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  • geom_ribbon doesn't work - Error in eval(expr, envir, enclos) : object 'variable' not found

    - by Marciszka
    I try to add a geom_ribbon object to my ggplot2 plot. In my data frame, I have an NA values that (I guess) may cause a problem. This is a reproducible example of data drame I have: base <- c(1:10, rep(NA, 10)) output1 <- c(rep(NA, 9), 10 - 0:10) output2 <- c(rep(NA, 9), 10 + 0:10) xaxis <- 1:20 df <- data.frame(xaxis, base, output1, output2) df xaxis base output1 output2 1 1 1 NA NA 2 2 2 NA NA 3 3 3 NA NA 4 4 4 NA NA 5 5 5 NA NA 6 6 6 NA NA 7 7 7 NA NA 8 8 8 NA NA 9 9 9 NA NA 10 10 10 10 10 11 11 NA 9 11 12 12 NA 8 12 13 13 NA 7 13 14 14 NA 6 14 15 15 NA 5 15 16 16 NA 4 16 17 17 NA 3 17 18 18 NA 2 18 19 19 NA 1 19 20 20 NA 0 20 And my attempt to plot a ggplot2 object with a geom_ribbon: dfm <- melt(df, id=1) ggplot(dfm, aes(x = xaxis, y = value, colour = variable)) + geom_line(aes(group=variable)) + geom_ribbon(data=df, aes(group = 1, ymin=output1, ymax=output2)) And, eventually, I got an error I cannot deal with: Error in eval(expr, envir, enclos) : object 'variable' not found Thank ypu in advance for any suggestions.

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  • How to update GUI thread/class from worker thread/class?

    - by user315182
    First question here so hello everyone. The requirement I'm working on is a small test application that communicates with an external device over a serial port. The communication can take a long time, and the device can return all sorts of errors. The device is nicely abstracted in its own class that the GUI thread starts to run in its own thread and has the usual open/close/read data/write data basic functions. The GUI is also pretty simple - choose COM port, open, close, show data read or errors from device, allow modification and write back etc. The question is simply how to update the GUI from the device class? There are several distinct types of data the device deals with so I need a relatively generic bridge between the GUI form/thread class and the working device class/thread. In the GUI to device direction everything works fine with [Begin]Invoke calls for open/close/read/write etc. on various GUI generated events. I've read the thread here (How to update GUI from another thread in C#?) where the assumption is made that the GUI and worker thread are in the same class. Google searches throw up how to create a delegate or how to create the classic background worker but that's not at all what I need, although they may be part of the solution. So, is there a simple but generic structure that can be used? My level of C# is moderate and I've been programming all my working life, given a clue I'll figure it out (and post back)... Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Canvas scroll animation not working correctly

    - by pedalpete
    I'm building a gantt chart style timeline using html canvas element. I am currently attempting to add the functionality which allows the user to click a next/prev button to have the gantt chart scroll to display earlier or later times. The way I am doing this is to have a span.adjustTime where the id holds a value in seconds for the time to be adjusted (eg 86400 for one day). I am trying to animate the scrolling so it looks like a scroll, rather than jumping ahead by one day. I have a small problem in my timing calculation, but the script below is not animating, but rather jumping directly to the final time. I do have the draw function running on a separate setInterval which updates every second, so I'm hoping it isn't an issue of conflicting timers on the same function on the same element and data. jQuery('span.adjustTime').click(function() { var adjustBy = parseInt(jQuery(this).attr('id').replace('a', '')); var data = jQuery('img#logo').data(); for(var m = 1; m >= 30; m++) { gantt.startUnixTime = gantt.startUnixTime + (adjustBy * (m * 0.001)); var moveTimer = setTimeout(function() { draw(document.getElementById('gantt'), data, gantt); }, 1000); if (m == 30) { clearTimeout(moveTimer); } } });

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  • Creating a json array and json items with jquery?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I made a simple javascript class like this: function Horse() { this.color = 'brown'; this.speed = 'somewhat slow'; } I attached a few instances to some elements, like this: $("#horse1").data('d', new Horse()); $("#horse2").data('d', new Horse()); $("#horse3").data('d', new Horse()); now I want to create a JSON array with a JSON representation of each horse object. So I'm doing this: // How do I create an empty JSON array here?: var myJsonArray = ?; var children = $("#horses").children(); for (var i = 0, m = children.size(); i < m; i++) { var panel = children[i]; var horse = $(panel).data('h'); // And how do I create a JSON rep of my horse here? var myJsonHorse = new JsonHorse(?); // Finally, how do I add it to the json array? myJsonArray.push(myJsonHorse); } yeah my end goal is to have a single json array of all the horses after iterating over all the children - not sure if this should be done in plain javascript or in jquery? Thanks

