"> <span class='projecttitle'>Super Talent USB Drive Package.</span> A fancy, lavish package designed for Super Talent's specialty USB drive. It was known as the world's smallest flash drive <span class="amp">&amp;</span> it is dipped in gold! </div> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/2.jpg" /> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/3.jpg" /> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/4.jpg" /> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/5.jpg" /> </li> </ul> </div> <div class="thumbscontainer verticalthumbs"> <ul> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive1"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/1.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive2"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/2.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive3"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/3.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive4"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/4.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive5"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/5.jpg" /></a></li> </ul> </div> </div>

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  • htaccess subdomain redirct with last url parameter

    - by Pankaj
    I want to write a .htaccess file for redirecting my subdomains and URL's last variable to a new location. Here is what I want to do: http(s)://abc.example.com/books I want my internal URL to be like: http://example.com/?name=abc&type=books I have already gotten the subdomain redirect to work but I am not able to do subdomain with variable in last part of URL. How can I accomplish this?

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • reload a form with the same parameter of the previous

    - by kawtousse
    Hi every one, I have really a problem that I don't know how to deal with it. I am using JSP and Servlet with the Eclipse IDE. First of all, the user fill an html table with the values that he has selected and written in the form. after that he will find his parameters displayed in the html table. the problem now is : the table contains in each row an edit button when clicking on it; the user should have the form automatically filled with values"previously selected" of the row. so it's how to reload the form with variables from html table. Note : I construct the table with a servlet. Please help.

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  • Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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  • Overloading with same parameter signature

    - by Soham
    In C#, is it possible to have same parameters yet override each other(they are different in the return types) public override Stocks[] Search(string Field,string Param){ //some code} public override Stocks Search(string Field, string Param){//some code} C# returns compilation error

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  • Linux signals with extra information parameter

    - by Tester
    I was to have some extra information in the callback to sa_sigaction handler, it does not seems possible. So I was wondering if you could suggest me alternatives. Basic requirements: Function A raises an signal/event with a pointer to a struct Handler function tackles the event. The handler function would only be called on an event and a loop to wait for the event, as in select() , is undesirable. TIA

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  • Help with SQL query

    - by user154301
    Hello, I have list of DateTime values, and for each value I need to fetch something from the database. I would like to do this with one query. I know it's possible to pass a table (list) to the stored procedure, but Im not sure how to write the query itself. Let's say I have the following table: CREATE TABLE Shows( ShowId [int] NOT NULL, StartTime DateTime NOT NULL, EndTime DateTime NOT NULL ) and an array of dates DECLARE @myDateArray MyCustomDateArrayType Now, if I were fetching a single item, I would write a query like this: SELECT * FROM Shows WHERE StartTime > @ArrayItem and @ArrayItem < EndTime where @ArrayItem is an item from @myDateArray . But how do I formulate the query that would fetch the information for all array items? Thanks!

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  • Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

    - by Matt Rowles
    I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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  • Java - How to pass a Generic parameter as Class<T> to a constructor

    - by Joe Almore
    I have a problem here that still cannot solve, the thing is I have this abstract class: public abstract class AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> entityClass; public AbstractBean(Class<T> entityClass) { this.entityClass = entityClass; }... Now I have another class that inherits this abstract: @Stateless @LocalBean public class BasicUserBean<T extends BasicUser> extends AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> user; public BasicUserBean() { super(user); // Error: cannot reference user before supertype contructor has been called. } My question is how can I make this to work?, I am trying to make the class BasicUserBean inheritable, so if I have class PersonBean which inherits BasicUserBean then I could set in the Generic the entity Person which also inherits the entity BasicUser. And it will end up being: @Stateless @LocalBean public class PersonBean extends BasicUserBean<Person> { public PersonBean() { super(Person.class); } ... I just want to inherit the basic functionality from BasicUserBean to all descendants, so I do not have to repeat the same code among all descendants. Thanks!.

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  • pointer to preallocated memory as an input parameter and have the function fill it

    - by djones2010
    test code: void modify_it(char * mystuff) { char test[7] = "123456"; //last element is null i presume for c style strings here. //static char test[] = "123123"; //when i do this i thought i should be able to gain access to this bit of memory when the function is destroyed but that does not seem to be the case. //char * test = new char[7]; //this is also creating memory on stack and not the heap i reckon and gets destroyed once the function is done with. strcpy_s(mystuff,7,test); //this does the job as long as memory for mystuff has been allocated outside the function. mystuff = test; //this does not work. I know with c style strings you can't just do string assignments they have to be actually copied. in this case I was using this in conjunction with static char test thinking by having it as static the memory would not get destroyed and i can then simply point mystuff to test and be done with it. i would later have address the memory cleanup in the main function. but anyway this never worked. } int main(void) { char * mystuff = new char [7]; //allocate memory on heap where the pointer will point cool(mystuff); std::string test_case(mystuff); std::cout<<test_case.c_str(); //this is the only way i know how to use cout by making it into a string c++ string. delete [] mystuff; return 0; } in the case, of a static array in the function why would it not work. in the case, when i allocated memory using new in the function does it get created on the stack or heap? in the case, i have string which needs to be copied into a char * form. everything i see usually requires const char* instead of just char*. I know i could use reference to take care of this easy. Or char ** to send in the pointer and do it that way. But i just wanted to know if I could do it with just char *. Anyway your thoughts and comments plus any examples would be very helpful.

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  • Abstract class get parameter from implementing subclass?

    - by soren.qvist
    I'm wondering if there is way to do this without breaking encapsulation, I want the abstract class to rely on parameters defined in the implementing subclass. Like so: public abstract class Parent { private int size; private List<String> someList; public Parent() { size = getSize(); someList = new ArrayList<String>(size); } public abstract int getSize(); } public class Child extends Parent { @Override public int getSize() { return 5; } } Is this ugly? Is there a better way? And perhaps more importantly, is this even a good idea?

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  • CodeContracts: How to fullfill Require in Ctor using this() call?

    - by mafutrct
    I'm playing around with Microsoft's CodeContracts and encountered a problem I was unable to solve. I've got a class with two constructors: public Foo (public float f) { Contracts.Require(f > 0); } public Foo (int i) : this ((float)i) {} The example is simplified. I don't know how to check the second constructor's f for being 0. Is this even possible with Contracts?

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  • How to match parameter names in an expression?

    - by burak ozdogan
    Hi, I have a set of expressions representing some formula with some parameters inside. Like: [parameter1] * [parameter2] * [multiplier] And many others like this. I want to use a regular expression so that I can get a list of strings (List<string>) which will have the following inside: [paramter1] [paramter2] [multiplier] I am not using regular expressions so often; if you have already used something like this I would appreciate if you can share. Thanks!

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  • Run a proc on several different values of one parameter

    - by WEFX
    I have the following query that gets run within a proc. The function MyFunction returns a table, and this query joins on that table. This proc works great when a @MyArg value is supplied. However, I’m wondering if there’s a way to run this on all @MyArg values in the database. I’m sure there’s a way to do it within a loop, but I know that loops are generally to be avoided at the db layer. I really just need to perform this for the sake of checking (and possibly cleansing) some bad data. SELECT ColumnA, ColumnB, ColumnC FROM ( SELECT a.ColumnA, a.ColumnB, a.ColumnC, ROW_NUMBER() over(partition by a.ColumnD order by f.ColumnX) as RowNum FROM dbo.MyTableA AS a INNER JOIN dbo.MyFunction(@MyArg) f ON f.myID = a.myID WHERE (a.myBit = 1 OR a.myID = @MyArg) ) AS x WHERE x.rownum = 1;

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