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  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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  • C++ std::stringstream seemingly causes thread to hang or die under SunOS

    - by stretch
    I have an application developed under Linux with GCC 4.2 which makes quite heacy use of stringstreams to wrap and unwrap data being sent over the wire. (Because the Grid API I'm using demands it). Under Linux everything is fine but when I deploy to SunOS (v5.10 running SPARC) and compile with GCC 3.4.6 the app hangs when it reaches the point at which stringstreams are used. In more detail: The main thread accepts requests from clients and starts a new pthread to handle each request. The child thread uses stringstreams to pack data. When the child thread gets to that point it seems to hang for a second and then die. The main thread is unaffected. Are there any known issues with stringstream and GCC 3.4.6 or SunOS or SPARCs? I didn't find anything yet... Can anyone suggest a better way to pack and unpack large amounts of data a strings or byte streams? Apologies for not posting code but this to me seems more involved than a simple syntax error. All the same, the thread crashes: std::stringstream mystringstream; //not here mystringstream << "some data: "; //but here That is, I can declare the stringstream but when I try to use it something goes wrong.

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  • SQL string manipulation to return multiple rows

    - by Andy Jacobs
    I'm an experienced programmer, but relatively new to SQL. We're using Oracle 10 and 11. I have a system in place using SQL that combines actual rows with virtual rows (e.g. "SELECT 1 from DUAL") doing unions and intersects as needed, which all seems to work. My problem is that I need to combine this system which is expecting rows of data, with new data that will have the data in (let's say for simplification) comma delimited strings. So I think what I need is a way to convert a string like: "5,6,7,8" into 4 rows with one column each, with "5" in the first row, "6" in the second, etc. In other languages, I'd do a "Split" with comma as the delimiter. Of course, the data won't always have 4 entries. There's a second question, but I'll ask it separately. But I suspect it will simplify things, if possible, if the solution to the above could be used as a table in another SQL statement (i.e., to work with my existing system). Thanks for any help.

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  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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  • Is it possible to render PDF (fPDF) via a javascript?

    - by J. LaRosee
    So, I'm passing some values via jQuery to the server, which generates PDF garble. It goes something like this: $.post('/admin/printBatch', data, // Some vars and such function(data){ if(data) { var batch = window.open('','Batch Print','width=600,height=600,location=_newtab'); var html = data; // Perhaps some header info here?! batch.document.open(); batch.document.write(html); batch.document.close(); $( this ).dialog( "close" ); // jQuery UI } else { alert("Something went wrong, dawg."); } return false; }); The output file looks roughly like so: $pdf->AddPage(null, null, 'A PDF Page'); //.... $pdf->Output('', 'I'); // 'I' sends the file inline to the browser (http://fpdf.org/en/doc/output.htm) What gets rendered to the browser window: %PDF-1.3 3 0 obj <> endobj 4 0 obj <> stream ... I'm missing something major, I just know it... thoughts? Thanks, guys.

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  • Debug not working in Monodroid with a Galaxy Nexus

    - by MaxM
    I'm starting to work with Monodroid testing on a Galaxy Nexus from MonoDevelop for Mac. Running the default Android project without debugging works. But if I try to debug it either says this in the Application Output pane: Error trying to detect already running process Or it outputs the following to logcat: I/ActivityManager( 448): Start proc monotest.monotest for activity monotest.monotest/monotest.Activity1: pid=3075 uid=10068 gids={3003} D/dalvikvm( 3063): GC_CONCURRENT freed 98K, 89% free 478K/4096K, paused 0ms+1ms I/dalvikvm( 3075): Turning on JNI app bug workarounds for target SDK version 8... V/PhoneStatusBar( 524): setLightsOn(true) I/ActivityThread( 3075): Pub monotest.monotest.__mono_init__: mono.MonoRuntimeProvider D/dalvikvm( 3075): Trying to load lib /data/data/monotest.monotest/lib/libmonodroid.so 0x41820850 D/dalvikvm( 3075): Added shared lib /data/data/monotest.monotest/lib/libmonodroid.so 0x41820850 D/OpenGLRenderer( 683): Flushing caches (mode 1) E/mono ( 3075): WARNING: The runtime version supported by this application is unavailable. E/mono ( 3075): Using default runtime: v2.0.50727 D/OpenGLRenderer( 683): Flushing caches (mode 0) I/monodroid-gc( 3075): environment supports jni NewWeakGlobalRef I/mono ( 3075): Stacktrace: I/mono ( 3075): D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): >>>>>> AndroidRuntime START com.android.internal.os.RuntimeInit <<<<<< D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): CheckJNI is OFF D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): Calling main entry com.android.commands.am.Am D/dalvikvm( 3021): GC_CONCURRENT freed 359K, 3% free 15630K/16071K, paused 2ms+4ms D/Zygote ( 119): Process 3075 terminated by signal (11) I/ActivityManager( 448): Process monotest.monotest (pid 3075) has died. I tried using another device (a Galaxy Tab) and it worked fine. I also tried the suggestion from here and it didn't help.

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  • __toString magic and type coercion

    - by TomcatExodus
    I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

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  • Trying to create a .NET DLL to be used with Non-.NET Application

    - by Changeling
    I am trying to create a .NET DLL so I can use the cryptographic functions with my non .NET application. I have created a class library so far with this code: namespace AESEncryption { public class EncryptDecrypt { private static readonly byte[] optionalEntropy = { 0x21, 0x05, 0x07, 0x08, 0x27, 0x02, 0x23, 0x36, 0x45, 0x50 }; public interface IEncrypt { string Encrypt(string data, string filePath); }; public class EncryptDecryptInt:IEncrypt { public string Encrypt(string data, string filePath) { byte[] plainKey; try { // Read in the secret key from our cipher key store byte[] cipher = File.ReadAllBytes(filePath); plainKey = ProtectedData.Unprotect(cipher, optionalEntropy, DataProtectionScope.CurrentUser); // Convert our plaintext data into a byte array byte[] plainTextBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael alg = Rijndael.Create(); alg.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; alg.Key = plainKey; alg.IV = optionalEntropy; CryptoStream cs = new CryptoStream(ms, alg.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); cs.Write(plainTextBytes, 0, plainTextBytes.Length); cs.Close(); byte[] encryptedData = ms.ToArray(); return Convert.ToString(encryptedData); } catch (Exception ex) { return ex.Message; } } } } } In my VC++ application, I am using the #import directive to import the TLB file created from the DLL, but the only available functions are _AESEncryption and LIB_AES etc I don't see the interface or the function Encrypt. When I try to instantiate so I can call the functions in my VC++ program, I use this code and get the following error: HRESULT hr = CoInitialize(NULL); IEncryptPtr pIEncrypt(__uuidof(EncryptDecryptInt)); error C2065: 'IEncryptPtr': undeclared identifier error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'pIEncrypt'

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  • Synchronizing DataGridView (DataTable) with the DB

    - by Ezekiel Rage
    Hi! I have the following situation: there is a table in the DB that is queried when the form loads and the retrieved data is filled into a DataGridView via the DataTable underneath. After the data is loaded the user is free to modify the data (add / delete rows, modify entries). The form has 2 buttons: Apply and Refresh. The first one sends the changes to the database, the second one re-reads the data from the DB and erases any changes that have been made by the user. My question is: is this the best way to keep a DataGridView synchronized with the DB (from a users point of view)? For now these are the downsides: the user must keep track of what he is doing and must press the button every while the modifications are lost if the form is closed / app crash / ... I tried sending the changes to the DB on CellEndEdit event but then the user also needs some Undo/Redo functionality and that is ... well ... a different story. So, any suggestions?

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  • Selenium RC: Selecting elements using the CSS :contains pseudo-class

    - by Andrew
    I would like to assert that a table row contains the data that I expect in two different tables. Using the following HTML as an example: <table> <tr> <th>Table 1</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>Row 1 Col 2</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <th>Table 2</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>different data</td> </tr> </table> The following assertion passes: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1)'); However, this one doesn't: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1)'); And ultimately, I need to be able to test that both columns within the table row contain the data that I expect: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)'); $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 2) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(different data)'); What am I doing wrong? How can I achieve this? Update: Sounds like the problem is a bug in Selenium when trying to select descendants. The only way I was able to get this to work was to add an extra identifier on the table so I could tell which one I was working with: /* HTML */ <table id="table-1"> /* PHP */ $this->assertElementPresent("css=#table-1 tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)");

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  • What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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  • Unable to Get a Correct Time when I am Calling serverTime using jquery.countdown.js + Asp.net ?

    - by user312891
    When i am calling the below function I unable to get a correct Answer. Both var Shortly and newTime having same time one coming from the client site other sync with server. http://keith-wood.name/countdown.html I am waiting from your response. Thanks $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; }

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  • How do I programatically verify, create, and update SQL table structure?

    - by JYelton
    Scenario: I have an application (C#) that expects a SQL database and login, which are set by a user. Once connected, it checks for the existence of several table and creates them if not found. I'd like to expand on this by having the program be capable of adding columns to those tables if I release a new version of the program which relies upon the new columns. Question: What is the best way to programatically check the structure of an existing SQL table and create or update it to match an expected structure? I am planning to iterate through the list of required columns and alter the existing table whenever it does not contain the new column. I can't help but wonder if there's an approach that is different or better. Criteria: Here are some of my expectations and self-imposed rules: Newer versions of the program might no longer use certain columns, but they would be retained for data logging purposes. In other words, no columns will be removed. Existing data in the table must be preserved, so the table cannot simply be dropped and recreated. In all cases, newly added columns would allow null data, so the population of old records is taken care of by having default null values. Example: Here is a sample table (because visual examples help!): id sensor_name sensor_status x1 x2 x3 x4 1 na019 OK 0.01 0.21 1.41 1.22 Then, in a new version, I may want to add the column x5. The "x-columns" are all data-storage columns that accept null.

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  • Need help with a SQL CTE Query

    - by Chuck
    I have a table that I need to get some specific data from for a view. Here's the base table structure with some sample data: | UserID | ReportsToUserID | Org ID | ------------------------------------- | 1 | NULL | 1 | ------------------------------------- | 2 | 1 | 1 | ------------------------------------- | 3 | 2 | 1 | ------------------------------------- | 4 | 3 | 1 | ------------------------------------- The users will be entering reports and users can see the reports of users who report to them and any users who report to those users. Users who report to no one can see everything in their organization Given my sample data above, user 1 can see the reports of 2, 3, & 4; user 2 can see the reports of 3 & 4; and user 3 can see the reports of 4. For the view, I'd like to have the data returned as follows: | UserID | CanSeeUserID | OrgID | -------------------------------------------- | 1 | 2 | 1 | -------------------------------------------- | 1 | 3 | 1 | -------------------------------------------- | 1 | 4 | 1 | -------------------------------------------- | 2 | 3 | 1 | -------------------------------------------- etc... Below is my current code, any help is greatly appreciated. WITH CTEUsers (UserID, CanSeeUserID, OrgID) AS ( SELECT e.ID, e.ReportsToUserID, e.OrgID FROM Users e WITH(NOLOCK) WHERE COALESCE(ReportsToUserID,0) = 0 --ReportsToUserID can be NULL or 0 UNION ALL SELECT e.ReportsToUserID, e.ID,e.OrgID FROM Users e WITH(NOLOCK) JOIN CTEUsers c ON e.ID = c.UserID ) SELECT * FROM CTEUsers

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  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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  • How to compare 2 complex spreadsheets running in parallel for consistency with each other?

    - by tbone
    I am working on converting a large number of spreadsheets to use a new 3rd party data access library (converting from third party library #1 to third party library #2). fyi: a call to a UDF (user defined function) is placed in a cell, and when that is refreshed, it pulls the data into a pivot table below the formula. Both libraries behave the same and produce the same output, except, small irregularites can arise, such as an additional field being shown in the output pivot table using library #2, which can affect formulas on the sheet if data is being read from the pivot table without using GetPivotData. So I have ~100 of these very complicated (20+ worksheets per workbook) spreadsheets that I have to convert, and run in parallel for a period of time, to see if the output using the new data access library matches the old library. Is there some clever approach to do this, so I don't have to spend a large amount of time analyzing each sheet to determine the specific elements to compare? Two rough ideas that come to mind: 1. just create a Validator workbook that has the same # of worksheets, and simply do a Worbook1!Worksheet1!A1 - Worbook2!Worksheet3!A1 for every possible cell on each sheet 2. roughly the equivalent of #1, but just traverse the cells in the 2 books using VBA, and log any cells that do not match. I don't particularly like either idea, can anyone think of something better than this, maybe some 3rd party utility I could buy?

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  • How to Store and Retrieve Images Using MsSQL (Server Management Studio)

    - by Joe Majewski
    I am having difficulties when trying to insert files into an MsSQL database. I'll try to break this down as best as I can: What data type should I be using to store image files (jpeg/png/gif/etc)? Right now my table is using the image data type, but I am curious if varbinary would be a better option. How would I go about inserting the image into the database? Does Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio have any built in functions that allow insertions of files into tables? If so, how is that done? Also, how could this be done through the use of an HTML form with PHP handling the input data and placing it into the table? How would I fetch the image from the table and display it on the page? I understand how to SELECT the cell's contents, but how would I go about translating that into a picture. Would I have to have a header(Content type: image/jpeg)? I have no problem doing any of these things with MySQL, but the MsSQL environment is still new to me, and I am working on a project for my job that requires the use of stored procedures to grab various data. Any and all help is appreciated. Thank you very much for your responses!

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